Family interventions for psychotic disorders US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice US Medical PG questions for Family interventions for psychotic disorders. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Family interventions for psychotic disorders US Medical PG Question 1: Several years after a teenage boy and his younger brother witnessed a gang related murder, they both decided to come forward and report it to authorities. The older brother describes the horrific decapitation of the gang member without displaying any emotion; but when the younger brother was asked about the crime, he had no recollection of the event. Which two ego defenses are being displayed by these brothers, respectively?
- A. Denial; Dissociation
- B. Suppression; Repression
- C. Isolation of affect; Displacement
- D. Splitting; Regression
- E. Isolation of affect; Repression (Correct Answer)
Family interventions for psychotic disorders Explanation: ***Isolation of affect; Repression***
- The older brother describes the horrific event **without displaying any emotion**, which is characteristic of **isolation of affect**, a defense mechanism where the emotional component of an experience is separated from the cognitive component.
- The younger brother has **no recollection** of the traumatic event, indicating **repression**, an unconscious mechanism where distressing thoughts or memories are pushed out of conscious awareness.
*Denial; Dissociation*
- **Denial** involves refusing to accept reality, which is not what the older brother is doing as he clearly describes the event.
- **Dissociation** involves a disruption of consciousness, memory, identity, or perception; while the younger brother's lack of recollection could be a form of dissociation, repression is a more specific and fitting term for the unconscious forgetting of a traumatic event.
*Suppression; Repression*
- **Suppression** is a conscious effort to push thoughts away, whereas the older brother's lack of emotion is an unconscious separation.
- While the younger brother's amnesia is **repression**, the older brother's symptom is not suppression.
*Isolation of affect; Displacement*
- **Isolation of affect** accurately describes the older brother's response.
- However, **displacement** involves redirecting impulses or emotions from the original target to a safer, more acceptable one, which does not describe the younger brother's lack of recollection.
*Splitting; Regression*
- **Splitting** involves seeing things as all good or all bad, which neither brother demonstrates.
- **Regression** is returning to an earlier stage of development in response to stress, which is not what the younger brother's amnesia represents.
Family interventions for psychotic disorders US Medical PG Question 2: An 8-year-old boy is brought to the physician by his mother for a well-child examination at a clinic for low-income residents. Although her son's elementary school offers free afterschool programming, her son has not been interested in attending. Both the son's maternal and paternal grandmothers have major depressive disorder. The mother is curious about the benefits of afterschool programming and asks for the physician's input. Which of the following statements best addresses the potential benefits of afterschool programming for this child?
- A. High-quality afterschool programming would decrease this patient's risk of developing major depressive disorder.
- B. High-quality afterschool programming for low-income 8-year-olds may correlate with decreased ADHD risk in adults. (Correct Answer)
- C. High-quality afterschool programming has a greater effect on reducing psychotic disorder risk in adults than bipolar disorder risk.
- D. High-quality afterschool programming has a greater effect on reducing ADHD risk in adults than major depressive disorder risk.
- E. The patient's family history of psychiatric illness prevents any potential benefits from afterschool programming.
Family interventions for psychotic disorders Explanation: ***High-quality afterschool programming for low-income 8-year-olds may correlate with decreased ADHD risk in adults.***
- Research, including systematic reviews and longitudinal studies, indicates that structured, high-quality afterschool programs can lead to improved behavioral outcomes and reduced risk of **ADHD symptoms** persisting into adulthood, especially in **vulnerable populations** such as low-income children.
- These programs foster **social-emotional skills**, provide academic support, and promote healthy development, indirectly mitigating factors associated with ADHD through improved executive function and self-regulation.
*High-quality afterschool programming would decrease this patient's risk of developing major depressive disorder.*
- While afterschool programs provide mental health benefits through **social support** and structured activities, the direct reduction in risk of **major depressive disorder** is less consistently demonstrated compared to behavioral outcomes.
- Given the strong **family history** (both grandmothers affected), genetic factors play a significant role that afterschool programming alone cannot fully mitigate.
*The patient's family history of psychiatric illness prevents any potential benefits from afterschool programming.*
- Family history is a **risk factor** but does not negate the benefits of **preventive interventions** like afterschool programs.
