Cognitive remediation in psychotic disorders US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice US Medical PG questions for Cognitive remediation in psychotic disorders. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Cognitive remediation in psychotic disorders US Medical PG Question 1: A senior medicine resident receives negative feedback on a grand rounds presentation from his attending. He is told sternly that he must improve his performance on the next project. Later that day, he yells at his medical student for not showing enough initiative, though he had voiced only satisfaction with the student's performance up until this point. Which of the following psychological defense mechanisms is he demonstrating?
- A. Transference
- B. Projection
- C. Countertransference
- D. Externalization
- E. Displacement (Correct Answer)
Cognitive remediation in psychotic disorders Explanation: ***Displacement***
- **Displacement** occurs when a person redirects an emotional response from a dangerous or threatening object to a safer, less threatening one. In this scenario, the resident, unable to express frustration towards his attending, redirects it onto the medical student.
- The resident's anger and frustration stemmed from the negative feedback and stern reprimand from his attending; his subsequent yelling at the medical student despite prior satisfaction is a clear example of shifting these feelings to a less powerful target.
*Transference*
- **Transference** involves a patient unconsciously redirecting feelings and attitudes from important past relationships (e.g., parents) onto the therapist or other individuals in the present.
- This scenario describes the resident's reaction to current stress, not the re-enactment of past relational patterns in a clinical setting.
*Projection*
- **Projection** is a defense mechanism where individuals attribute their own unacceptable thoughts, feelings, or impulses to another person.
- The resident is not attributing his own perceived inadequacy or anger to the student; rather, he is expressing his anger *at* the student, which originated from a different source.
*Countertransference*
- **Countertransference** is a phenomenon in therapy where the therapist projects their own feelings onto the patient, often in response to the patient's transference.
- This mechanism is specific to the therapeutic context and involves the therapist's emotional reactions, which is not applicable to the resident's general interaction with a medical student.
*Externalization*
- **Externalization** is a broad term referring to the tendency to blame outside factors for one's problems or failures, essentially viewing distress as coming from outside oneself.
- While related to projection, externalization specifically focuses on attributing causality of one's struggles to external circumstances rather than a direct redirection of an emotional response to a different target. The resident isn't just blaming others for his problems; he is actively expressing displaced anger.
Cognitive remediation in psychotic disorders US Medical PG Question 2: A 10-year-old child is sent to the school psychologist in May because he refuses to comply with the class rules. His teacher says this has been going on since school started back in August. He gets upset at the teacher regularly when he is told to complete a homework assignment in class. Sometimes he refuses to complete them altogether. Several of his teachers have reported that he intentionally creates noises in class to interrupt the class. He tells the psychologist that the teacher and his classmates are at fault. What is the most appropriate treatment?
- A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (Correct Answer)
- B. Interpersonal therapy
- C. Administration of lithium
- D. Motivational interviewing
- E. Administration of clozapine
Cognitive remediation in psychotic disorders Explanation: ***Cognitive-behavioral therapy***
- This child exhibits symptoms consistent with **Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD)**, including persistent refusal to comply with rules, anger outbursts, and blaming others. **CBT** is a highly effective treatment for ODD, teaching children coping skills, anger management, and problem-solving.
- CBT helps children identify and change **maladaptive thought patterns** and behaviors, which is crucial for managing the defiant and argumentative behaviors seen in ODD.
*Interpersonal therapy*
- **Interpersonal therapy (IPT)** primarily focuses on improving interpersonal relationships and communication patterns, often used for depression or eating disorders.
- While improved relationships might be a secondary benefit, IPT does not directly target the core **defiant behaviors** and **anger management** issues central to ODD.
*Administration of lithium*
- **Lithium** is a mood stabilizer primarily used in the treatment of **bipolar disorder** and severe mood dysregulation.
- There is no indication from the provided symptoms (defiance, anger, blaming others) that the child is experiencing a mood disorder that would warrant lithium.
*Motivational interviewing*
- **Motivational interviewing** is a counseling approach that helps individuals resolve ambivalence to change, often used in substance abuse or health behavior change.
