Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice US Medical PG questions for Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder US Medical PG Question 1: A 19-year-old woman is brought to the physician by her parents because of irritable mood that started 5 days ago. Since then, she has been staying up late at night working on a secret project. She is energetic despite sleeping less than 4 hours per day. Her parents report that she seems easily distracted. She is usually very responsible, but this week she spent her paycheck on supplies for her project. She has never had similar symptoms before. In the past, she has had episodes where she felt too fatigued to go to school and slept until 2 pm every day for 2 weeks at a time. During those times, her parents noticed that she cried excessively, was very indecisive, and expressed feelings of worthlessness. Two months ago, she had an asthma exacerbation and was treated with bronchodilators and steroids. She tried cocaine once in high school but has not used it since. Vital signs are within normal limits. On mental status examination, she is irritable but cooperative. Her speech is pressured and her thought process is linear. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Major depressive disorder
- B. Bipolar I disorder
- C. Bipolar II disorder (Correct Answer)
- D. Schizoaffective disorder
- E. Substance abuse
Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder Explanation: ***Bipolar II disorder***
- This patient exhibits symptoms consistent with both **hypomania** (increased energy, decreased need for sleep, irritability, distractibility, spending sprees) and past episodes of **major depression** (fatigue, hypersomnia, crying, indecisiveness, worthlessness). The key distinction for Bipolar II is the presence of at least one hypomanic episode and one major depressive episode, without a full manic episode.
- The current symptoms of increased energy and decreased need for sleep for 5 days, along with a significant change in behavior (spending paycheck on a "secret project"), indicate a level of impairment consistent with hypomania, rather than a full-blown mania as the thought process is described as linear.
*Major depressive disorder*
- While the patient has a history of depressive episodes, the current presentation with **elevated mood, increased energy, and decreased need for sleep** is inconsistent with a unipolar depressive episode.
- Major depressive disorder does not involve periods of elevated or irritable mood or increased activity.
*Bipolar I disorder*
- Bipolar I disorder requires the occurrence of at least one **manic episode**. While the patient's current symptoms are suggestive of a mood elevation, they do not meet the criteria for full mania, which typically involves severe impairment, psychotic features, or hospitalization.
- The patient's speech is pressured but her thought process is described as **linear**, which is less typical for a full manic episode where **flight of ideas** or **tangential/disorganized thinking** might be present.
*Schizoaffective disorder*
- Schizoaffective disorder involves a period of uninterrupted illness during which there is a **major mood episode (depressive or manic) concurrent with symptoms of schizophrenia**, such as delusions or hallucinations.
- The patient's symptoms are primarily mood-related, and there is no mention of psychotic symptoms independent of the mood disturbance.
*Substance abuse*
- Although the patient used cocaine once in high school, there is no evidence of recent substance use that would explain the current symptoms. The symptoms are sustained over days and include a history of recurrent mood disturbances.
- While the patient received steroid treatment 2 months ago (which can precipitate mood episodes), the timing and clinical presentation are more consistent with a primary mood disorder rather than a substance/medication-induced disorder.
Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder US Medical PG Question 2: A mother brings her 3-year-old son to the doctor because she is worried that he might be harming himself by constantly banging his head on the wall. He has been exhibiting this behavior for a few months. She is also worried because he has started to speak less than he used to and does not respond when his name is called. He seems aloof during playtime with other children and seems to have lost interest in most of his toys. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Autism spectrum disorder (Correct Answer)
- B. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
- C. Generalized anxiety disorder
- D. Bipolar disorder
- E. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder Explanation: ***Autism spectrum disorder***
- The child's symptoms of **head banging** (a repetitive, self-stimulatory behavior), **decreased speech**, **lack of response to his name**, **social aloofness**, and **loss of interest in toys** are classic indicators of **Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD)**.
- ASD involves persistent deficits in **social communication and interaction** across multiple contexts, as well as **restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior, interests, or activities**.
*Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder*
- **ADHD** is characterized primarily by **inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity**, which are not the prominent or primary concerns described in this case.
- While children with ADHD may have social difficulties, their core symptoms do not typically include severe **social aloofness, communication regression**, or **self-injurious repetitive behaviors** like head banging.