- Evidence-based programs can still provide protective effects on mental health and behavioral outcomes, even in children with genetic vulnerabilities.
*High-quality afterschool programming has a greater effect on reducing psychotic disorder risk in adults than bipolar disorder risk.*
- There is **insufficient evidence** to support significant impacts of childhood afterschool programming specifically on reducing the risk of **psychotic disorders** or **bipolar disorder** in adulthood.
- These conditions have strong genetic and neurobiological components that are not primarily addressed by afterschool interventions.
*High-quality afterschool programming has a greater effect on reducing ADHD risk in adults than major depressive disorder risk.*
- While this comparison has some support in the literature, the **correct answer** is more appropriately hedged and specific to the patient population (low-income 8-year-olds).
- Both conditions can benefit from afterschool programming, but the evidence for **behavioral regulation** and ADHD symptom reduction is more robust and consistent.
Family interventions for psychotic disorders US Medical PG Question 3: A 14-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his mother for temper tantrums for the past year. She is concerned as he gets abnormally irritated and angry towards the smallest things. After asking the mother to leave the room, the patient reports that he is simply annoyed by his mother's constant nagging. He denies any violent tendencies, suicidal ideations, depressive symptoms, or intention to hurt others. The patient states he finds the physician irritating and that he reminds him of his mother in his mannerisms and demeanor. Without provocation, the patient shouts at the physician saying that he does not understand or really care about him and he never would. What is the likely explanation for this patient's behavior toward the physician?
- A. Passive aggression
- B. Transference (Correct Answer)
- C. Displacement
- D. Projection
- E. Acting out
Family interventions for psychotic disorders Explanation: ***Transference***
- **Transference** occurs when a patient unconsciously redirects feelings and attitudes from a significant past relationship (e.g., with a parent) onto the physician. The patient explicitly states the physician reminds him of his mother in mannerisms and demeanor, triggering a hostile outburst.
- The patient's anger towards the physician "without provocation" and his declaration that the physician "doesn't understand or care" mirrors his expressed annoyance with his mother's "constant nagging," which he perceives as a lack of understanding or validation.
*Passive aggression*
- **Passive aggression** involves indirect resistance to the demands of others and an avoidance of direct confrontation, often through procrastination, stubbornness, or intentional inefficiency.
- The patient's behavior is a direct, overt verbal outburst, not an indirect form of aggression.
*Displacement*
- **Displacement** is a defense mechanism where hostile or aggressive impulses are redirected from the original source of the frustration (mother) to a less threatening target (the physician).
- While there is redirection of feelings, the key for transference is the *perception* that the physician *reminds* him of the original target, rather than just being a convenient, safer target for displaced feelings. The prompt explicitly states the patient sees the physician as his mother.
*Projection*
- **Projection** is a defense mechanism where undesirable thoughts, feelings, or qualities are attributed to another person.
- The patient is expressing his own feelings of annoyance and anger, not attributing his own *unacceptable* feelings to the physician. He is responding to the physician as if the physician *is* his mother.
*Acting out*
- **Acting out** refers to the expression of unconscious emotional conflicts or impulses through behavior, rather than through verbal expression or introspection. It's often impulsive and can be self-destructive or defiant.
- While the patient is expressing emotions through behavior (shouting), the specific underlying mechanism described (physician reminding him of his mother) points more directly to transference as the primary defense.
Family interventions for psychotic disorders US Medical PG Question 4: A 20-year-old male is involuntarily admitted to the county psychiatric unit for psychotic behavior over the past three months. The patient's mother explained to the psychiatrist that her son had withdrawn from family and friends, appeared to have no emotions, and had delusions that he was working for the CIA. When he spoke, his sentences did not always seem to have any connection with each other. The mother finally decided to admit her son after he began stating that he "revealed too much information to her and was going to be eliminated by the CIA." Which of the following diagnoses best fits this patient's presentation?
- A. Schizophrenia
- B. Brief psychotic disorder
- C. Schizophreniform disorder (Correct Answer)
- D. Schizoid personality disorder
- E. Schizotypal personality disorder
Family interventions for psychotic disorders Explanation: ***Schizophreniform disorder***
- The patient exhibits classic symptoms of **psychosis**, including delusions, disorganized speech, flat affect, and social withdrawal, which are characteristic of schizophrenia spectrum disorders.