- While it can be useful in encouraging willingness to engage in therapy, it is not a direct therapeutic modality for addressing the specific **behavioral challenges** and **underlying cognitive distortions** of ODD.
*Administration of clozapine*
- **Clozapine** is an antipsychotic medication reserved for severe mental illnesses like **treatment-resistant schizophrenia** due to its significant side effects.
- The child's symptoms of defiance and rule-breaking are not indicative of a psychotic disorder requiring antipsychotic medication.
Cognitive remediation in psychotic disorders US Medical PG Question 3: A research group wants to assess the safety and toxicity profile of a new drug. A clinical trial is conducted with 20 volunteers to estimate the maximum tolerated dose and monitor the apparent toxicity of the drug. The study design is best described as which of the following phases of a clinical trial?
- A. Phase 0
- B. Phase III
- C. Phase V
- D. Phase II
- E. Phase I (Correct Answer)
Cognitive remediation in psychotic disorders Explanation: ***Phase I***
- **Phase I clinical trials** involve a small group of healthy volunteers (typically 20-100) to primarily assess **drug safety**, determine a safe dosage range, and identify side effects.
- The main goal is to establish the **maximum tolerated dose (MTD)** and evaluate the drug's pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic profiles.
*Phase 0*
- **Phase 0 trials** are exploratory studies conducted in a very small number of subjects (10-15) to gather preliminary data on a drug's **pharmacodynamics and pharmacokinetics** in humans.
- They involve microdoses, not intended to have therapeutic effects, and thus cannot determine toxicity or MTD.
*Phase III*
- **Phase III trials** are large-scale studies involving hundreds to thousands of patients to confirm the drug's **efficacy**, monitor side effects, compare it to standard treatments, and collect information that will allow the drug to be used safely.
- These trials are conducted after safety and initial efficacy have been established in earlier phases.
*Phase V*
- "Phase V" is not a standard, recognized phase in the traditional clinical trial classification (Phase 0, I, II, III, IV).
- This term might be used in some non-standard research contexts or for post-marketing studies that go beyond Phase IV surveillance, but it is not a formal phase for initial drug development.
*Phase II*
- **Phase II trials** involve several hundred patients with the condition the drug is intended to treat, focusing on **drug efficacy** and further evaluating safety.
- While safety is still monitored, the primary objective shifts to determining if the drug works for its intended purpose and at what dose.
Cognitive remediation in psychotic disorders US Medical PG Question 4: A 57-year-old man presents to the clinic for a chronic cough over the past 4 months. The patient reports a productive yellow/green cough that is worse at night. He denies any significant precipitating event prior to his symptoms. He denies fever, chest pain, palpitations, weight changes, or abdominal pain, but endorses some difficulty breathing that waxes and wanes. He denies alcohol usage but endorses a 35 pack-year smoking history. A physical examination demonstrates mild wheezes, bibasilar crackles, and mild clubbing of his fingertips. A pulmonary function test is subsequently ordered, and partial results are shown below:
Tidal volume: 500 mL
Residual volume: 1700 mL
Expiratory reserve volume: 1500 mL
Inspiratory reserve volume: 3000 mL
What is the functional residual capacity of this patient?
- A. 4500 mL
- B. 2000 mL
- C. 2200 mL
- D. 3200 mL (Correct Answer)
- E. 3500 mL
Cognitive remediation in psychotic disorders Explanation: ***3200 mL***
- The **functional residual capacity (FRC)** is the volume of air remaining in the lungs after a normal expiration.
- It is calculated as the sum of the **expiratory reserve volume (ERV)** and the **residual volume (RV)**. In this case, 1500 mL (ERV) + 1700 mL (RV) = 3200 mL.
*4500 mL*
- This value represents the sum of the **inspiratory reserve volume (3000 mL)** and the **residual volume (1700 mL)**, which does not correspond to a standard lung volume or capacity.
- It does not logically relate to the definition of functional residual capacity.