*Generalized anxiety disorder*
- **Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)** in children typically presents with excessive worry about multiple events or activities, often accompanied by **physical symptoms of anxiety** such as restlessness, fatigue, and difficulty concentrating.
- It does not explain the **communication regression, social deficits**, or **stereotypical behaviors** like head banging observed in this child.
*Bipolar disorder*
- **Bipolar disorder** in children often manifests with severe mood dysregulation, including distinct periods of **elevated or irritable mood (mania/hypomania)** and depression.
- The symptoms described, such as social withdrawal and communication difficulties, are not characteristic of the primary presentations of bipolar disorder.
*Obsessive-compulsive disorder*
- **OCD** is characterized by the presence of **obsessions (recurrent, persistent thoughts, urges, or images)** and/or **compulsions (repetitive behaviors or mental acts)**.
- While head banging can be a repetitive behavior, the broader constellation of symptoms, including social and communication deficits, is not typical of primary OCD in young children.
Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder US Medical PG Question 3: A 25-year-old woman comes to the physician because of sadness that started 3 weeks after her daughter was born. Her daughter is now 9 months old and usually sleeps through the night, but the patient still has difficulty staying asleep. She has not returned to work since the birth. She is easily distracted from normal daily tasks. She used to enjoy cooking, but only orders delivery or take-out now. She says that she always feels too exhausted to do so and does not feel hungry much anyway. The pregnancy of the patient's child was complicated by gestational diabetes. The child was born at 36-weeks' gestation and has had no medical issues. The patient has no contact with the child's father. She is not sexually active. She does not smoke, drink alcohol, or use illicit drugs. She is 157 cm (5 ft 1 in) tall and weighs 47 kg (105 lb); BMI is 20 kg/m2. Vital signs are within normal limits. She is alert and cooperative but makes little eye contact. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Adjustment disorder
- B. Major depressive disorder
- C. Normal behavior
- D. Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder
- E. Depression with peripartum-onset (Correct Answer)
Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder Explanation: ***Depression with peripartum-onset***
- The patient exhibits classic symptoms of **major depressive disorder**, including **anhedonia** (loss of enjoyment in cooking), **fatigue**, **insomnia**, and **changes in appetite/weight**, all appearing within 3 weeks post-childbirth and persisting for 9 months.
- According to **DSM-5-TR**, the **peripartum onset specifier** is applied when a major depressive episode begins during pregnancy or **within 4 weeks after delivery**.
- This patient's symptoms began at 3 weeks postpartum, meeting criteria for the peripartum onset specifier, which is clinically important for risk assessment (including infanticide risk) and treatment planning.
- The severity and duration of symptoms (persistent anhedonia, significant fatigue, insomnia despite adequate opportunity for sleep, appetite changes, functional impairment lasting months) clearly meet criteria for a **major depressive episode**.
*Adjustment disorder*
- This diagnosis involves emotional or behavioral symptoms in response to an identifiable stressor that do **not meet criteria for a major depressive episode**.
- The severity, number, and duration of symptoms (anhedonia, significant fatigue, insomnia, appetite changes, functional impairment lasting 9 months) exceed what is seen in adjustment disorder and meet full criteria for **major depressive disorder**.
*Major depressive disorder*
- While this patient's symptoms fully meet criteria for **Major Depressive Disorder (MDD)**, the onset within 4 weeks postpartum requires the addition of the **"with peripartum onset" specifier** per DSM-5-TR.
- Using the peripartum onset specifier is essential for clinical management, as it alerts clinicians to specific risks (including thoughts of harming the infant) and may influence treatment selection (e.g., considerations for breastfeeding-compatible medications).
*Normal behavior*
- The patient's symptoms—including **persistent sadness lasting 9 months**, **anhedonia**, **insomnia despite adequate sleep opportunity**, **significant fatigue**, **appetite loss**, and **inability to return to work**—represent severe functional impairment.
- These symptoms far exceed normal postpartum adjustment or transient "baby blues" (which typically resolve within 2 weeks postpartum) and indicate a serious mood disorder requiring treatment.
*Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder*
- This disorder is diagnosed **only in children and adolescents aged 6-18 years** and is characterized by persistent irritability and frequent, severe temper outbursts disproportionate to the situation.
