Persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia) US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice US Medical PG questions for Persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia). These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia) US Medical PG Question 1: A mental health volunteer is interviewing locals as part of a community outreach program. A 46-year-old man discloses that he has felt sad for as long as he can remember. He feels as though his life is cursed and if something terrible can happen to him, it usually will. He has difficulty making decisions and feels hopeless. He also feels that he has had worsening suicidal ideations, guilt from past problems, decreased energy, and poor concentration over the past 2 weeks. He is otherwise getting enough sleep and able to hold a job. Which of the following statement best describes this patient's condition?
- A. The patient may have symptoms of mania or psychosis.
- B. The patient is likely to show anhedonia.
- C. The patient likely has paranoid personality disorder.
- D. The patient has double depression. (Correct Answer)
- E. The patient should be started on an SSRI.
Persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia) Explanation: ***The patient has double depression.***
- The patient describes **chronic low-grade depressive symptoms** ("felt sad for as long as he can remember," "life is cursed," "difficulty making decisions," "hopeless") consistent with **persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia)**, which requires at least 2 years of symptoms.
- The recent worsening of symptoms over the past two weeks, including "worsening suicidal ideations, guilt from past problems, decreased energy, and poor concentration," indicates an additional **major depressive episode (MDE) superimposed on dysthymia**, a condition known as **double depression**.
- This patient currently meets criteria for both conditions simultaneously, not just at risk for developing them.
*The patient may have symptoms of mania or psychosis.*
- There are no symptoms mentioned that suggest **mania**, such as elevated mood, increased energy, decreased need for sleep, grandiosity, or racing thoughts.
- While suicidal ideation is present, there is no evidence of **psychotic features** like hallucinations or delusions.
*The patient is likely to show anhedonia.*
- **Anhedonia** (inability to feel pleasure) is a common symptom of depression and may well be present in this patient.
- However, the patient's presentation specifically highlights the pattern of **chronic dysthymia with a superimposed major depressive episode**, making **double depression** a more precise, comprehensive, and diagnostically specific description of his current condition.
- While anhedonia might be present, it is a symptom rather than a diagnostic formulation.
*The patient likely has paranoid personality disorder.*
- **Paranoid personality disorder** is characterized by pervasive distrust and suspicion of others, interpreting their motives as malevolent, without sufficient basis.
- The patient's feelings of being "cursed" and that "something terrible can happen" reflect **depressive pessimism and negative cognitive distortions**, not paranoid ideation about others' intentions.
- This is consistent with the hopelessness seen in depression.
*The patient should be started on an SSRI.*
- While an **SSRI (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor)** combined with psychotherapy would likely be appropriate treatment for double depression, making a specific treatment recommendation is premature without comprehensive clinical assessment.
- The question asks for the **best statement describing the patient's condition** (diagnosis), not for treatment recommendations.
Persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia) US Medical PG Question 2: A 28-year-old woman is brought into the clinic by her husband with concerns that she might be depressed. She delivered a healthy newborn a week and a half ago without any complications. Since then, she has been having trouble sleeping, eating poorly, and has stopped playing with the baby. The patient says she feels like she is drained all the time and feels guilty for not doing more for the baby. Which of the following is the best course of treatment for this patient?
- A. Reassurance
- B. Fluoxetine (Correct Answer)
- C. Risperidone
- D. Amitriptyline
- E. No treatment
Persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia) Explanation: ***Fluoxetine***
- This patient's symptoms (trouble sleeping, poor appetite, guilt, and anhedonia towards the baby) occurring 10 days postpartum are highly suggestive of **postpartum depression**. **SSRIs** like fluoxetine are first-line pharmacological treatments for this condition.
- Fluoxetine is a **selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)** that helps regulate mood by increasing serotonin levels in the brain. It is generally considered safe during breastfeeding, with a relatively low infant exposure compared to other antidepressants.
*Reassurance*
- Reassurance alone may be appropriate for **postpartum blues**, which are milder and self-limiting, typically resolving within two weeks.
- This patient's symptoms are more severe and persistent, lasting beyond typical postpartum blues and significantly impacting her functioning, indicating a need for more substantial intervention.
*Risperidone*
- Risperidone is an **atypical antipsychotic** primarily used to treat conditions like schizophrenia or bipolar disorder, or as an adjunct for severe refractory depression with psychotic features.
