Seasonal affective disorder US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice US Medical PG questions for Seasonal affective disorder. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Seasonal affective disorder US Medical PG Question 1: A 28-year-old woman presents with depressed mood lasting for most days of the week for the past month. She also mentions that she has lost her appetite for the past 3 weeks. She adds that her job performance has significantly deteriorated because of these symptoms, and she feels like she will have to quit her job soon. Upon asking about her hobbies, she says that she used to enjoy dancing and music but does not have any desire to do them anymore. The patient’s husband says that she has had many sleepless nights last month. The patient denies any history of smoking, alcohol intake, or use of illicit substances. No significant past medical history. Physical examination is unremarkable. Routine laboratory tests are all within normal limits. Which of the following clinical features must be present, in addition to this patient’s current symptoms, to confirm the diagnosis of a major depressive episode?
- A. Intense fear of losing control
- B. Lack of concentration (Correct Answer)
- C. Weight loss
- D. Anterograde amnesia
- E. Nightmares
Seasonal affective disorder Explanation: ***Lack of concentration***
- The diagnostic criteria for a **major depressive episode** (DSM-5) require at least **5 out of 9 cardinal symptoms** present for at least 2 weeks, with at least one being either **depressed mood** or **anhedonia**.
- This patient currently has **4 symptoms**: (1) depressed mood, (2) anhedonia (loss of interest in dancing/music), (3) appetite disturbance (loss of appetite), and (4) sleep disturbance (insomnia).
- To meet diagnostic criteria, she needs **one more symptom** from the remaining options: fatigue, feelings of worthlessness/guilt, **diminished ability to concentrate or indecisiveness**, psychomotor changes, or suicidal ideation.
- **Lack of concentration** is one of the DSM-5 diagnostic criteria and would bring her total to 5 symptoms, confirming the diagnosis.
*Intense fear of losing control*
- This symptom is characteristic of **panic disorder** or anxiety disorders, where individuals experience sudden, intense episodes of fear with accompanying physical and cognitive symptoms.
- While anxiety can co-occur with depression, intense fear of losing control is **not a DSM-5 diagnostic criterion** for major depressive episode.
*Weight loss*
- The patient already has **loss of appetite**, which satisfies the weight/appetite criterion for major depressive episode.
- **Weight loss and appetite changes are part of the same diagnostic criterion**, not separate ones. Therefore, weight loss would not add an additional criterion to reach the required 5 symptoms.
- While clinically significant weight loss can occur in depression, it would not provide the "additional" criterion needed in this case.
*Anterograde amnesia*
- **Anterograde amnesia** (inability to form new memories) is associated with neurological conditions such as **hippocampal damage**, **Korsakoff syndrome**, or **traumatic brain injury**.
- It is **not a DSM-5 diagnostic criterion** for major depressive episode, though some cognitive impairment (concentration difficulties) may occur.
*Nightmares*
- The patient already has **insomnia** (sleep disturbance), which is one of the DSM-5 diagnostic criteria.
- While nightmares may occur in depression, they are not a separate diagnostic criterion and would not add to the symptom count since sleep disturbance is already present.
Seasonal affective disorder US Medical PG Question 2: A 38-year-old man comes to the physician because of persistent sadness and difficulty concentrating for the past 6 weeks. During this period, he has also had difficulty sleeping. He adds that he has been “feeling down” most of the time since his girlfriend broke up with him 4 years ago. Since then, he has only had a few periods of time when he did not feel that way, but none of these lasted for more than a month. He reports having no problems with appetite, weight, or energy. He does not use illicit drugs or alcohol. Mental status examination shows a depressed mood and constricted affect. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Persistent depressive disorder (Correct Answer)
- B. Adjustment disorder with depressed mood
- C. Major depressive disorder
- D. Bipolar affective disorder
- E. Cyclothymic disorder
Seasonal affective disorder Explanation: ***Persistent depressive disorder***
- This condition is characterized by a **chronically depressed mood** that lasts for at least two years in adults, with symptoms not remitting for more than two consecutive months.