- It is **not applicable to adults** and does not describe this patient's presentation of persistent depressed mood and neurovegetative symptoms.
Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder US Medical PG Question 4: A 15-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his father for complaints of “constant irritation.” His father explains that ever since his divorce with the son’s mother last year he has noticed increased irritability in his son. "He has been skipping out on his baseball practices which he has always enjoyed,” his dad complains. After asking the father to step out, the patient reports trouble concentrating at school and has been staying up late “just thinking about stuff.” When probed further, he states that he “feels responsible for his parents' divorce because he was being rebellious.” What is the best treatment for this patient at this time?
- A. Methylphenidate
- B. Buspirone
- C. Quetiapine
- D. Escitalopram (Correct Answer)
- E. Venlafaxine
Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder Explanation: ***Escitalopram***
- This patient presents with **major depressive disorder**, including irritability (common presentation in adolescents), anhedonia (loss of interest in baseball), difficulty concentrating, sleep disturbance, and excessive guilt following a significant psychosocial stressor (parental divorce).
- **First-line treatment for adolescent depression** is typically **psychotherapy (especially cognitive behavioral therapy)**, either alone for mild cases or combined with medication for moderate-to-severe cases.
- Among the **pharmacological options provided**, **SSRIs are the preferred first-line medication class** for adolescent depression. **Escitalopram** is an appropriate choice, though **fluoxetine** has the most robust evidence in adolescents (FDA-approved for ages 8+).
- Treatment typically combines pharmacotherapy with psychotherapy for optimal outcomes.
*Methylphenidate*
- **Methylphenidate** is a stimulant used to treat **ADHD**.
- While the patient has concentration difficulties, the constellation of symptoms (irritability, anhedonia, sleep disturbance, guilt, temporal relationship to stressor) indicates **depression**, not ADHD.
- Concentration problems are a common symptom of depression and typically improve with antidepressant treatment.
*Buspirone*
- **Buspirone** is an anxiolytic used for **generalized anxiety disorder**.
- While anxiety can co-occur with depression, this patient's predominant symptoms (anhedonia, pervasive guilt, sleep disturbance, irritability) are characteristic of **major depressive disorder** rather than primary anxiety.
*Quetiapine*
- **Quetiapine** is an atypical antipsychotic used for **schizophrenia**, **bipolar disorder**, or as adjunctive treatment in refractory depression.
- It would be **inappropriate as first-line treatment** for adolescent depression due to significant metabolic side effects (weight gain, metabolic syndrome) and lack of evidence supporting its use as monotherapy in this population.
- Antipsychotics are reserved for cases with psychotic features or treatment-resistant depression.
*Venlafaxine*
- **Venlafaxine** is an **SNRI** (serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor) antidepressant.
- While effective for depression, **SSRIs are preferred over SNRIs as first-line pharmacotherapy in adolescents** due to better tolerability, more extensive safety data in this age group, and lower risk of adverse effects.
- SNRIs are typically considered second-line options after SSRI trial failure.
Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder US Medical PG Question 5: A 31-year-old female presents to her primary care physician with mild anxiety and complaints of mood swings lasting several months. The patient reports that the mood swings affect her work and personal relationships. In addition, she complains of increased irritability, breast tenderness, bloating, fatigue, binge-eating, and difficulty concentrating for 10 days prior to her menstrual period. The patient's symptoms increase in severity with the approach of menses but resolve rapidly on the first day of menses. She states that she is very sensitive to criticism of her work by others. She also snaps at her children and her husband. She has tried yoga to unwind, but with limited improvement. She is concerned that her behavior is affecting her marriage. The patient has no past medical history, and has regular periods every 24 days. She has had two normal vaginal deliveries. She uses condoms for contraception. Her mother has major depressive disorder. The physical exam is unremarkable. What is the most appropriate next step in the treatment of this patient?
- A. Nonserotonergic antidepressants
- B. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) (Correct Answer)
- C. Oral contraceptive and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
- D. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists
- E. Anxiolytic therapy
Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder Explanation: ***Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)***
- This patient presents with symptoms highly suggestive of **Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder (PMDD)**, including mood swings, irritability, physical symptoms (bloating, breast tenderness), and functional impairment, all occurring cyclically in the **luteal phase** and resolving with menses.