*2000 mL*
- This value represents the sum of the **tidal volume (500 mL)** and the **expiratory reserve volume (1500 mL)**, which is incorrect for FRC.
- This would represent the inspiratory capacity minus the inspiratory reserve volume, which is not a standard measurement used in pulmonary function testing.
*2200 mL*
- This value could be obtained by incorrectly adding the **tidal volume (500 mL)** and the **residual volume (1700 mL)**, which is not the correct formula for FRC.
- This calculation represents a miscombination of lung volumes that does not correspond to any standard pulmonary capacity measurement.
*3500 mL*
- This value is the sum of the **tidal volume (500 mL)**, the **expiratory reserve volume (1500 mL)**, and the **residual volume (1700 mL)**.
- This would represent the FRC plus the tidal volume, which is not a standard measurement and does not represent the functional residual capacity.
Cognitive remediation in psychotic disorders US Medical PG Question 5: A 35-year-old man comes to the Veterans Affairs hospital because of a 2-month history of anxiety. He recently returned from his third deployment to Iraq, where he served as a combat medic. He has had difficulty readjusting to civilian life. He works as a taxi driver but had to take a leave of absence because of difficulties with driving. Last week, he hit a stop sign because he swerved out of the way of a grocery bag that was in the street. He has difficulty sleeping because of nightmares about the deaths of some of the other soldiers in his unit and states, “it's my fault, I could have saved them. Please help me.” Mental status examination shows a depressed mood and a restricted affect. There is no evidence of suicidal ideation. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in treatment?
- A. Dialectical behavioral therapy
- B. Venlafaxine therapy
- C. Cognitive behavioral therapy (Correct Answer)
- D. Motivational interviewing
- E. Prazosin therapy
Cognitive remediation in psychotic disorders Explanation: ***Cognitive behavioral therapy***
- **Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT)** is considered a first-line psychological treatment for **Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)**, which the patient's symptoms (deployments, intrusive thoughts, nightmares, avoidance, guilt) strongly suggest.
- CBT helps individuals identify and challenge **maladaptive thought patterns** and behaviors related to the trauma, fostering new coping mechanisms.
*Dialectical behavioral therapy*
- **Dialectical Behavioral Therapy (DBT)** is primarily used for individuals with **Borderline Personality Disorder** or severe emotional dysregulation.
- While it can help with emotional regulation, it is not the **first-line therapy** specifically targeting trauma-related cognitive distortions and avoidance behaviors seen in PTSD.
*Venlafaxine therapy*
- **Venlafaxine**, an SNRI, is an antidepressant that can be effective for PTSD symptoms. However, current guidelines recommend **psychotherapy (like CBT)** as the initial step, especially when feasible.
- While pharmacotherapy can be used, it's typically considered **adjunctive** or for cases where psychotherapy alone is insufficient or not preferred.
*Motivational interviewing*
- **Motivational interviewing** is a patient-centered counseling style used to address ambivalence and enhance a person's **intrinsic motivation** for change.
- It is often utilized in substance abuse treatment or when patients are resistant to treatment, but it is not a primary, standalone treatment for the core symptoms of PTSD.
*Prazosin therapy*
- **Prazosin** is an alpha-1 antagonist used off-label to treat **PTSD-related nightmares** and sleep disturbances.
- While it can be helpful for a specific symptom, it does not address the broader spectrum of PTSD symptoms, such as intrusive thoughts, avoidance, or negative cognitions.
Cognitive remediation in psychotic disorders US Medical PG Question 6: An orthopaedic surgeon at a local community hospital has noticed that turnover times in the operating room have been unnecessarily long. She believes that the long wait times may be due to inefficient communication between the surgical nursing staff, the staff in the pre-operative area, and the staff in the post-operative receiving area. She believes a secure communication mobile phone app would help to streamline communication between providers and improve efficiency in turnover times. Which of the following methods is most appropriate to evaluate the impact of this intervention in the clinical setting?
