Preventive strategies for cognitive decline US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice US Medical PG questions for Preventive strategies for cognitive decline. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Preventive strategies for cognitive decline US Medical PG Question 1: An otherwise healthy 55-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 7-month history of insomnia. She has difficulty initiating sleep, and her sleep onset latency is normally about 1 hour. She takes melatonin most nights. The physician gives the following recommendations: leave the bedroom when unable to fall asleep within 20 minutes to read or listen to music; return only when sleepy; avoid daytime napping. These recommendations are best classified as which of the following?
- A. Cognitive behavioral therapy
- B. Relaxation
- C. Improved sleep hygiene
- D. Stimulus control therapy (Correct Answer)
- E. Sleep restriction
Preventive strategies for cognitive decline Explanation: ***Stimulus control therapy***
- This therapy focuses on **removing cues** that hinder sleep and **establishing a strong association** between the bed/bedroom and sleep.
- The recommendations (leaving the bedroom when awake, returning only when sleepy, avoiding daytime naps) are classic components of **stimulus control therapy** for insomnia.
*Cognitive behavioral therapy*
- **CBT-I** is a comprehensive approach that includes stimulus control, sleep hygiene, relaxation techniques, and cognitive restructuring.
- While stimulus control is a part of CBT-I, the recommendations provided are specifically designed to address conditioning and are thus best classified as stimulus control therapy.
*Relaxation*
- Relaxation techniques involve methods like **progressive muscle relaxation**, **deep breathing exercises**, or **meditation** to reduce physiological arousal.
- The given recommendations do not directly involve these types of activities but rather focus on changing behaviors around sleep.
*Improved sleep hygiene*
- Sleep hygiene involves practices that promote good sleep, such as maintaining a **regular sleep schedule**, ensuring a **comfortable sleep environment**, and **avoiding caffeine/alcohol** before bed.
- While avoiding daytime naps is related to sleep hygiene, the core recommendations (leaving the bedroom when awake, returning only when sleepy) specifically target conditional associations with the bed, making them more characteristic of stimulus control.
*Sleep restriction*
- Sleep restriction therapy involves **limiting the time spent in bed** to the actual time asleep, with the goal of building up sleep drive and improving sleep efficiency.
- The recommendations given do not specify a fixed reduction in time allowed in bed but rather focus on behavioral responses to wakefulness in bed.
Preventive strategies for cognitive decline US Medical PG Question 2: A 69-year-old man presents for a general follow up appointment. He states that he is doing well and wants to be sure he is healthy. The patient’s past medical history is significant for type II diabetes mellitus, peripheral vascular disease, and hypertension. His current medications include metformin, glyburide, lisinopril, metoprolol and hydrochlorothiazide. His blood pressure is 130/90 mmHg and pulse is 80/min. A fasting lipid panel was performed last week demonstrating an LDL of 85 mg/dL and triglycerides of 160 mg/dL. The patient states that he has not experienced any symptoms since his last visit. The patient’s blood glucose at this visit is 100 mg/dL. Which of the following is recommended in this patient?
- A. Begin statin therapy (Correct Answer)
- B. Increase lisinopril dose
- C. Increase HCTZ dose
- D. Discontinue metoprolol and start propranolol
- E. Increase metformin dose
Preventive strategies for cognitive decline Explanation: **Begin statin therapy**
- The patient has **multiple risk factors** for cardiovascular disease including type 2 diabetes, peripheral vascular disease, and hypertension. His LDL-C of 85 mg/dL, while not excessively high, still warrants statin therapy given his high-risk profile, as guidelines recommend statin use in these patients to reduce cardiovascular events.
- Patients with a history of **atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease (ASCVD)**, which includes peripheral vascular disease, should be on a **high-intensity statin** regardless of their baseline LDL-C level, unless contraindicated.
*Increase lisinopril dose*
- The patient's blood pressure is 130/90 mmHg. While his systolic pressure is within an acceptable range for a patient with diabetes, his **diastolic pressure of 90 mmHg is slightly elevated**, but a single reading may not warrant an immediate dosage increase.
- Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor and is already at an appropriate dose given the blood pressure. Further increasing the dose without evidence of persistent high blood pressure or other compelling indications is not the primary next step.
*Increase HCTZ dose*
- The patient is already on hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) for hypertension. His blood pressure is 130/90 mmHg, which is **not severely elevated**, and his medications are generally well-controlled.