- The duration of symptoms (3 months) fits the criteria for **schizophreniform disorder**, which is when psychotic symptoms last between 1 month and 6 months.
*Schizophrenia*
- Schizophrenia requires symptoms to be present for at least **6 months**, including at least 1 month of active-phase symptoms.
- While this patient's symptoms are consistent with psychotic disorder, the **duration criteria** for schizophrenia have not yet been met.
*Brief psychotic disorder*
- Brief psychotic disorder is characterized by symptoms lasting from **1 day to 1 month**, with eventual full return to premorbid functioning.
- The patient's symptoms have persisted for **3 months**, exceeding the maximum duration for brief psychotic disorder.
*Schizoid personality disorder*
- This disorder is characterized by a pervasive pattern of **detachment from social relationships** and a restricted range of emotional expression.
- While the patient exhibits social withdrawal, the presence of **delusions, disorganized speech, and flat affect** indicates a psychotic disorder, not merely a personality disorder.
*Schizotypal personality disorder*
- Schizotypal personality disorder involves pervasive social and interpersonal deficits with **cognitive or perceptual distortions** and eccentric behaviors.
- While it can involve odd beliefs, it does not typically include the prominent, fixed, and systematized **delusions and disorganized speech** seen in this patient's presentation.
Family interventions for psychotic disorders US Medical PG Question 5: A 28-year-old woman is brought into the clinic by her husband with concerns that she might be depressed. She delivered a healthy newborn a week and a half ago without any complications. Since then, she has been having trouble sleeping, eating poorly, and has stopped playing with the baby. The patient says she feels like she is drained all the time and feels guilty for not doing more for the baby. Which of the following is the best course of treatment for this patient?
- A. Reassurance
- B. Fluoxetine (Correct Answer)
- C. Risperidone
- D. Amitriptyline
- E. No treatment
Family interventions for psychotic disorders Explanation: ***Fluoxetine***
- This patient's symptoms (trouble sleeping, poor appetite, guilt, and anhedonia towards the baby) occurring 10 days postpartum are highly suggestive of **postpartum depression**. **SSRIs** like fluoxetine are first-line pharmacological treatments for this condition.
- Fluoxetine is a **selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)** that helps regulate mood by increasing serotonin levels in the brain. It is generally considered safe during breastfeeding, with a relatively low infant exposure compared to other antidepressants.
*Reassurance*
- Reassurance alone may be appropriate for **postpartum blues**, which are milder and self-limiting, typically resolving within two weeks.
- This patient's symptoms are more severe and persistent, lasting beyond typical postpartum blues and significantly impacting her functioning, indicating a need for more substantial intervention.
*Risperidone*
- Risperidone is an **atypical antipsychotic** primarily used to treat conditions like schizophrenia or bipolar disorder, or as an adjunct for severe refractory depression with psychotic features.
- There is no indication of psychosis in this patient's presentation, and the use of an antipsychotic would be disproportionate and carry unnecessary side effects.
*Amitriptyline*
- Amitriptyline is a **tricyclic antidepressant (TCA)**. While effective for depression, TCAs are generally not first-line due to a less favorable side effect profile (e.g., anticholinergic effects, cardiac conductivity issues) compared to SSRIs.
- SSRIs like fluoxetine are preferred for initial treatment of postpartum depression due to their better tolerability and safety profile.
*No treatment*
- This patient exhibits clear symptoms of **postpartum depression**, which is a serious condition that can worsen without intervention and impact both the mother's and infant's well-being.
- Untreated depression can lead to significant functional impairment, chronic suffering, and in severe cases, harm to oneself or the baby.
Family interventions for psychotic disorders US Medical PG Question 6: A 24-year-old woman visits her psychiatrist a week after she delivered a baby. She is holding her baby and crying as she waits for her appointment. She tells her physician that a day or so after her delivery, she has been finding it difficult to contain her feelings. She is often sad and unable to contain her tears. She is embarrassed and often starts crying without any reason in front of people. She is also anxious that she will not be a good mother and will make mistakes. She hasn’t slept much since the delivery and is often stressed about her baby getting hurt. She makes excessive attempts to keep the baby safe and avoid any mishaps. She does not report any loss of interest in her activities and denies any suicidal tendencies. Which of the following is best course of management for this patient?