- **SSRIs** are considered first-line pharmacological treatment for PMDD due to their efficacy in reducing both psychological and physical symptoms. They can be prescribed continuously or intermittently (only during the luteal phase).
*Nonserotonergic antidepressants*
- While some antidepressants can be used for mood disorders, **nonserotonergic agents** (e.g., bupropion) are generally not considered first-line for PMDD.
- The efficacy of these agents specifically for the range of PMDD symptoms, particularly cyclical ones, is less well established compared to SSRIs.
*Oral contraceptive and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)*
- **Oral contraceptives** can sometimes alleviate PMDD symptoms in some women by suppressing ovulation and stabilizing hormonal fluctuations, but they are not the primary pharmacological treatment for the mood and anxiety symptoms of PMDD.
- **NSAIDs** are effective for physical symptoms like cramps or headaches, but they do not address the primary mood and psychiatric symptoms of PMDD.
*Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists*
- **GnRH agonists** induce a temporary pharmacological menopause, effectively stopping ovarian hormone production, which can alleviate severe PMDD symptoms.
- However, due to significant side effects (hot flashes, bone loss) and their more aggressive nature, they are typically reserved for **severe cases of PMDD refractory to first-line treatments**, not as an initial step.
*Anxiolytic therapy*
- **Anxiolytics** (e.g., benzodiazepines) can help manage **anxiety symptoms** but do not address the full spectrum of PMDD, including mood swings, irritability, and physical symptoms.
- They also carry risks of dependence and are generally reserved for short-term use or as adjuncts in specific situations, not as a primary treatment for PMDD.
Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder US Medical PG Question 6: A 29-year-old man comes to the physician with his wife because she has noticed a change in his behavior over the past 2 weeks. His wife reports that he is very distracted and irritable. His colleagues have voiced concerns that he has not been turning up for work regularly and behaves erratically when he does. Previously, her husband had been a reliable and reasonable person. The patient says that he feels “fantastic”; he only needs 4 hours of sleep each night and wakes up cheerful and full of energy each morning. He thinks that his wife is overreacting. The patient has been healthy except for a major depressive episode 5 years ago that was treated with paroxetine. He currently takes no medications. His pulse is 98/min, respirations are 12/min, and blood pressure is 128/62 mm Hg. Mental status examination shows frenzied speech and a flight of ideas. Which of the following is the strongest predisposing factor for this patient's condition?
- A. Advanced paternal age
- B. Genetic predisposition (Correct Answer)
- C. Higher socioeconomic class
- D. Maternal obstetric complications
- E. Being married
Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder Explanation: ***Genetic predisposition***
- A strong **genetic predisposition** is a primary predisposing factor for bipolar disorder, as evidenced by a significantly higher concordance rate in monozygotic twins compared to dizygotic twins or the general population.
- The patient's presentation with **manic symptoms** (decreased need for sleep, euphoria, irritability, frenzied speech, flight of ideas, erratic behavior) following a history of a **major depressive episode** is highly suggestive of **bipolar I disorder**.
*Advanced paternal age*
- While advanced paternal age has been associated with an increased risk of some neurodevelopmental disorders like **schizophrenia** and **autism spectrum disorder**, its link to bipolar disorder is less robust and not considered the strongest predisposing factor.
- The primary risk factor for bipolar disorder involves heritability rather than specific parental age.
*Higher socioeconomic class*
- There is **no consistent evidence** to suggest that higher socioeconomic class is a predisposing factor for bipolar disorder.
- Bipolar disorder affects individuals across all socioeconomic levels.
*Maternal obstetric complications*
- Maternal obstetric complications, such as **prenatal infections** or **hypoxia**, have been implicated in the development of certain psychiatric disorders, particularly **schizophrenia**.
- However, for bipolar disorder, genetic factors play a far more significant and direct role than obstetric complications.
*Being married*
- **Marital status** does not serve as a predisposing factor for the development of bipolar disorder.
- While relationship challenges can be a consequence or stressor for individuals with bipolar disorder, marriage itself is not a cause.
Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder US Medical PG Question 7: An 11-year-old boy’s parents brought him to a psychologist upon referral from the boy’s school teacher. The boy frequently bullies his younger classmates despite having been punished several times for this. His mother also reported that a year prior, she received complaints that the boy shoplifted from local shops in his neighborhood. The boy frequently stays out at night despite strict instructions by his parents to return home by 10 PM. Detailed history reveals that apart from such behavior, he is usually not angry or irritable. Although his abnormal behavior continues despite warnings and punishments, he neither argues with his parents nor teachers and does not display verbal or physical aggression. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder, hyperactivity-impulsivity type
- B. Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder
- C. Intermittent explosive disorder
- D. Conduct disorder (Correct Answer)
- E. Oppositional defiant disorder
Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder Explanation: ***Conduct disorder***
- The boy's behaviors, including **bullying**, **shoplifting**, and **violating rules** (staying out past curfew), represent a persistent pattern of behavior that violates the basic rights of others or major age-appropriate societal norms, which are core features of **conduct disorder**.
- The history indicates these behaviors have been ongoing for at least a year and are not just isolated incidents, fulfilling the diagnostic criteria for **duration and pervasiveness**.
*Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder, hyperactivity-impulsivity type*
- While ADHD involves **hyperactivity** and **impulsivity**, it does not typically manifest with deliberate violations of others' rights or societal norms like **bullying** and **shoplifting**.
- There is no mention of symptoms such as **difficulty sustaining attention**, **fidgeting**, or **excessive talking** which are characteristic of ADHD.
*Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder*
- This disorder is characterized by **severe recurrent temper outbursts** and persistent **irritable or angry mood** between outbursts.
- The case explicitly states the boy is "not angry or irritable" and "neither argues with his parents nor teachers," ruling out this diagnosis.
*Intermittent explosive disorder*
- This disorder involves recurrent behavioral outbursts representing a failure to control aggressive impulses, often with verbal aggression or physical aggression toward property, animals, or other individuals.
- The boy does not display verbal or physical aggression and is not noted to have anger or irritability, which are central to this diagnosis.
*Oppositional defiant disorder*
- ODD involves a pattern of **angry/irritable mood**, **argumentative/defiant behavior**, or **vindictiveness**.
- While violating rules is present, **bullying** and **shoplifting** (which violate the basic rights of others) are more severe behaviors that go beyond the scope of ODD and are characteristic of conduct disorder.
Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder US Medical PG Question 8: A 15-year-old boy is referred to a child psychologist because of worsening behavior and constant disruption in class. He has received multiple reprimands in the past 6 months for not doing the homework his teacher assigned, and he refuses to listen to the classroom instructions. Additionally, his teachers say he is very argumentative and blames other children for not letting him do his work. He was previously well behaved and one of the top students in his class. He denies any recent major life events or changes at home. His past medical history is noncontributory. His vital signs are all within normal limits. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
- B. Antisocial personality disorder
- C. Conduct disorder
- D. Oppositional defiant disorder (Correct Answer)
- E. Major depressive disorder
Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder Explanation: ***Oppositional defiant disorder***
- This patient's symptoms of **argumentativeness**, **defiance**, and **blaming others**, combined with his previous good behavior and denial of major life events, are classic signs of **oppositional defiant disorder (ODD)**.
- ODD involves a pattern of angry/irritable mood, argumentative/defiant behavior, or vindictiveness lasting at least 6 months, clearly distinguishing it from a temporary behavioral issue.
*Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder*
- While **ADHD** can cause inattention and difficulty following instructions, it typically presents earlier in childhood and is characterized by **hyperactivity**, **impulsivity**, and **inattention** that would have likely been prominent before recently.
- The patient's primary symptoms here are an argumentative and defiant attitude rather than core symptoms of inattention or hyperactivity that began recently.
*Antisocial personality disorder*
- This disorder is typically diagnosed in **adulthood (18 years or older)**, although symptoms of **conduct disorder** must be present before age 15. The patient is currently 15.
- **Antisocial personality disorder** involves a pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others, which is more severe than the defiance seen in this case.
*Conduct disorder*
- **Conduct disorder** involves a more severe pattern of behavior, including aggression towards people or animals, destruction of property, deceitfulness or theft, and serious violations of rules, which is not described in this patient.
- The behaviors in this patient (argumentativeness, defiance) are less severe than the behaviors associated with conduct disorder.