- There is no indication of psychosis in this patient's presentation, and the use of an antipsychotic would be disproportionate and carry unnecessary side effects.
*Amitriptyline*
- Amitriptyline is a **tricyclic antidepressant (TCA)**. While effective for depression, TCAs are generally not first-line due to a less favorable side effect profile (e.g., anticholinergic effects, cardiac conductivity issues) compared to SSRIs.
- SSRIs like fluoxetine are preferred for initial treatment of postpartum depression due to their better tolerability and safety profile.
*No treatment*
- This patient exhibits clear symptoms of **postpartum depression**, which is a serious condition that can worsen without intervention and impact both the mother's and infant's well-being.
- Untreated depression can lead to significant functional impairment, chronic suffering, and in severe cases, harm to oneself or the baby.
Persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia) US Medical PG Question 3: A 24-year-old woman comes to the physician because she feels sad and has had frequent, brief episodes of crying for the last month. During this period, she sleeps in every morning and spends most of her time in bed playing video games or reading. She has not been spending time with friends but still attends a weekly book club and continues to plan her annual family reunion. She stopped going to the gym, eats more, and has gained 4 kg (8.8 lb) over the past 4 weeks. Three weeks ago, she also started to smoke marijuana a few times a week. She drinks one glass of wine daily and does not smoke cigarettes. She is currently unemployed; she lost her job as a physical therapist 3 months ago. Her vital signs are within normal limits. On mental status examination, she is calm, alert, and oriented to person, place, and time. Her mood is depressed; her speech is organized, logical, and coherent. She denies suicidal thoughts. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Bipolar disorder
- B. Substance use disorder
- C. Major depressive disorder
- D. Adjustment disorder (Correct Answer)
- E. Persistent Depressive Disorder (Dysthymia)
Persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia) Explanation: ***Adjustment disorder***
- This diagnosis is characterized by the development of emotional or behavioral symptoms in response to an identifiable stressor (such as losing a job) occurring within **3 months** of the onset of the stressor.
- The patient exhibits depressive symptoms (sadness, crying, increased sleep, anhedonia, weight gain) that do not meet the full criteria for a major depressive episode and do not significantly impair social/occupational functioning, as evidenced by her continued participation in a book club and planning her family reunion.
*Bipolar disorder*
- This disorder typically involves episodes of **mania or hypomania** along with depressive episodes, neither of which are described in the patient's presentation.
- Her symptoms are consistently depressive in nature and linked to a specific stressor, without periods of elevated mood, increased energy, or decreased need for sleep.
*Substance use disorder*
- While the patient has recently started smoking marijuana and drinks alcohol, these behaviors developed *after* the onset of her depressive symptoms and a known stressor.
- Her marijuana use is still relatively recent ("a few times a week") and not yet described as causing significant impairment or dependence that would typically define a substance use disorder as the primary diagnosis.
*Major depressive disorder*
- This diagnosis requires a severe and pervasive depressive episode that lasts for at least **2 weeks** and significantly impairs functioning in multiple areas of life.
- Although she has several depressive symptoms, her continued ability to engage in some social activities (book club) and plan events (family reunion) suggests that the impairment is not as severe or pervasive as typically seen in MDD. Additionally, her symptoms are clearly linked to a recent life stressor, which points away from MDD as the primary diagnosis.
*Persistent Depressive Disorder (Dysthymia)*
- This disorder is characterized by a chronically depressed mood that lasts for at least **2 years** (or 1 year in children/adolescents), with symptoms that are generally milder than major depression but more persistent.
- The patient's symptoms have only been present for one month, which is far too short a duration to meet the diagnostic criteria for persistent depressive disorder.
Persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia) US Medical PG Question 4: A 27-year-old man comes to the physician for a follow-up examination. Paroxetine therapy was initiated 6 weeks ago for a major depressive episode. He now feels much better and says he is delighted with his newfound energy. He gets around 8 hours of sleep nightly. His appetite has increased. Last year, he had two episodes of depressed mood, insomnia, and low energy during which he had interrupted his job training and stopped going to the gym. Now, he has been able to resume his job at a local bank. He also goes to the gym three times a week to work out and enjoys reading books again. His temperature is 36.5°C (97.7°F), pulse is 70/min, and blood pressure is 128/66 mm Hg. Physical and neurologic examinations show no abnormalities. On mental status examination, he describes his mood as "good." Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- A. Discontinue paroxetine
- B. Switch from paroxetine to venlafaxine therapy
- C. Continue paroxetine therapy for 6 months
- D. Continue paroxetine therapy for 2 years (Correct Answer)
- E. Switch from paroxetine to lithium therapy
Persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia) Explanation: **Continue paroxetine therapy for 2 years**
- This patient has experienced **recurrent major depressive episodes**, with two episodes in the past year. Guidelines recommend continuing antidepressant therapy for **1-3 years or indefinitely** after a second or third episode to prevent relapse.
- Given his significant improvement and history of recurrent depression, long-term maintenance with paroxetine is the most appropriate strategy.
*Discontinue paroxetine*
- Discontinuing the antidepressant now would significantly increase the risk of a rapid **relapse** of major depressive disorder, especially given his history of multiple episodes.
- Antidepressants should not be abruptly stopped once symptoms resolve, particularly in patients with recurrent depression.
*Switch from paroxetine to venlafaxine therapy*
- There is no indication to switch to venlafaxine, as the patient has responded well to paroxetine and is currently in **remission**.
- Switching medications carries the risk of new side effects or a recurrence of depressive symptoms.
*Continue paroxetine therapy for 6 months*
- While 6 months of continuation therapy is standard after a **first episode** of major depressive disorder, it is insufficient for patients with **recurrent episodes**.
- Continuing for only 6 months heightens the risk of relapse for this patient given his history.
*Switch from paroxetine to lithium therapy*
- Lithium is typically used as a mood stabilizer for **bipolar disorder** or as an augmentation strategy for refractory depression.
- There is no evidence in the vignette to suggest bipolar disorder, and the patient has responded well to monotherapy with paroxetine.
Persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia) US Medical PG Question 5: A 55-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with complaints of fluctuating mood for the past 2 years. He feels great and full of energy for some months when he is very creative with tons of ideas just racing through his mind. He is noted to be very talkative and distracted by his different ideas. During these times, he is very productive and able to accomplish much at work and home. However, these periods are frequently followed by a prolonged depressed mood. During this time, he has low energy, poor concentration, and low self-esteem. The accompanying feeling of hopelessness from these cycling “ups” and “downs” have him eating and sleeping more during the “downs.” He does not remember a period within the last 2 years where he felt “normal.” What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Dysthymic disorder
- B. Bipolar II disorder
- C. Persistent depressive disorder
- D. Bipolar I disorder
- E. Cyclothymic disorder (Correct Answer)
Persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia) Explanation: ***Cyclothymic disorder***
- The patient experiences chronic **fluctuating moods**, with numerous periods of **hypomanic symptoms** (elevated energy, racing thoughts, increased productivity) and numerous periods of **depressive symptoms** (low energy, poor concentration, hopelessness) over at least 2 years.
- The symptoms are not severe enough to meet full criteria for a **manic episode**, **hypomanic episode**, or **major depressive episode**, and there has been no period longer than 2 months without symptoms.
*Dysthymic disorder*
- This is the **DSM-IV term** for what is now called **persistent depressive disorder** in DSM-5, involving a **chronic depressed mood** that lasts for at least 2 years.
- It does not include periods of significant elevated mood or hypomania.
- The patient's presentation includes distinct periods of **elevated mood and energy**, which are not characteristic of dysthymic disorder.
*Bipolar II disorder*
- Bipolar II disorder requires at least one **major depressive episode** and at least one **hypomanic episode**.
- While the patient exhibits hypomanic and depressive symptoms, the periods of depression do not meet the full criteria for a **major depressive episode** (e.g., duration, number of symptoms) and the hypomanic symptoms are subsyndromal.
*Persistent depressive disorder*
- This is the **DSM-5 term** for chronic low-grade depression (formerly called dysthymic disorder), characterized by depressed mood for at least 2 years without manic or hypomanic symptoms.
- The patient's history of elevated mood and energy precludes this diagnosis.
*Bipolar I disorder*
- Bipolar I disorder requires at least one **manic episode**, which is characterized by a distinct period of abnormally and persistently elevated, expansive, or irritable mood and abnormally and persistently increased goal-directed activity or energy, lasting at least 1 week and causing significant impairment.