- The patient's history of feeling "down" for four years, with only brief periods of relief (never exceeding one month), fits this chronic pattern and meets the diagnostic criteria for persistent depressive disorder (formerly dysthymia).
- Although the patient has had worsening symptoms over the past 6 weeks, the **predominant feature** is the chronic, low-grade depression lasting 4 years, making persistent depressive disorder the most likely primary diagnosis.
*Adjustment disorder with depressed mood*
- An adjustment disorder typically involves emotional or behavioral symptoms in response to an **identifiable stressor**, occurring within 3 months of the stressor's onset and lasting no longer than 6 months after the stressor or its consequences have ceased.
- The patient's symptoms have been ongoing for 4 years, far exceeding the typical duration for an adjustment disorder, which by definition should not persist beyond 6 months after the stressor ends.
*Major depressive disorder*
- Major depressive disorder involves discrete episodes of at least 2 weeks with **five or more symptoms** including depressed mood or anhedonia, plus symptoms such as changes in appetite/weight, sleep disturbance, psychomotor changes, fatigue, worthlessness/guilt, concentration difficulty, or suicidal ideation.
- While the patient has some symptoms that could suggest a current major depressive episode (6 weeks of sadness, concentration difficulty, sleep problems), the question emphasizes the **chronic 4-year course** of low-grade depressive symptoms as the predominant pattern, which is more consistent with persistent depressive disorder.
- Note that patients can have MDD superimposed on persistent depressive disorder ("double depression"), but the chronic pattern described here makes persistent depressive disorder the primary diagnosis.
*Bipolar affective disorder*
- This disorder is characterized by distinct periods of **mood episodes** that include at least one manic or hypomanic episode, in addition to depressive episodes.
- The patient's presentation does not describe any manic or hypomanic symptoms (e.g., elevated mood, increased energy, decreased need for sleep, grandiosity, increased talkativeness, or risky behavior) that are characteristic of bipolar disorder.
*Cyclothymic disorder*
- Cyclothymic disorder involves numerous periods of **hypomanic symptoms** and numerous periods of **depressive symptoms** for at least 2 years, but these symptoms are not severe enough to meet the criteria for a hypomanic or major depressive episode.
- The patient describes chronic low mood without any mention of alternating periods of elevated mood or hypomanic symptoms, which are essential for a diagnosis of cyclothymic disorder.
Seasonal affective disorder US Medical PG Question 3: A 24-year-old male comes into the psychiatric clinic complaining of consistent sadness. He endorses feelings of worthlessness, anxiety, and anhedonia for the past couple months but denies feeling suicidal. He further denies any past episodes of feeling overly energetic with racing thoughts. Confident of the diagnosis, you recommend frequent talk therapy along with a long-term prescription of a known first-line medication for this disorder. What is the drug and what are some of the most frequently encountered side effects?
- A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor; hypomania, suicidal thoughts
- B. Tricyclic antidepressants; hypomania, suicidal thoughts
- C. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor; anorgasmia, insomnia (Correct Answer)
- D. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors; Orthostatic hypotension, weight gain
- E. Tricyclic antidepressants; Orthostatic hypotension, anticholinergic effects
Seasonal affective disorder Explanation: ***Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor; anorgasmia, insomnia***
- The patient presents with classic symptoms of **major depressive disorder**, including persistent sadness, worthlessness, anxiety, and anhedonia, without any history of manic or hypomanic episodes. **SSRIs** are considered first-line pharmacotherapy for this condition.
- Common side effects of SSRIs include **sexual dysfunction** (e.g., anorgasmia, decreased libido) and **insomnia** or agitation, especially during the initial weeks of treatment.
*Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor; hypomania, suicidal thoughts*
- While SSRIs are the correct drug class, **hypomania** is not a frequent side effect in patients without bipolar disorder. For patients with bipolar disorder, antidepressant monotherapy can induce hypomania or mania, but this patient denies such episodes.
- **Suicidal thoughts** can occur, particularly in young adults, during the initial phase of antidepressant treatment, but it is less common to frame it as a *frequently encountered side effect* in the general population compared to sexual dysfunction or sleep disturbances.
*Tricyclic antidepressants; hypomania, suicidal thoughts*
- **Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)** are generally not first-line due to their less favorable side effect profile compared to SSRIs, including significant anticholinergic effects and cardiovascular risks.
- As with SSRIs, **hypomania** is not a typical frequent side effect in unipolar depression, and while **suicidal thoughts** are a concern with antidepressants, TCAs carry a higher risk of lethality in overdose, making them less preferred initially.
*Monoamine oxidase inhibitors; Orthostatic hypotension, weight gain*
- **Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)** are effective but are typically reserved for **refractory depression** due to their significant drug and food interactions (e.g., tyramine-induced hypertensive crisis).
- While **orthostatic hypotension** and **weight gain** are known side effects of MAOIs, this class is not considered a first-line treatment for major depressive disorder.
*Tricyclic antidepressants; Orthostatic hypotension, anticholinergic effects*
- **TCAs** are indeed associated with side effects such as **orthostatic hypotension** and prominent **anticholinergic effects** (e.g., dry mouth, constipation, blurred vision, urinary retention).
- However, because of these more burdensome side effects and higher toxicity in overdose, TCAs are not generally considered the first-line medication choice, especially when SSRIs are available and safer.
Seasonal affective disorder US Medical PG Question 4: A 42-year-old female presents to her primary care provider for an annual checkup. She reports feeling sad over the past few months for no apparent reason. She has lost interest in swimming, which she previously found enjoyable. Additionally, she has had trouble getting a full night’s sleep and has had trouble concentrating during the day. She has lost 15 pounds since her last visit one year prior. Which of the following sets of neurotransmitter levels is associated with this patient’s condition?
- A. Decreased acetylcholine, normal serotonin, normal dopamine
- B. Decreased norepinephrine, decreased serotonin, decreased dopamine (Correct Answer)
- C. Decreased GABA, decreased acetylcholine, increased dopamine
- D. Increased norepinephrine, decreased serotonin, decreased GABA
- E. Increased acetylcholine, increased serotonin, decreased dopamine
Seasonal affective disorder Explanation: ***Decreased norepinephrine, decreased serotonin, decreased dopamine***
- The patient's symptoms of **sadness**, loss of interest (**anhedonia**), **insomnia**, **difficulty concentrating**, and **weight loss** are classic for **major depressive disorder**.
- **Depression** is strongly associated with deficiencies in **monoamine neurotransmitters**: **norepinephrine**, **serotonin**, and **dopamine**.
*Decreased acetylcholine, normal serotonin, normal dopamine*
- While **acetylcholine** is involved in mood regulation, its isolated decrease with normal serotonin and dopamine levels is not characteristic of generalized depression.
- More prominent roles for **acetylcholine dysfunction** are seen in conditions like **Alzheimer's disease** or **myasthenia gravis**.
*Decreased GABA, decreased acetylcholine, increased dopamine*
- **Decreased GABA** is often associated with **anxiety disorders** and seizures, not the primary presentation of depression here.
- **Increased dopamine** is more characteristic of conditions like **schizophrenia** or **mania**, which contrasts with the patient's depressive symptoms.
*Increased norepinephrine, decreased serotonin, decreased GABA*
- **Increased norepinephrine** is typically associated with **anxiety**, **stress**, or sometimes **mania**, which is inconsistent with this patient's depressive state.
- While **decreased serotonin** is correct for depression, the combination with increased norepinephrine and decreased GABA does not fit the typical neurotransmitter profile.