- A. Plan-Do-Study-Act cycle (Correct Answer)
- B. Failure modes and effects analysis
- C. Standardization
- D. Forcing function
- E. Root cause analysis
Cognitive remediation in psychotic disorders Explanation: ***Plan-Do-Study-Act cycle***
- The **Plan-Do-Study-Act (PDSA) cycle** is a structured, iterative model used for continuous improvement in quality and efficiency, making it ideal for evaluating the impact of a new intervention like a communication app.
- This cycle allows for small-scale testing of changes, observation of results, learning from the observations, and refinement of the intervention before full implementation.
*Failure modes and effects analysis*
- **Failure modes and effects analysis (FMEA)** is a prospective method to identify potential failures in a process, predict their effects, and prioritize actions to prevent them.
- While useful for process improvement, FMEA is typically performed *before* implementing a change to identify risks, rather than to evaluate the impact of an already implemented intervention.
*Standardization*
- **Standardization** involves creating and implementing consistent processes or protocols to reduce variability and improve reliability.
- While the communication app might contribute to standardization, standardization itself is a *method of improvement* rather than a method for *evaluating the impact* of an intervention.
*Forcing function*
- A **forcing function** is a design feature that physically prevents an error from occurring, making it impossible to complete a task incorrectly.
- An app that streamlines communication does not act as a forcing function, as it facilitates a process rather than physically preventing an incorrect action.
*Root cause analysis*
- **Root cause analysis (RCA)** is a retrospective method used to investigate an event that has already occurred (e.g., an adverse event) to identify its underlying causes.
- This method is used *after* a problem has manifested to understand *why* it happened, not to evaluate the *impact* of a new intervention designed to prevent future problems.
Cognitive remediation in psychotic disorders US Medical PG Question 7: A 20-year-old man comes to the physician because of decreasing academic performance at his college for the past 6 months. He reports a persistent fear of “catching germs” from his fellow students and of contracting a deadly disease. He finds it increasingly difficult to attend classes. He avoids handshakes and close contact with other people. He states that when he tries to think of something else, the fears “keep returning” and that he has to wash himself for at least an hour when he returns home after going outside. Afterwards he cleans the shower and has to apply disinfectant to his body and to the bathroom. He does not drink alcohol. He used to smoke cannabis but stopped one year ago. His vital signs are within normal limits. He appears anxious. On mental status examination, he is oriented to person, place, and time. In addition to starting an SSRI, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (Correct Answer)
- B. Psychodynamic psychotherapy
- C. Motivational interviewing
- D. Interpersonal therapy
- E. Group therapy
Cognitive remediation in psychotic disorders Explanation: **Cognitive-behavioral therapy**
- **Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)**, specifically **Exposure and Response Prevention (ERP)**, is the most effective psychotherapy for **obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)**, which this patient's symptoms strongly suggest.
- CBT helps patients challenge distorted thoughts and gradually expose themselves to feared situations while preventing compulsive rituals, thus breaking the cycle of obsessions and compulsions.
*Psychodynamic psychotherapy*
- This therapy focuses on **unconscious conflicts** and **past experiences** to understand current symptoms.
- While it can be helpful for some mental health conditions, it is generally **less effective** than CBT for the specific, highly ritualized symptoms of OCD.
*Motivational interviewing*
- **Motivational interviewing** is a patient-centered counseling style designed to address **ambivalence about change** and enhance intrinsic motivation.
- It is often used in substance abuse or lifestyle changes, but it does not directly teach coping skills for OCD symptoms or address the underlying thought patterns.
*Interpersonal therapy*
- **Interpersonal therapy (IPT)** focuses on the patient's **current interpersonal relationships** and social functioning.
- While social difficulties can arise from OCD, IPT does not directly target the obsessions and compulsions that are central to the disorder.
*Group therapy*
- **Group therapy** can provide support and a sense of community, but for a severe condition like OCD, **individual therapy** (especially CBT/ERP) is typically recommended first due to the highly individualized nature of obsessions and compulsions.
- It may be a complementary approach, but usually not the most appropriate initial next step given the intensity of the patient's symptoms.