- The patient's "ups" are described as productive and not causing significant impairment or involving psychotic features, indicating **hypomanic symptoms** rather than full mania.
Persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia) US Medical PG Question 6: A 24-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician for a wellness exam. She currently has no acute concerns but has been feeling hopeless, has a poor appetite, difficulty with concentration, and trouble with sleep. She says that she has poor self-esteem and that her symptoms have been occurring for the past 3 years. She has had moments where she felt better, but it lasted a few weeks out of the year. She currently lives alone and does not pursue romantic relationships because she feels she is not attractive. She has a past medical history of asthma. Her mother is alive and healthy. Her father committed suicide and suffered from major depressive disorder. On physical exam, the patient has a gloomy demeanor and appears restless and anxious. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Major depressive disorder
- B. Cyclothymia
- C. Persistent depressive disorder (Correct Answer)
- D. Seasonal affective disorder
- E. Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder
Persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia) Explanation: ***Persistent depressive disorder***
- The patient exhibits chronic symptoms of depression (poor appetite, poor self-esteem, difficulty with concentration, trouble with sleep, hopelessness) lasting for at least **2 years**, with symptom-free periods lasting no more than **2 months**.
- Her long-standing symptoms (3 years) and the intermittent improvement, but never full resolution for extended periods, are characteristic of **persistent depressive disorder** (formerly dysthymia).
*Major depressive disorder*
- While the patient has many symptoms of depression, **major depressive disorder** is characterized by distinct episodes of at least 2 weeks, with significant functional impairment. The chronic, fluctuating course over 3 years is less typical.
- The presence of depressive symptoms for 3 years, with only brief periods of improvement, points away from episodic major depressive disorder alone and more towards a chronic form.
*Cyclothymia*
- **Cyclothymia** involves numerous periods of hypomanic symptoms and numerous periods of depressive symptoms for at least 2 years, with periods of stability lasting no more than 2 months. The patient describes only depressive symptoms, not hypomanic episodes.
- There is no mention of elevated mood, increased energy, or decreased need for sleep, which are characteristic of **hypomanic episodes** in cyclothymia.
*Seasonal affective disorder*
- **Seasonal affective disorder** is a type of depressive disorder that occurs during a specific season (most commonly winter) and resolves during other seasons; the patient's symptoms are year-round and chronic.
- The patient's symptoms are not described as tied to a particular season, making this diagnosis less likely.
*Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder*
- Predominantly diagnosed in **children and adolescents**, this disorder is characterized by severe recurrent temper outbursts and persistently irritable or angry mood between outbursts.
- The patient's age (24 years old) and the absence of temper outbursts make this diagnosis inappropriate.
Persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia) US Medical PG Question 7: A 27-year-old woman visits a psychiatrist expressing her feelings of sadness which are present on most days of the week. She says that she has been feeling this way for about 2 to 3 years. During her first pregnancy 3 years ago, the fetus died in utero, and the pregnancy was terminated at 21 weeks. Ever since then, she hasn’t been able to sleep well at night and has difficulty concentrating on her tasks most of the time. However, for the past month, she has found it more difficult to cope. She says she has no will to have another child as she still feels guilty and responsible for the previous pregnancy. Over the past few days, she has completely lost her appetite and only eats once or twice a day. She doesn’t recall a single day in the last 3 years where she has not felt this way. The patient denies any past or current smoking, alcohol, or recreational drug use. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
- A. Persistent depressive disorder (Correct Answer)
- B. Bipolar disorder
- C. Schizoaffective disorder
- D. Cyclothymia
- E. Major depressive disorder
Persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia) Explanation: ***Persistent depressive disorder***
- The patient exhibits classic symptoms of **persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia)**: chronic depressed mood for **at least two years**, accompanied by other depressive symptoms like **insomnia**, **difficulty concentrating**, and changes in appetite.
- The duration of her symptoms (2-3 years) and the consistent feeling of sadness support this diagnosis, fitting the diagnostic criteria for **dysthymia**.
*Bipolar disorder*
- Bipolar disorder involves distinct episodes of **mania or hypomania** alternating with depressive episodes.
- The patient's history does not indicate any periods of elevated mood, increased energy, or decreased need for sleep, which are characteristic of **bipolar disorder**.