*Increased acetylcholine, increased serotonin, decreased dopamine*
- **Increased acetylcholine** is generally not associated with the full spectrum of depressive symptoms described.
- **Increased serotonin** is often the goal of antidepressant treatments (SSRIs), making an endogenous increase unlikely to cause depression.
Seasonal affective disorder US Medical PG Question 5: A 27-year-old man comes to the physician for a follow-up examination. Paroxetine therapy was initiated 6 weeks ago for a major depressive episode. He now feels much better and says he is delighted with his newfound energy. He gets around 8 hours of sleep nightly. His appetite has increased. Last year, he had two episodes of depressed mood, insomnia, and low energy during which he had interrupted his job training and stopped going to the gym. Now, he has been able to resume his job at a local bank. He also goes to the gym three times a week to work out and enjoys reading books again. His temperature is 36.5°C (97.7°F), pulse is 70/min, and blood pressure is 128/66 mm Hg. Physical and neurologic examinations show no abnormalities. On mental status examination, he describes his mood as "good." Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- A. Discontinue paroxetine
- B. Switch from paroxetine to venlafaxine therapy
- C. Continue paroxetine therapy for 6 months
- D. Continue paroxetine therapy for 2 years (Correct Answer)
- E. Switch from paroxetine to lithium therapy
Seasonal affective disorder Explanation: **Continue paroxetine therapy for 2 years**
- This patient has experienced **recurrent major depressive episodes**, with two episodes in the past year. Guidelines recommend continuing antidepressant therapy for **1-3 years or indefinitely** after a second or third episode to prevent relapse.
- Given his significant improvement and history of recurrent depression, long-term maintenance with paroxetine is the most appropriate strategy.
*Discontinue paroxetine*
- Discontinuing the antidepressant now would significantly increase the risk of a rapid **relapse** of major depressive disorder, especially given his history of multiple episodes.
- Antidepressants should not be abruptly stopped once symptoms resolve, particularly in patients with recurrent depression.
*Switch from paroxetine to venlafaxine therapy*
- There is no indication to switch to venlafaxine, as the patient has responded well to paroxetine and is currently in **remission**.
- Switching medications carries the risk of new side effects or a recurrence of depressive symptoms.
*Continue paroxetine therapy for 6 months*
- While 6 months of continuation therapy is standard after a **first episode** of major depressive disorder, it is insufficient for patients with **recurrent episodes**.
- Continuing for only 6 months heightens the risk of relapse for this patient given his history.
*Switch from paroxetine to lithium therapy*
- Lithium is typically used as a mood stabilizer for **bipolar disorder** or as an augmentation strategy for refractory depression.
- There is no evidence in the vignette to suggest bipolar disorder, and the patient has responded well to monotherapy with paroxetine.
Seasonal affective disorder US Medical PG Question 6: A 32-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain. She says that she has been experiencing a mild ‘tummy ache’ for about a week. On further questioning, the physician finds that she has been struggling to cope with her daily activities for the past month. She says that she is sad on most days of the week and doesn’t have much motivation to get up and do anything. She has difficulty concentrating and focusing on her job and, on many occasions, doesn’t have the urge to wake up and go to work. She has observed that on certain days she sleeps for 10-12 hours. She attributes this to the heaviness she feels in her legs which make it very difficult for her to get out of bed. Lately, she has also noticed that she is eating more than usual. Which of the following would most likely be another characteristic of this patient’s condition?
- A. An increased frequency of symptoms during winter
- B. Spells of deranged excitement
- C. Inability to participate in social events she is invited to (Correct Answer)
- D. Guilt related to the way she treats others
- E. A belief that people are secretly out to sabotage her
Seasonal affective disorder Explanation: ***Inability to participate in social events she is invited to***
- The patient's inability to participate in social events reflects **social withdrawal** and **anhedonia**, key symptoms of depression, especially with the described lack of motivation and persistent sadness.