- Increasing the dose of HCTZ might lead to side effects such as **electrolyte imbalances** (e.g., hypokalemia, hyponatremia) or worsening glucose control, and is not the most pressing intervention.
*Discontinue metoprolol and start propranolol*
- Metoprolol is a **selective beta-1 blocker** and is appropriate for this patient's hypertension and cardiac health, especially given his history.
- Propranolol is a **non-selective beta-blocker** and is generally less preferred in patients with diabetes or peripheral vascular disease due to potential masking of hypoglycemia symptoms and worsening peripheral circulation.
*Increase metformin dose*
- The patient's blood glucose is 100 mg/dL, indicating **good glycemic control** on his current regimen of metformin and glyburide.
- There is no indication to increase the metformin dose as his current glucose levels are within the target range, and increasing it could risk **hypoglycemia**, especially with concomitant glyburide.
Preventive strategies for cognitive decline US Medical PG Question 3: A 70-year-old female presents to you for an office visit with complaints of forgetfulness. The patient states that over the last several years, the patient has stopped cooking for herself even though she lives alone. Recently, she also forgot how to drive back home from the grocery store and has difficulty paying her bills. The patient says she has been healthy over her whole life and does not take any medications. Her vitals are normal and her physical exam does not reveal any focal neurological deficits. Her mini-mental status exam is scored 19/30 and her MRI reveals diffuse cortical atrophy. What is the best initial treatment for this patient's condition?
- A. Rivastigmine (Correct Answer)
- B. Memantine
- C. Bromocriptine
- D. Pramipexole
- E. Ropinirole
Preventive strategies for cognitive decline Explanation: ***Rivastigmine***
- This patient presents with symptoms and signs consistent with **Alzheimer's disease**, including gradual onset of **cognitive decline** impacting daily activities and diffuse cortical atrophy on MRI.
- **Rivastigmine** is an **acetylcholinesterase inhibitor** indicated for mild-to-moderate Alzheimer's disease, which works by increasing acetylcholine levels in the brain.
*Memantine*
- **Memantine** is an **NMDA receptor antagonist** typically used for **moderate-to-severe Alzheimer's disease**, often in combination with acetylcholinesterase inhibitors.
- While it can be beneficial, it is generally not considered the *initial* treatment for mild-to-moderate cases where acetylcholinesterase inhibitors are preferred.
*Bromocriptine*
- **Bromocriptine** is a **dopamine agonist** primarily used in the treatment of **Parkinson's disease** or hyperprolactinemia.
- It is not indicated for the management of Alzheimer's disease and would not address the underlying cholinergic deficit.
*Pramipexole*
- **Pramipexole** is a **dopamine agonist** used to treat **Parkinson's disease** and restless legs syndrome.
- It does not have a role in the treatment of Alzheimer's disease or other forms of dementia.
*Ropinirole*
- **Ropinirole** is another **dopamine agonist** primarily used for **Parkinson's disease** and restless legs syndrome.
- It is not an appropriate treatment for the cognitive decline seen in Alzheimer's disease.
Preventive strategies for cognitive decline US Medical PG Question 4: A 29-year-old man presents to his primary care provider complaining of not being able to get enough rest at night. He goes to bed early enough and has otherwise good sleep hygiene but feels drained the next day. He feels he is unable to perform optimally at work, but he is still a valued employee and able to complete his share of the work. About a month ago his wife of 5 years asked for a divorce and quickly moved out. He has cut out coffee after 12 pm and stopped drinking alcohol. He also exercises 3 days per week. Today, his blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg, heart rate is 95/min, respiratory rate is 25/min, and temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F ). On physical exam, his heart has a regular rate and rhythm and his lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. A CMP, CBC, and thyroid test are negative. Which of the following statements best describes this patient’s condition?
- A. Symptoms are usually self-limited and may persist for 2 years
- B. Symptoms typically resolve within 6 months after the stressor ends (Correct Answer)
- C. Symptoms develop within 3 months of the stressor
- D. Symptoms may be persistent if the stressor is chronic
- E. Symptoms represent a maladaptive response to an identifiable stressor
Preventive strategies for cognitive decline Explanation: ***Symptoms typically resolve within 6 months after the stressor ends***
- This statement accurately describes the **temporal criterion for adjustment disorder** according to DSM-5. Once the stressor or its consequences have terminated, symptoms should resolve within 6 months.
- This patient experienced a clear stressor (divorce and wife moving out ~1 month ago) and developed symptoms in response. The diagnosis of adjustment disorder requires that these symptoms resolve within 6 months of the stressor's termination.