- A. Get admitted immediately
- B. Come back for a follow-up in 2 weeks (Correct Answer)
- C. Start on a small dose of fluoxetine daily
- D. Give her child to child protective services
- E. Schedule an appointment for electroconvulsive therapy
Family interventions for psychotic disorders Explanation: ***Come back for a follow-up in 2 weeks***
- This patient presents with symptoms highly suggestive of **postpartum blues**, which typically resolve spontaneously within two weeks after delivery.
- Reassurance, emotional support, and monitoring her symptoms with a follow-up appointment are the most appropriate initial steps.
*Get admitted immediately*
- Immediate admission is generally reserved for more severe conditions like **postpartum psychosis**, characterized by delusions, hallucinations, or severe disorganization, which are not described here.
- Her symptoms, though distressing, do not indicate a level of impairment or danger requiring urgent inpatient care.
*Start on a small dose of fluoxetine daily*
- **Antidepressant medication** like fluoxetine is typically considered for **postpartum depression** if symptoms persist beyond two weeks or are severe from the outset.
- Given the transient nature of postpartum blues, medication is not the first-line treatment.
*Give her child to child protective services*
- This action is extreme and entirely unwarranted, as there is no indication of **child abuse, neglect, or harm** from the mother.
- Her increased anxiety about the baby's safety indicates concern, not a risk to the child's well-being.
*Schedule an appointment for electroconvulsive therapy*
- **Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)** is a highly effective, but usually last-resort, treatment reserved for severe, treatment-refractory depression or psychosis, especially when rapid response is critical.
- Her symptoms do not currently warrant such an intensive intervention.
Family interventions for psychotic disorders US Medical PG Question 7: A 27-year-old woman with cystic fibrosis comes to the physician for a follow-up examination. She has been hospitalized frequently for pneumonia and nephrolithiasis and is on chronic antibiotic therapy for recurrent sinusitis. The patient and her husband would like to have a child but have been unable to conceive. She feels that she can never achieve a full and happy life due to her disease and says that she is “totally frustrated” with the barriers of her illness. Although her family is supportive, she doesn't want to feel like a burden and tries to shield them from her struggles. Which of the following is the most appropriate statement by the physician?
- A. You should educate yourself about your disease or condition using credible, current sources. Knowledge can help dispel fear and anxiety.
- B. I understand that living with cystic fibrosis is not easy. You are not alone in this. I would like to recommend a support group. (Correct Answer)
- C. I see that you are frustrated, but this illness has its ups and downs. I am sure you will feel much better soon.
- D. I understand your frustration with your situation. I would like to refer you to a therapist.
- E. I think it's really important that you talk to your family more about this. I'm sure they can help you out.
Family interventions for psychotic disorders Explanation: ***"I understand that living with cystic fibrosis is not easy. You are not alone in this. I would like to recommend a support group."***
- This statement offers **empathy** and validates the patient's feelings, which is crucial for building rapport and trust.
- Recommending a support group provides a **concrete, helpful resource** for emotional support and shared experiences, addressing her feelings of isolation and burden.
*"I think it's really important that you talk to your family more about this. I'm sure they can help you out."*
- This statement can be perceived as **dismissive** of her efforts to shield her family and might add to her feeling of being a burden.
- While family support is important, simply telling her to talk to them does not offer **new strategies** or specific guidance for her unique struggles.
*"You should educate yourself about your disease or condition using credible, current sources. Knowledge can help dispel fear and anxiety."*
- This response is **intellectualizing** and does not directly address her expressed emotional distress, frustration, and feelings of being overwhelmed.
- Given her chronic illness and frequent hospitalizations, it's highly likely she is **already well-educated** about her condition; this advice might come across as belittling.
*"I see that you are frustrated, but this illness has its ups and downs. I am sure you will feel much better soon."*
- This statement **minimizes her current suffering** and offers false reassurance, which can invalidate her feelings and erode trust in the physician.
- It lacks **empathy** and does not provide any actionable advice or support for her long-term chronic condition.