- Her prolonged sleep, increased appetite, and subjective feeling of heaviness are features of **atypical depression**, which often includes social impairment.
*An increased frequency of symptoms during winter*
- This characteristic is associated with **seasonal affective disorder (SAD)**, a specifier of major depressive disorder, but the patient's symptoms are described as ongoing for a month, not necessarily tied to a specific season.
- While possible, the provided information does not specifically indicate a seasonal pattern, making other symptoms more directly characteristic of her current presentation.
*Spells of deranged excitement*
- **Deranged excitement** is a hallmark of **mania** or **hypomania**, which are features of **bipolar disorder**.
- The patient's symptoms are overwhelmingly depressive (sadness, low motivation, hypersomnia, increased appetite), with no indication of elevated mood, increased energy, or racing thoughts.
*Guilt related to the way she treats others*
- While **guilt** can be a symptom of **major depressive disorder**, the patient's current description emphasizes **lack of motivation**, **sadness**, **hypersomnia**, and **increased appetite**, rather than specific guilt about interpersonal treatment.
- The focus is more on her internal state and functional decline, rather than specific cognitive distortions about her interactions with others.
*A belief that people are secretly out to sabotage her*
- Such a belief indicates **paranoid delusions**, which are characteristic of **psychotic disorders** like **schizophrenia** or **major depressive disorder with psychotic features**.
- The patient's presentation does not include any signs of psychosis; her symptoms align with a mood disorder without psychotic features.
Seasonal affective disorder US Medical PG Question 7: A 40-year-old man with a past medical history of major depression presents to the clinic. He is interested in joining a research study on depression-related sleep disturbances. He had 2 episodes of major depression within the last 2 years, occurring once during the summer and then during the winter of the other year. He has been non-compliant with medication and has a strong desire to treat his condition with non-pharmacological methods. He would like to be enrolled in this study that utilizes polysomnography to record sleep-wave patterns. Which of the following findings is likely associated with this patient’s psychiatric condition?
- A. Increased REM sleep latency
- B. Associated with a seasonal pattern
- C. Decreased REM sleep latency (Correct Answer)
- D. Increased slow wave sleep
- E. Late morning awakenings
Seasonal affective disorder Explanation: ***Decreased REM sleep latency***
- Patients with major depression exhibit characteristic alterations in sleep architecture, most notably a **decreased REM latency** (shortened time from sleep onset to the first REM period).
- Normal REM latency is typically 90 minutes, but in depression it may be reduced to **45-60 minutes or less**.
- This is one of the most **consistent and well-established polysomnographic findings** in major depressive disorder.
- Other REM sleep changes include **increased REM density** (more frequent rapid eye movements) and a shift of REM sleep to the first half of the night.
*Increased REM sleep latency*
- This is the **opposite** of what occurs in depression.
- **Decreased REM sleep latency** (shorter time to reach REM sleep) is the hallmark finding, not increased latency.
- Increased REM latency might be seen in other conditions or with certain medications, but not in untreated major depression.
*Associated with a seasonal pattern*
- While the patient had episodes in summer and winter, the question asks specifically about **polysomnography findings**, not clinical subtypes or patterns.
- Seasonal pattern is a **clinical specifier** for major depressive disorder (as in seasonal affective disorder), not a polysomnographic finding.
- The seasonal pattern itself is a diagnostic feature, not something detected on sleep studies.
*Increased slow wave sleep*
- Depression is associated with **decreased slow-wave sleep (SWS)**, not increased.
- SWS (stage N3, deep sleep) is typically **reduced** in patients with major depression.
- This decrease in restorative deep sleep contributes to the poor sleep quality, daytime fatigue, and cognitive difficulties in depressed patients.
*Late morning awakenings*
- Major depression classically presents with **early morning awakening** (terminal insomnia), not late morning awakening.
- Patients typically wake 2-3 hours earlier than desired and cannot return to sleep.