- His symptoms (poor sleep, feeling drained, suboptimal performance) represent a significant but not incapacitating response, consistent with adjustment disorder. Normal labs rule out medical causes.
- This temporal criterion distinguishes adjustment disorder from more chronic conditions and helps guide prognosis and treatment planning.
*Symptoms are usually self-limited and may persist for 2 years*
- Adjustment disorder symptoms should resolve within **6 months**, not 2 years, after the stressor or its consequences have ended.
- If symptoms persist beyond 6 months, this suggests either ongoing stressor consequences, a persistent subtype (for chronic stressors), or an alternative diagnosis should be considered.
*Symptoms develop within 3 months of the stressor*
- While this is a **correct diagnostic criterion** (symptoms must develop within 3 months of stressor onset), it only addresses timing of onset, not the complete picture.
- The question asks for the statement that "best describes" the condition, and the resolution timeline is more distinctive and prognostically important than onset timing alone.
*Symptoms may be persistent if the stressor is chronic*
- This describes the **persistent specifier** in DSM-5, which applies when the stressor or its consequences are ongoing (chronic stressor or enduring consequences).
- However, in this case, the stressor appears to be acute (wife moved out), not chronic, making this less applicable to the specific clinical scenario presented.
*Symptoms represent a maladaptive response to an identifiable stressor*
- This is a **core defining feature** of adjustment disorder - the development of emotional/behavioral symptoms in response to an identifiable stressor with marked distress or impairment.
- While accurate, this is a general characteristic shared across the definition and doesn't capture the specific **temporal criteria** (resolution within 6 months) that is most distinctive for adjustment disorder diagnosis and prognosis.
Preventive strategies for cognitive decline US Medical PG Question 5: A 56-year-old man presents to the family medicine office since he has been having difficulty keeping his blood pressure under control for the past month. He has a significant medical history of hypertension, coronary artery disease, and diabetes mellitus. He has a prescription for losartan, atenolol, and metformin. The blood pressure is 178/100 mm Hg, the heart rate is 92/min, and the respiratory rate is 16/min. The physical examination is positive for a grade II holosystolic murmur at the left sternal border. He also has diminished sensation in his toes. Which of the following statements is the most effective means of communication between the doctor and the patient?
- A. “What is causing your blood pressure to be elevated?” (Correct Answer)
- B. “Have you been taking your medications as prescribed?”
- C. “Would you like us to consider trying a different medication for your blood pressure?”
- D. “You are taking your medications as prescribed, aren’t you?”
- E. “Why are you not taking your medication?”
Preventive strategies for cognitive decline Explanation: ***“What is causing your blood pressure to be elevated?”***
- This is an **open-ended question** that encourages the patient to share their perspective, concerns, and potential reasons for the elevated blood pressure, fostering a **patient-centered approach**.
- It allows the physician to understand the patient's individual circumstances, medication adherence, lifestyle factors, or other contributing issues without being judgmental or leading.
*“Have you been taking your medications as prescribed?”*
- This is a **closed-ended question** that primarily elicits a "yes" or "no" answer, providing limited insight into the patient's actual adherence and the underlying reasons for non-adherence.
- While important, phrasing it this way might make the patient feel interrogated or judged, potentially hindering honest communication.
*“Would you like us to consider trying a different medication for your blood pressure?”*
- This question prematurely jumps to a solution without fully understanding the cause of the elevated blood pressure and the patient's perspective.
- It bypasses the crucial step of investigating potential reasons for poor blood pressure control, which could include non-adherence, lifestyle factors, or secondary hypertension, rather than necessarily a medication efficacy issue.
*“You are taking your medications as prescribed, aren’t you?”*
- This is a **leading question** that implies an expectation and can make the patient feel pressured to answer affirmatively, even if they are not consistently taking their medication.
- Such phrasing can create a defensive environment and discourage the patient from openly discussing adherence challenges.
*“Why are you not taking your medication?”*
- This is a **direct and accusatory question** that implies blame and can immediately put the patient on the defensive, making them less likely to be honest or forthcoming about their medication habits.
- It fails to create a supportive or collaborative atmosphere, which is essential for effective patient-physician communication.