*"I understand your frustration with your situation. I would like to refer you to a therapist."*
- While a therapist can be helpful, suggesting it immediately might make the patient feel her frustration is being **medicalized as a mental health issue** before exploring other avenues of support.
- Recommending a support group first can be a gentler, less stigmatizing approach that allows her to connect with others facing similar challenges.
Family interventions for psychotic disorders US Medical PG Question 8: A 27-year-old man is brought to the emergency department from a homeless shelter because of bizarre behavior. He avoids contact with others and has complained to the supervising staff that he thinks people are reading his mind. Three days ago, he unplugged every electrical appliance on his floor of the shelter because he believed they were being used to transmit messages about him to others. The patient has schizophrenia and has been prescribed risperidone but has been unable to comply with his medications because of his unstable living situation. He is disheveled and malodorous. His thought process is disorganized and he does not make eye contact. Which of the following is the most appropriate long-term pharmacotherapy?
- A. Intravenous propranolol
- B. Intramuscular benztropine
- C. Oral haloperidol
- D. Intramuscular risperidone (Correct Answer)
- E. Oral diazepam
Family interventions for psychotic disorders Explanation: ***Intramuscular risperidone***
- Given the patient's **non-compliance** due to an unstable living situation, a **long-acting injectable antipsychotic** like intramuscular risperidone is the most appropriate choice for long-term management. This ensures consistent medication delivery regardless of daily adherence.
- This medication directly addresses the **positive symptoms of schizophrenia** (paranoia, disorganized thought) that are evident in the patient's bizarre behavior and delusional beliefs.
*Intravenous propranolol*
- Propranolol is a **beta-blocker** used to treat anxiety, hypertension, and tremors, but it is **not an antipsychotic** and does not address the core symptoms of schizophrenia.
- It could potentially be used for symptom control like akathisia if present, but not as primary long-term pharmacotherapy for psychosis.
*Intramuscular benztropine*
- Benztropine is an **anticholinergic medication** primarily used to treat **extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)** induced by antipsychotics (e.g., dystonia, parkinsonism).
- It does not have antipsychotic effects and would not treat the patient's psychotic symptoms.
*Oral haloperidol*
- While haloperidol is an **effective antipsychotic**, it is an **oral formulation**. Given the patient's history of **non-compliance** with oral medication (risperidone), switching to another oral antipsychotic, even one as potent as haloperidol, is unlikely to solve the adherence issue, especially in an unstable living situation.
- Long-term management requires a strategy that overcomes the compliance barrier.
*Oral diazepam*
- Diazepam is a **benzodiazepine** primarily used for anxiety, sedation, and seizure control.
- It has **no antipsychotic properties** and would not treat the underlying psychotic symptoms of schizophrenia. It would only provide temporary sedation.
Family interventions for psychotic disorders US Medical PG Question 9: A 34-year-old man presents to the behavioral health clinic for an evaluation after seeing animal-shaped clouds in the form of dogs, cats, and monkeys. The patient says that these symptoms have been present for more than 2 weeks. Past medical history is significant for simple partial seizures for which he takes valproate, but he has not had his medication adjusted in several years. His vital signs include: blood pressure of 124/76 mm Hg, heart rate of 98/min, respiratory rate of 12/min, and temperature of 37.1°C (98.8°F). On physical examination, the patient is alert and oriented to person, time, and place. Affect is not constricted or flat. Speech is of rapid rate and high volume. Pupils are equal and reactive bilaterally. The results of a urine drug screen are as follows:
Alcohol positive
Amphetamine negative
Benzodiazepine negative
Cocaine positive
GHB negative
Ketamine negative
LSD negative
Marijuana negative
Opioids negative
PCP negative
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
- A. Delusion
- B. Alcohol withdrawal
- C. Visual hallucination
- D. Cocaine intoxication
- E. Illusion (Correct Answer)
Family interventions for psychotic disorders Explanation: ***Illusion***
- The patient is seeing **animal shapes in the clouds**, which is a misinterpretation of a real external stimulus. This is the definition of an **illusion**.
- Unlike hallucinations, illusions involve a distorted perception of an existing object, rather than perceiving something that is not present.