*Schizoaffective disorder*
- Schizoaffective disorder is characterized by a combination of **mood symptoms** (like depression or mania) and **psychotic symptoms** (like delusions or hallucinations) occurring simultaneously or in distinct episodes.
- This patient presents with no evidence of **psychotic symptoms** such as hallucinations or delusions.
*Cyclothymia*
- Cyclothymia is a milder, chronic form of **bipolar disorder** involving numerous periods of **hypomanic symptoms** and numerous periods of **depressive symptoms** for at least two years.
- The patient's presentation lacks any history of **hypomanic episodes**, making cyclothymia an unlikely diagnosis.
*Major depressive disorder*
- While the patient is experiencing a **major depressive episode** currently (as suggested by increased severity in the last month and complete loss of appetite), the underlying chronic nature of her symptoms (2-3 years) and the fact that she has not been symptom-free for more than two months indicate **persistent depressive disorder**.
- A diagnosis of **major depressive disorder** would typically be given if the symptoms were acute (less than 2 years) and severe, without the chronic, pervasive depressive state described.
Persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia) US Medical PG Question 8: A 16-year-old boy comes to the physician for the evaluation of fatigue over the past month. He reports that his energy levels are low and that he spends most of his time in his room. He also states that he is not in the mood for meeting friends. He used to enjoy playing soccer and going to the shooting range with his father, but recently stopped showing interest in these activities. He has been having difficulties at school due to concentration problems. His appetite is low. He has problems falling asleep. He states that he has thought about ending his life, but he has no specific plan. He lives with his parents, who frequently fight due to financial problems. He does not smoke. He drinks 2–3 cans of beer on the weekends. He does not use illicit drugs. He takes no medications. His vital signs are within normal limits. On mental status examination, he is oriented to person, place, and time. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. In addition to the administration of an appropriate medication, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- A. Hospitalization
- B. Recommend alcohol cessation
- C. Recommend family therapy
- D. Instruct parents to remove guns from the house (Correct Answer)
- E. Contact child protective services
Persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia) Explanation: ***Instruct parents to remove guns from the house***
- The patient has **suicidal ideation** and access to a firearm, which is a significant risk factor for suicide attempts. Removing access to lethal means is a crucial and immediate safety measure.
- While other interventions are important, securing the environment by removing firearms directly addresses an immediate and modifiable **suicide risk factor**, especially in an adolescent with depression.
*Hospitalization*
- Although the patient expresses suicidal thoughts, he states he has **no specific plan**, which suggests he may not require immediate inpatient psychiatric hospitalization.
- Hospitalization is typically reserved for individuals with a **specific suicide plan**, intent, and significant risk that cannot be managed in an outpatient setting.
*Recommend alcohol cessation*
- While **alcohol use** is a concern and can exacerbate depression or suicidal ideation, addressing this is not the most immediate next step in managing acute suicide risk.
- Alcohol cessation is a valuable long-term goal but does not directly mitigate the immediate danger posed by access to lethal means.
*Recommend family therapy*
- **Family therapy** could be beneficial in addressing family conflicts and improving communication, which might contribute to the patient's stress.
- However, addressing family dynamics is a long-term intervention and does not take precedence over immediately securing the patient's safety concerning lethal means.
*Contact child protective services*
- There is no information in the vignette to suggest **child abuse or neglect** by the parents.
- Financial problems and parental fighting, while disruptive, do not automatically constitute grounds for involving child protective services.
Persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia) US Medical PG Question 9: A 51-year-old male presents to his primary care provider for a normal check-up. He reports that he “hasn’t felt like himself” recently. He describes feeling down for the past 8 months since his mother passed away. He has had trouble sleeping and has unintentionally lost 15 pounds. He feels guilty about his mother’s death but cannot articulate why. His performance at work has declined and he has stopped running, an activity he used to enjoy. He has not thought about hurting himself or others. Of note, he also complains of numbness in his feet and fingers and inability to maintain an erection. His past medical history is notable for diabetes. He is on metformin. His temperature is 98.6°F (37°C), blood pressure is 125/65 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, and respirations are 16/min. On exam, he is alert and oriented with intact memory and normal speech. He appears tired with a somewhat flattened affect. The best medication for this patient inhibits which of the following processes?