Preventive strategies for cognitive decline US Medical PG Question 6: A 56-year-old woman comes to the physician for follow-up after a measurement of elevated blood pressure at her last visit three months ago. She works as a high school teacher at a local school. She says that she mostly eats cafeteria food and take-out. She denies any regular physical activity. She does not smoke or use any recreational drugs. She drinks 2 to 3 glasses of wine per day. She has hypercholesterolemia for which she takes atorvastatin. Her height is 165 cm (5 ft 5 in), weight is 82 kg (181 lb), and BMI is 30.1 kg/m2. Her pulse is 67/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 152/87 mm Hg on the right arm and 155/92 mm Hg on the left arm. She would like to try lifestyle modifications to improve her blood pressure before considering pharmacologic therapy. Which of the following lifestyle modifications is most likely to result in the greatest reduction of this patient's systolic blood pressure?
- A. Walking for 30 minutes, 5 days per week
- B. Reducing sodium intake to less than 2.4 g per day
- C. Losing 15 kg (33 lb) of body weight (Correct Answer)
- D. Adopting a DASH diet
- E. Decreasing alcohol consumption to maximum of one drink per day
Preventive strategies for cognitive decline Explanation: ***Losing 15 kg (33 lb) of body weight***
- **Weight reduction** is the most effective lifestyle modification for lowering blood pressure, correlating directly with the amount of weight lost.
- A loss of 15 kg (33 lb) in this patient, who is **obese (BMI 30.1)**, could significantly reduce her systolic blood pressure, potentially by 5-20 mmHg per 10 kg weight loss.
*Walking for 30 minutes, 5 days per week*
- Regular **aerobic physical activity** is beneficial for blood pressure reduction, typically resulting in a 4-9 mmHg decrease in systolic pressure.
- While helpful, the magnitude of reduction from exercise alone is generally less than that achieved with significant weight loss in an obese individual.
*Reducing sodium intake to less than 2.4 g per day*
- **Sodium restriction** is an effective strategy, often leading to a 2-8 mmHg reduction in systolic blood pressure.
- Given the patient's diet of cafeteria and take-out food, high sodium intake is likely, making this a relevant intervention, but typically less impactful than substantial weight loss.
*Adopting a DASH diet*
- The **Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension (DASH) diet** emphasizes fruits, vegetables, and low-fat dairy, and can significantly lower blood pressure, by 8-14 mmHg.
- This diet is highly effective, but for an obese individual, the blood pressure reduction from achieving a healthy weight is often greater.
*Decreasing alcohol consumption to maximum of one drink per day*
- Reducing **excessive alcohol intake** can decrease systolic blood pressure by 2-4 mmHg, as the patient reports 2-3 glasses of wine daily.
- While beneficial, this reduction is likely to be less substantial compared to major weight loss or other dietary changes.
Preventive strategies for cognitive decline US Medical PG Question 7: A 65-year-old woman presents with memory problems for the past few weeks. Patient vividly describes how she forgot where she put her car keys this morning and did not remember to wish her grandson a happy birthday last week. Patient denies any cognitive problems, bowel/bladder incontinence, tremors, gait problems, or focal neurologic signs. Patient mentions she wants to take Ginkgo because her friend told her that it can help improve her brain function and prevent memory loss. Past medical history is significant for an acute cardiac event several years ago. Current medications are aspirin, carvedilol, and captopril. Patient denies any history of smoking, alcohol or recreational drug use. Patient is a widow, lives alone, and is able to perform all activities of daily living (ADLs) easily. No significant family history. Patient is afebrile and vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following would be the most appropriate response to this patient’s request to take Ginkgo?
- A. "Yes, ginkgo is widely used for improving brain function and memory."
- B. “No, you have Alzheimer's disease and need to start donepezil.”
- C. “No, herbal preparations are unsafe because they are not regulated by the FDA.”
- D. "No, taking ginkgo will increase your risk for bleeding." (Correct Answer)
- E. Yes, ginkgo may not help with your memory, but there is no risk of adverse events so it is safe to take.
Preventive strategies for cognitive decline Explanation: ***"No, taking ginkgo will increase your risk for bleeding."***
- **Ginkgo biloba** has known antithrombotic effects due to its inhibition of platelet-activating factor, which can increase the risk of **bleeding**, especially when combined with other antithrombotic agents like **aspirin**, which this patient is taking.
- Given her history of a cardiac event and current aspirin use, adding ginkgo would significantly raise her risk of hemorrhagic complications.
*"Yes, ginkgo is widely used for improving brain function and memory."*
- While ginkgo is popularly marketed for cognitive enhancement, there is **insufficient scientific evidence** to support its effectiveness in improving memory or preventing cognitive decline.
- Recommending it based solely on popular belief disregards evidence-based medicine and potential patient risks.