Cognitive remediation in psychotic disorders US Medical PG Question 8: A 27-year-old man is brought to the emergency department from a homeless shelter because of bizarre behavior. He avoids contact with others and has complained to the supervising staff that he thinks people are reading his mind. Three days ago, he unplugged every electrical appliance on his floor of the shelter because he believed they were being used to transmit messages about him to others. The patient has schizophrenia and has been prescribed risperidone but has been unable to comply with his medications because of his unstable living situation. He is disheveled and malodorous. His thought process is disorganized and he does not make eye contact. Which of the following is the most appropriate long-term pharmacotherapy?
- A. Intravenous propranolol
- B. Intramuscular benztropine
- C. Oral haloperidol
- D. Intramuscular risperidone (Correct Answer)
- E. Oral diazepam
Cognitive remediation in psychotic disorders Explanation: ***Intramuscular risperidone***
- Given the patient's **non-compliance** due to an unstable living situation, a **long-acting injectable antipsychotic** like intramuscular risperidone is the most appropriate choice for long-term management. This ensures consistent medication delivery regardless of daily adherence.
- This medication directly addresses the **positive symptoms of schizophrenia** (paranoia, disorganized thought) that are evident in the patient's bizarre behavior and delusional beliefs.
*Intravenous propranolol*
- Propranolol is a **beta-blocker** used to treat anxiety, hypertension, and tremors, but it is **not an antipsychotic** and does not address the core symptoms of schizophrenia.
- It could potentially be used for symptom control like akathisia if present, but not as primary long-term pharmacotherapy for psychosis.
*Intramuscular benztropine*
- Benztropine is an **anticholinergic medication** primarily used to treat **extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)** induced by antipsychotics (e.g., dystonia, parkinsonism).
- It does not have antipsychotic effects and would not treat the patient's psychotic symptoms.
*Oral haloperidol*
- While haloperidol is an **effective antipsychotic**, it is an **oral formulation**. Given the patient's history of **non-compliance** with oral medication (risperidone), switching to another oral antipsychotic, even one as potent as haloperidol, is unlikely to solve the adherence issue, especially in an unstable living situation.
- Long-term management requires a strategy that overcomes the compliance barrier.
*Oral diazepam*
- Diazepam is a **benzodiazepine** primarily used for anxiety, sedation, and seizure control.
- It has **no antipsychotic properties** and would not treat the underlying psychotic symptoms of schizophrenia. It would only provide temporary sedation.
Cognitive remediation in psychotic disorders US Medical PG Question 9: A 34-year-old man presents to the behavioral health clinic for an evaluation after seeing animal-shaped clouds in the form of dogs, cats, and monkeys. The patient says that these symptoms have been present for more than 2 weeks. Past medical history is significant for simple partial seizures for which he takes valproate, but he has not had his medication adjusted in several years. His vital signs include: blood pressure of 124/76 mm Hg, heart rate of 98/min, respiratory rate of 12/min, and temperature of 37.1°C (98.8°F). On physical examination, the patient is alert and oriented to person, time, and place. Affect is not constricted or flat. Speech is of rapid rate and high volume. Pupils are equal and reactive bilaterally. The results of a urine drug screen are as follows:
Alcohol positive
Amphetamine negative
Benzodiazepine negative
Cocaine positive
GHB negative
Ketamine negative
LSD negative
Marijuana negative
Opioids negative
PCP negative
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
- A. Delusion
- B. Alcohol withdrawal
- C. Visual hallucination
- D. Cocaine intoxication
- E. Illusion (Correct Answer)
Cognitive remediation in psychotic disorders Explanation: ***Illusion***
- The patient is seeing **animal shapes in the clouds**, which is a misinterpretation of a real external stimulus. This is the definition of an **illusion**.
- Unlike hallucinations, illusions involve a distorted perception of an existing object, rather than perceiving something that is not present.
*Delusion*
- A **delusion** is a **fixed, false belief** that is not amenable to change in light of conflicting evidence, and it is not what is being described here.
- The patient is experiencing a perceptual distortion, not a false belief system.