- A. Amine degradation
- B. Norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake
- C. Norepinephrine and serotonin reuptake (Correct Answer)
- D. Serotonin reuptake only
- E. Dopamine receptor activation
Persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia) Explanation: ***Norepinephrine and serotonin reuptake***
- This patient presents with symptoms highly suggestive of **major depressive disorder**, including persistent sadness, anhedonia, sleep disturbance, weight loss, and guilt, lasting for 8 months.
- Given his concurrent **diabetic neuropathy** (numbness in feet and fingers) and erectile dysfunction, a medication that targets both depression and neuropathic pain, such as a **Serotonin-Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitor (SNRI)** like **duloxetine**, would be the most appropriate choice, as SNRIs block the reuptake of both norepinephrine and serotonin.
*Amine degradation*
- Inhibiting amine degradation is the mechanism of action for **MAO inhibitors (MAOIs)**, which are effective antidepressants but are typically reserved for **refractory depression** due to their significant drug-drug and drug-food interactions (e.g., tyramine crisis).
- They are not considered first-line for a patient who can benefit from an SNRI, especially given the comorbid neuropathy.
*Norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake*
- This describes the mechanism of action of **bupropion**, an antidepressant that can be useful for **atypical depression** or in patients with concerns about sexual side effects.
- However, bupropion does not typically help with **neuropathic pain**, a significant co-morbidity in this patient.
*Serotonin reuptake only*
- This describes the mechanism of action of **Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs)**, which are often first-line for depression due to their generally favorable side effect profile.
- While effective for depression, SSRIs are generally **not effective for neuropathic pain** and may even worsen erectile dysfunction, making an SNRI a more suitable choice given the patient's full clinical picture.
*Dopamine receptor activation*
- **Dopamine receptor activators** (agonists) are primarily used in conditions like **Parkinson's disease** or for **restless legs syndrome**.
- They are not considered a primary treatment for major depressive disorder, nor do they address neuropathic pain.
Persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia) US Medical PG Question 10: A 22-year-old man comes to the physician because of generalized fatigue for the past 3 months. During this time, his grades have declined in his college courses because he has had difficulty focusing on assignments and sometimes sleeps in class. He no longer plays the drums for his band and has stopped attending family events. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 60/min, and blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. On mental status examination, he describes his mood as “ok.” He has a flat affect. There is no evidence of suicidal ideation. His speech is slow in rate and monotone in rhythm, and his thought process is organized. He has no delusions or hallucinations. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in treatment?
- A. Diazepam therapy
- B. Escitalopram therapy (Correct Answer)
- C. Phenelzine therapy
- D. Reassurance
- E. Amitriptyline therapy
Persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia) Explanation: ***Escitalopram therapy***
- The patient presents with symptoms consistent with **major depressive disorder**: generalized fatigue, anhedonia (stopped playing drums, attending family events), poor concentration, and hypersomnia (sleeping in class) for 3 months.
- An **SSRI like escitalopram** is a first-line pharmacotherapy for MDD, particularly given its good tolerability profile and effectiveness in addressing core depressive symptoms.
*Diazepam therapy*
- **Diazepam is a benzodiazepine**, primarily used for acute anxiety or insomnia, and can be habit-forming.
- It is not indicated as a first-line treatment for major depressive disorder due to its addictive potential and lack of efficacy for core depressive symptoms.
*Phenelzine therapy*
- **Phenelzine is a MAOI (monoamine oxidase inhibitor)**, which are older antidepressants typically reserved for atypical depression or treatment-resistant depression due to their significant side effects and dietary restrictions.
- It is not appropriate as a first-line agent, especially given safer and equally effective options like SSRIs.
*Reassurance*
- The patient's symptoms are significant, persistent for 3 months, and causing functional impairment (decline in grades, social withdrawal); therefore, **simple reassurance is insufficient** and would delay appropriate treatment.
- These symptoms warrant a more proactive and evidence-based therapeutic approach.
*Amitriptyline therapy*
- **Amitriptyline is a TCA (tricyclic antidepressant)**, which are generally associated with a higher incidence of side effects, such as anticholinergic effects, sedation, and cardiac conduction abnormalities, compared to SSRIs.
- While effective for depression, it is typically not a first-line treatment due to its less favorable side effect profile compared to SSRIs like escitalopram.
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