*Major depressive disorder*
- Although behavioral changes can occur in **depression**, this patient does not exhibit other common symptoms such as **anhedonia**, changes in sleep or appetite, or persistent sadness, which would be expected with **major depressive disorder**.
- His behaviors are primarily externalizing and defiant rather than indicating an internal state of sadness or loss of interest.
Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder US Medical PG Question 9: A parent-teacher conference is called to discuss the behavior of a 9 year-old boy. According to the boy's teacher, he has become progressively more disruptive during class. When asked to help clean up or read out-loud, he replies with "You're not the boss of me." or "You can't make me." He refuses to participate in gym class, but will play the same games during recess. He gets along with and is well-liked by his peers. His mother reports that her son can "sometimes be difficult," but he is helpful around the house and is very good playing with his 7-year-old sister. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Conduct disorder
- B. Attention deficit disorder
- C. Separation anxiety disorder
- D. Oppositional defiant disorder (Correct Answer)
- E. Antisocial personality disorder
Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder Explanation: ***Oppositional defiant disorder***
- The boy exhibits a pattern of **defiant and disobedient behavior** towards authority figures (teacher) but a generally good relationship with peers and family, which is characteristic of ODD.
- His refusal to participate in formal class activities while still engaging in informal play highlights a specific defiance towards structured rules rather than a general aversion to activity.
*Conduct disorder*
- This disorder involves a more severe pattern of **aggression, destruction of property, deceitfulness, or serious rule violations**, which are not described in the boy's behavior.
- The boy's ability to get along with peers and be helpful at home suggests he does not meet the criteria for significant social impairment or callousness seen in conduct disorder.
*Attention deficit disorder*
- This disorder is characterized by **inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity**, which are not the primary symptoms described here.
- While defiance might be a secondary issue, the core problem is not difficulty sustaining attention or controlling impulsive behaviors.
*Separation anxiety disorder*
- This involves **excessive fear or anxiety concerning separation from home or attachment figures**, which is not indicated by any of the behavioral descriptions.
- The boy's issues are related to defiance and authority, not fear of separation.
*Antisocial personality disorder*
- This diagnosis can only be made in individuals **18 years or older** and requires a pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others.
- The boy's age (9 years old) and his reported positive relationships with peers and family rule out this diagnosis.
Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder US Medical PG Question 10: An 8-year-old boy is brought to his pediatrician by his mother because she is worried about whether he is becoming ill. Specifically, he has been sent home from school six times in the past month because of headaches and abdominal pain. In fact, he has been in the nurse's office almost every day with various symptoms. These symptoms started when the family moved to an old house in another state about 2 months ago. Furthermore, whenever he is taken care of by a babysitter he also has these symptoms. Despite these occurrences, the boy never seems to have any problems at home with his parents. Which of the following treatments would likely be effective for this patient?
- A. Play therapy (Correct Answer)
- B. Succimer
- C. Supportive only
- D. Clonidine
- E. Methylphenidate
Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder Explanation: ***Play therapy***
- The boy's symptoms are likely **psychosomatic**, triggered by **stressors** like moving and separation from parents, as they resolve at home.
- **Play therapy** is an effective treatment for children experiencing emotional or behavioral difficulties due to stress, allowing them to express feelings in a non-threatening environment.
*Succimer*
- **Succimer** is a chelating agent used to treat **lead poisoning**.
- While the family moved to an old house, symptoms like headaches and abdominal pain could be associated with lead exposure, but the **situational nature** of his symptoms (occurring only outside the home or with babysitters) makes lead poisoning less likely.
*Supportive only*
- While supportive care is generally helpful, the severity and persistence of the symptoms suggest that a **more targeted intervention** like therapy is needed to address the underlying psychological distress.
- Simply observing or offering general support would likely not resolve the **situational anxiety** contributing to his somatic complaints.
*Clonidine*
- **Clonidine** is typically used to treat conditions like **ADHD**, **hypertension**, or tics, and is not a primary treatment for psychosomatic complaints in children.
- The patient's symptoms are linked to specific psychological triggers rather than a primary medical or neurological condition usually targeted by clonidine.
*Methylphenidate*
- **Methylphenidate** is a stimulant medication commonly used to treat **Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)**.
- There is no indication from the provided symptoms (headaches, abdominal pain, situational nature) that the child has ADHD.
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