*Delusion*
- A **delusion** is a **fixed, false belief** that is not amenable to change in light of conflicting evidence, and it is not what is being described here.
- The patient is experiencing a perceptual distortion, not a false belief system.
*Alcohol withdrawal*
- While the patient tests positive for alcohol, the symptoms described are **perceptual distortions** (misinterpretation of clouds), not typical signs of alcohol withdrawal which include tremors, seizures, and delirium tremens.
- The timeline of "more than 2 weeks" also makes acute alcohol withdrawal less likely, as withdrawal symptoms typically peak within days.
*Visual hallucination*
- A **hallucination** is a perception in the absence of an external stimulus; the patient would be seeing animals when no clouds (or other visual stimuli) are present.
- The patient is seeing animal shapes *in the clouds*, indicating an existing external stimulus that is being misinterpreted.
*Cocaine intoxication*
- While cocaine intoxication can cause psychiatric symptoms like paranoia and hallucinations, the specific description of **seeing animal shapes in clouds** (misinterpretation of a real stimulus) points more directly to an illusion rather than a primary effect of cocaine use.
- The patient's presentation does not include other common symptoms of acute cocaine intoxication like severe agitation, dilated pupils, or hyperthermia beyond a rapid heart rate.
Family interventions for psychotic disorders US Medical PG Question 10: A 45-year-old man presents to a psychiatrist by his wife with recent behavioral and emotional changes. The patient’s wife says that her husband’s personality has completely changed over the last year. She also says that he often complains of unpleasant odors when actually there is no discernible odor present. The patient mentions that he is depressed at times while on other occasions, he feels like he is ‘the most powerful man in the world.’ The psychiatrist takes a detailed history from this patient and concludes that he is most likely suffering from a psychotic disorder. However, before prescribing an antipsychotic medication, he recommends that the patient undergoes brain imaging to rule out a brain neoplasm. Based on the presence of which of the following clinical signs or symptoms in this patient is the psychiatrist most likely recommending this imaging test?
- A. Olfactory hallucinations (Correct Answer)
- B. Echolalia
- C. Anhedonia
- D. Delusions of grandeur
- E. Thought broadcasting
Family interventions for psychotic disorders Explanation: ***Olfactory hallucinations***
- The presence of **olfactory hallucinations** ("unpleasant odors when actually there is no discernible odor present") in the context of new-onset psychotic symptoms and personality changes, particularly in a middle-aged adult, raises suspicion for an underlying **structural brain lesion**, such as a **frontal or temporal lobe tumor**.
- Brain neoplasms in these regions can irritate cortical areas, leading to atypical psychotic symptoms and these specific types of hallucinations, making imaging crucial before initiating antipsychotic therapy.
*Echolalia*
- **Echolalia** is the involuntary repetition of words or phrases spoken by another person, often associated with conditions like **autism spectrum disorder**, **Tourette's syndrome**, or severe **psychotic disorders**, particularly **schizophrenia**.
- While it can be a feature of psychiatric illness, it is not a red flag for structural brain pathology in the same manner as new-onset olfactory hallucinations.
*Anhedonia*
- **Anhedonia** is the inability to experience pleasure from activities usually found enjoyable, a prominent symptom of **major depressive disorder** and other mood disorders, as well as some psychotic disorders.
- Although the patient reports feeling "depressed at times," anhedonia is a common psychiatric symptom and does not specifically point to a need for urgent brain imaging in the absence of other alarming features.
*Delusions of grandeur*
- **Delusions of grandeur** are false beliefs that one is much greater or more powerful than they truly are, as described by the patient feeling like "the most powerful man in the world." This symptom is characteristic of **bipolar disorder (manic episodes)** or some **psychotic disorders**.
- While present in this patient, grandiose delusions are part of the core symptomatology of many psychiatric conditions and, by themselves, do not typically necessitate brain imaging to rule out a tumor.
*Thought broadcasting*
- **Thought broadcasting** is the belief that one's thoughts are being transmitted into the minds of others, a classic **first-rank symptom of schizophrenia**.
- This symptom is indicative of a severe thought disorder within the spectrum of psychotic illnesses but does not specifically raise the suspicion of an underlying brain lesion requiring neuroimaging.
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