- Late morning awakenings or hypersomnia may occur in **atypical depression**, but early morning awakening is the more typical pattern in melancholic depression.
Seasonal affective disorder US Medical PG Question 8: A 24-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician for a wellness exam. She currently has no acute concerns but has been feeling hopeless, has a poor appetite, difficulty with concentration, and trouble with sleep. She says that she has poor self-esteem and that her symptoms have been occurring for the past 3 years. She has had moments where she felt better, but it lasted a few weeks out of the year. She currently lives alone and does not pursue romantic relationships because she feels she is not attractive. She has a past medical history of asthma. Her mother is alive and healthy. Her father committed suicide and suffered from major depressive disorder. On physical exam, the patient has a gloomy demeanor and appears restless and anxious. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Major depressive disorder
- B. Cyclothymia
- C. Persistent depressive disorder (Correct Answer)
- D. Seasonal affective disorder
- E. Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder
Seasonal affective disorder Explanation: ***Persistent depressive disorder***
- The patient exhibits chronic symptoms of depression (poor appetite, poor self-esteem, difficulty with concentration, trouble with sleep, hopelessness) lasting for at least **2 years**, with symptom-free periods lasting no more than **2 months**.
- Her long-standing symptoms (3 years) and the intermittent improvement, but never full resolution for extended periods, are characteristic of **persistent depressive disorder** (formerly dysthymia).
*Major depressive disorder*
- While the patient has many symptoms of depression, **major depressive disorder** is characterized by distinct episodes of at least 2 weeks, with significant functional impairment. The chronic, fluctuating course over 3 years is less typical.
- The presence of depressive symptoms for 3 years, with only brief periods of improvement, points away from episodic major depressive disorder alone and more towards a chronic form.
*Cyclothymia*
- **Cyclothymia** involves numerous periods of hypomanic symptoms and numerous periods of depressive symptoms for at least 2 years, with periods of stability lasting no more than 2 months. The patient describes only depressive symptoms, not hypomanic episodes.
- There is no mention of elevated mood, increased energy, or decreased need for sleep, which are characteristic of **hypomanic episodes** in cyclothymia.
*Seasonal affective disorder*
- **Seasonal affective disorder** is a type of depressive disorder that occurs during a specific season (most commonly winter) and resolves during other seasons; the patient's symptoms are year-round and chronic.
- The patient's symptoms are not described as tied to a particular season, making this diagnosis less likely.
*Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder*
- Predominantly diagnosed in **children and adolescents**, this disorder is characterized by severe recurrent temper outbursts and persistently irritable or angry mood between outbursts.
- The patient's age (24 years old) and the absence of temper outbursts make this diagnosis inappropriate.
Seasonal affective disorder US Medical PG Question 9: A 17-year-old high school student comes to the physician because of a 6-month history of insomnia. On school nights, he goes to bed around 11 p.m. but has had persistent problems falling asleep and instead studies at his desk until he feels sleepy around 2 a.m. He does not wake up in the middle of the night. He is worried that he does not get enough sleep. He has significant difficulties waking up on weekdays and has repeatedly been late to school. At school, he experiences daytime sleepiness and drinks 1–2 cups of coffee in the mornings. He tries to avoid daytime naps. On the weekends, he goes to bed around 2 a.m. and sleeps in until 10 a.m., after which he feels rested. He has no history of severe illness and does not take medication. Which of the following most likely explains this patient's sleep disorder?
- A. Inadequate sleep hygiene
- B. Irregular sleep-wake disorder
- C. Psychophysiologic insomnia
- D. Delayed sleep-wake disorder (Correct Answer)
- E. Advanced sleep-wake disorder
Seasonal affective disorder Explanation: ***Delayed sleep-wake disorder***
- This patient exhibits a consistent pattern of **delayed sleep onset** and **delayed wake time**, particularly evident on weekends when he can follow his natural circadian rhythm (going to bed at 2 AM and waking at 10 AM).