*"No, you have Alzheimer's disease and need to start donepezil.”*
- This is an inappropriate response as a diagnosis of **Alzheimer's disease** cannot be made based solely on the patient's self-reported memory issues; a comprehensive workup is required.
- Additionally, immediately prescribing **donepezil** without a confirmed diagnosis and without discussing potential risks or alternatives is premature and goes against diagnostic protocols.
*"No, herbal preparations are unsafe because they are not regulated by the FDA."*
- While it's true that **herbal preparations** are not regulated by the FDA in the same way as prescription drugs, labeling all such preparations as "unsafe" is an **overgeneralization**.
- The primary concern here is not just the lack of FDA regulation, but the specific **pharmacological interaction** of ginkgo with her current medications.
*"Yes, ginkgo may not help with your memory, but there is no risk of adverse events so it is safe to take."*
- This statement is incorrect because, as explained, ginkgo carries a significant **risk of adverse events**, particularly **increased bleeding risk**, especially in this patient due to her concomitant aspirin use.
- It is critical to acknowledge and address potential drug interactions and side effects, rather than dismissing them.
Preventive strategies for cognitive decline US Medical PG Question 8: An 81-year-old woman presents to your office accompanied by her husband. She has been doing well except for occasional word finding difficulty. Her husband is concerned that her memory is worsening over the past year. Recently, she got lost twice on her way home from her daughter’s house, was unable to remember her neighbor’s name, and could not pay the bills like she usually did. She has a history of hypertension and arthritis. She has no significant family history. Her medications include a daily multivitamin, hydrochlorothiazide, and ibuprofen as needed. Physical exam is unremarkable. Which of the following is associated with an increased risk of this patient’s disease?
- A. Presenilin-2
- B. ApoE2
- C. ApoE4 (Correct Answer)
- D. Female gender
- E. Advanced age (>85 years)
Preventive strategies for cognitive decline Explanation: ***Correct: ApoE4***
- The patient's symptoms (progressive memory loss, getting lost on familiar routes, difficulty with routine tasks like paying bills) in an 81-year-old suggest **Alzheimer's disease**.
- The **ApoE4 allele** is a well-established genetic risk factor for **late-onset Alzheimer's disease**, significantly increasing the likelihood (3-fold increased risk for one allele, 12-fold for two alleles) and often lowering the age of onset.
- ApoE4 is the **most specific and discriminating risk factor** among the options provided.
*Incorrect: Presenilin-2*
- **Presenilin-2** mutations are associated with **early-onset familial Alzheimer's disease**, which typically manifests before age 65 and often has a strong family history.
- This patient is 81 years old and has no significant family history, making early-onset familial AD unlikely.
*Incorrect: ApoE2*
- The **ApoE2 allele** is actually associated with a **decreased risk** of Alzheimer's disease.
- It is thought to be protective due to its more efficient clearance of amyloid beta peptides from the brain.
*Incorrect: Female gender*
- While **female gender** is indeed a risk factor for Alzheimer's disease (women have approximately 2:1 higher lifetime risk even after adjusting for longevity), it is less specific than ApoE4 as a discriminating answer.
- All patients have a biological sex, but only some carry the ApoE4 allele, making ApoE4 a more useful clinical and epidemiological marker.
*Incorrect: Advanced age (>85 years)*
- **Advanced age** is actually the strongest non-modifiable risk factor for Alzheimer's disease, with incidence doubling every 5 years after age 65.
- However, in the context of this question, **ApoE4 is the better answer** because it represents a specific genetic risk factor that can be tested and is directly associated with disease pathogenesis, whereas advanced age is a universal demographic factor that applies to all individuals who live long enough.
Preventive strategies for cognitive decline US Medical PG Question 9: A 28-year-old male presents to his primary care physician with complaints of intermittent abdominal pain and alternating bouts of constipation and diarrhea. His medical chart is not significant for any past medical problems or prior surgeries. He is not prescribed any current medications. Which of the following questions would be the most useful next question in eliciting further history from this patient?
- A. "Does the diarrhea typically precede the constipation, or vice-versa?"
- B. "Is the diarrhea foul-smelling?"
- C. "Please rate your abdominal pain on a scale of 1-10, with 10 being the worst pain of your life"
- D. "Are the symptoms worse in the morning or at night?"