*Alcohol withdrawal*
- While the patient tests positive for alcohol, the symptoms described are **perceptual distortions** (misinterpretation of clouds), not typical signs of alcohol withdrawal which include tremors, seizures, and delirium tremens.
- The timeline of "more than 2 weeks" also makes acute alcohol withdrawal less likely, as withdrawal symptoms typically peak within days.
*Visual hallucination*
- A **hallucination** is a perception in the absence of an external stimulus; the patient would be seeing animals when no clouds (or other visual stimuli) are present.
- The patient is seeing animal shapes *in the clouds*, indicating an existing external stimulus that is being misinterpreted.
*Cocaine intoxication*
- While cocaine intoxication can cause psychiatric symptoms like paranoia and hallucinations, the specific description of **seeing animal shapes in clouds** (misinterpretation of a real stimulus) points more directly to an illusion rather than a primary effect of cocaine use.
- The patient's presentation does not include other common symptoms of acute cocaine intoxication like severe agitation, dilated pupils, or hyperthermia beyond a rapid heart rate.
Cognitive remediation in psychotic disorders US Medical PG Question 10: A 45-year-old man presents to a psychiatrist by his wife with recent behavioral and emotional changes. The patient’s wife says that her husband’s personality has completely changed over the last year. She also says that he often complains of unpleasant odors when actually there is no discernible odor present. The patient mentions that he is depressed at times while on other occasions, he feels like he is ‘the most powerful man in the world.’ The psychiatrist takes a detailed history from this patient and concludes that he is most likely suffering from a psychotic disorder. However, before prescribing an antipsychotic medication, he recommends that the patient undergoes brain imaging to rule out a brain neoplasm. Based on the presence of which of the following clinical signs or symptoms in this patient is the psychiatrist most likely recommending this imaging test?
- A. Olfactory hallucinations (Correct Answer)
- B. Echolalia
- C. Anhedonia
- D. Delusions of grandeur
- E. Thought broadcasting
Cognitive remediation in psychotic disorders Explanation: ***Olfactory hallucinations***
- The presence of **olfactory hallucinations** ("unpleasant odors when actually there is no discernible odor present") in the context of new-onset psychotic symptoms and personality changes, particularly in a middle-aged adult, raises suspicion for an underlying **structural brain lesion**, such as a **frontal or temporal lobe tumor**.
- Brain neoplasms in these regions can irritate cortical areas, leading to atypical psychotic symptoms and these specific types of hallucinations, making imaging crucial before initiating antipsychotic therapy.
*Echolalia*
- **Echolalia** is the involuntary repetition of words or phrases spoken by another person, often associated with conditions like **autism spectrum disorder**, **Tourette's syndrome**, or severe **psychotic disorders**, particularly **schizophrenia**.
- While it can be a feature of psychiatric illness, it is not a red flag for structural brain pathology in the same manner as new-onset olfactory hallucinations.
*Anhedonia*
- **Anhedonia** is the inability to experience pleasure from activities usually found enjoyable, a prominent symptom of **major depressive disorder** and other mood disorders, as well as some psychotic disorders.
- Although the patient reports feeling "depressed at times," anhedonia is a common psychiatric symptom and does not specifically point to a need for urgent brain imaging in the absence of other alarming features.
*Delusions of grandeur*
- **Delusions of grandeur** are false beliefs that one is much greater or more powerful than they truly are, as described by the patient feeling like "the most powerful man in the world." This symptom is characteristic of **bipolar disorder (manic episodes)** or some **psychotic disorders**.
- While present in this patient, grandiose delusions are part of the core symptomatology of many psychiatric conditions and, by themselves, do not typically necessitate brain imaging to rule out a tumor.
*Thought broadcasting*
- **Thought broadcasting** is the belief that one's thoughts are being transmitted into the minds of others, a classic **first-rank symptom of schizophrenia**.
- This symptom is indicative of a severe thought disorder within the spectrum of psychotic illnesses but does not specifically raise the suspicion of an underlying brain lesion requiring neuroimaging.
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