- The symptoms, including difficulty falling asleep at conventional times, difficulty waking for school, and daytime sleepiness, are classic for **delayed sleep-wake phase disorder**, where an individual's internal clock is misaligned with societal expectations.
*Inadequate sleep hygiene*
- While aspects like studying in bed are **poor sleep hygiene**, the core issue is not simply bad habits but a fundamental misalignment of his **circadian rhythm** as evidenced by his consistent late sleep onset and wake times when allowed.
- The patient's ability to sleep well and feel rested on weekends when he can follow his natural rhythm suggests that hygiene alone isn't the primary cause.
*Irregular sleep-wake disorder*
- This disorder is characterized by a **lack of a discernible sleep-wake rhythm**, with sleep periods fragmented and scattered throughout the 24-hour day.
- The patient, however, demonstrates a clear, albeit delayed, sleep schedule; he sleeps in one consolidated block and feels rested when allowed to do so.
*Psychophysiologic insomnia*
- This condition involves heightened arousal and **anxiety surrounding sleep**, leading to difficulty falling asleep at night and often improved sleep in novel environments or away from home.
- While he expresses worry about not getting enough sleep, his sleep issues are primarily due to a shifted circadian phase, not just anxiety about sleep itself, and he sleeps restfully when allowed to follow his delayed rhythm.
*Advanced sleep-wake disorder*
- This disorder is characterized by a **habitually early sleep onset** and **early morning awakening**, typically several hours earlier than desired or conventional times.
- The patient, in contrast, consistently struggles to fall asleep until very late hours and desires a later wake time.
Seasonal affective disorder US Medical PG Question 10: A 32-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 2 month history of difficulty sleeping and worsening fatigue. During this time, he has also had difficulty concentrating and remembering tasks at work as well as diminished interest in his hobbies. He has no suicidal or homicidal ideation. He does not have auditory or visual hallucinations. Vital signs are normal. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Mental status examination shows a depressed mood and flat affect with slowed thinking and speech. The physician prescribes sertraline. Three weeks later, the patient comes to the physician again with only minor improvements in his symptoms. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- A. Augment with aripiprazole and continue sertraline
- B. Provide electroconvulsive therapy
- C. Continue sertraline for 3 more weeks (Correct Answer)
- D. Change medication to duloxetine
- E. Augment with phenelzine and continue sertraline
Seasonal affective disorder Explanation: ***Continue sertraline for 3 more weeks***
- Antidepressants like **sertraline** typically require **4 to 6 weeks** to reach their full therapeutic effect.
- Since only three weeks have passed with minor improvements, the patient should continue the medication to allow time for the drug to work fully.
*Augment with aripiprazole and continue sertraline*
- **Augmentation** with an atypical antipsychotic like aripiprazole is considered if there is **no significant improvement after an adequate trial** (at least 6-8 weeks) of antidepressant monotherapy.
- It is too early to consider augmentation as the patient has not completed a sufficient trial of sertraline.
*Provide electroconvulsive therapy*
- **Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)** is reserved for **severe, treatment-resistant depression**, depression with psychotic features, or when rapid response is required (e.g., severe suicidality).
- The patient's symptoms, while bothersome, do not meet criteria for severe, treatment-resistant depression or acute emergencies warranting ECT.
*Change medication to duloxetine*
- Changing antidepressants is usually considered if there is **minimal or no response** after an adequate trial of the initial medication.
- Switching medications before allowing sufficient time for the current treatment to work is premature and may delay effective treatment.
*Augment with phenelzine and continue sertraline*
- **Phenelzine** is a **monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI)**, and using it in combination with an **SSRI like sertraline** is contraindicated due to the risk of **serotonin syndrome**.
- MAOIs are generally reserved for **refractory depression** due to their dietary restrictions and potential for severe drug interactions.
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