- E. "Can you tell me more about the symptoms you have been experiencing?" (Correct Answer)
Preventive strategies for cognitive decline Explanation: ***Can you tell me more about the symptoms you have been experiencing?***
- This **open-ended question** encourages the patient to provide a **comprehensive narrative** of their symptoms, including details about onset, frequency, duration, alleviating/aggravating factors, and associated symptoms, which is crucial for diagnosis.
- In a patient presenting with vague, intermittent symptoms like alternating constipation and diarrhea, allowing them to elaborate freely can reveal important clues that might not be captured by more targeted questions.
*Does the diarrhea typically precede the constipation, or vice-versa?*
- While knowing the sequence of symptoms can be helpful in understanding the **pattern of bowel dysfunction**, it is a very specific question that might overlook other important aspects of the patient's experience.
- It prematurely narrows the focus without first obtaining a broad understanding of the patient's overall symptomatic picture.
*Is the diarrhea foul-smelling?*
- Foul-smelling diarrhea can indicate **malabsorption** or **bacterial overgrowth**, which are important to consider in some gastrointestinal conditions.
- However, this is a **specific symptom inquiry** that should follow a more general exploration of the patient's symptoms, as it may not be relevant if other crucial details are missed.
*Please rate your abdominal pain on a scale of 1-10, with 10 being the worst pain of your life*
- Quantifying pain intensity is useful for assessing the **severity of discomfort** and monitoring changes over time.
- However, for a patient with intermittent rather than acute, severe pain, understanding the **character, location, and triggers** of the pain is often more diagnostically valuable than just a numerical rating initially.
*Are the symptoms worse in the morning or at night?*
- Diurnal variation can be relevant in certain conditions, such as inflammatory bowel diseases where nocturnal symptoms might be more concerning, or functional disorders whose symptoms might be stress-related.
- This is another **specific question** that should come after gathering a more complete initial picture of the patient's symptoms to ensure no key information is overlooked.
Preventive strategies for cognitive decline US Medical PG Question 10: A 65-year-old woman comes to the physician for the evaluation of several episodes of urinary incontinence over the past several months. She reports that she was not able to get to the bathroom in time. During the past 6 months, her husband has noticed that she is starting to forget important appointments and family meetings. She has type 2 diabetes mellitus treated with metformin. The patient had smoked a pack of cigarettes daily for 45 years. Her vital signs are within normal limits. On mental status examination, she is confused and has short-term memory deficits. She walks slowly taking short, wide steps. Muscle strength is normal. Deep tendon reflexes are 2+ bilaterally. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's urinary incontinence?
- A. Bacterial infection of the urinary tract
- B. Normal pressure hydrocephalus (Correct Answer)
- C. Detrusor-sphincter dyssynergia
- D. Impaired detrusor contractility
- E. Loss of sphincter function
Preventive strategies for cognitive decline Explanation: ***Normal pressure hydrocephalus***
- The patient's presentation with **urinary incontinence**, **memory deficits/dementia**, and an **ataxic gait** (slow, short, wide steps) represents the classic triad of **Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus (NPH)**.
- While the incontinence itself is urge-type (not getting to the bathroom in time), the constellation of symptoms points to NPH as the underlying neurological cause.
*Bacterial infection of the urinary tract*
- Although urinary tract infections can cause **acute urinary incontinence**, especially in the elderly, they do not explain the accompanying **memory loss** and **gait disturbance**.
- There are no symptoms typical of infection such as **dysuria**, **frequency**, or **fever** mentioned in the vignette.
*Detrusor-sphincter dyssynergia*
- This condition involves involuntary contraction of the urethral sphincter during detrusor contraction, typically seen in **spinal cord injury** patients, and is characterized by **incomplete bladder emptying**, not primarily urge incontinence alone.
- It does not account for the **cognitive decline** or **gait abnormalities** presented.
*Impaired detrusor contractility*
- **Impaired detrusor contractility** (underactive bladder) typically leads to **overflow incontinence** with incomplete emptying, characterized by a constant dribble and difficulty initiating urination, which contrasts with the presented urge incontinence.
- This condition does not explain the patient's **dementia** or **gait disturbance**.
*Loss of sphincter function*
- **Loss of sphincter function** (stress incontinence) typically causes urine leakage with increased intra-abdominal pressure (e.g., coughing, sneezing, lifting), which is different from the patient's report of not making it to the bathroom in time which points towards urge incontinence.
- This condition also does not explain the neurological symptoms of **dementia** and **gait ataxia**.
More Preventive strategies for cognitive decline US Medical PG questions available in the OnCourse app. Practice MCQs, flashcards, and get detailed explanations.
