Hypothalamic thermoregulation US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice US Medical PG questions for Hypothalamic thermoregulation. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Hypothalamic thermoregulation US Medical PG Question 1: A 35-year-old woman presents to the clinic for a several-month history of heat intolerance. She lives in a small apartment with her husband and reports that she always feels hot and sweaty, even when their air conditioning is on high. On further questioning, she's also had a 4.5 kg (10 lb) unintentional weight loss. The vital signs include: heart rate 102/min and blood pressure 150/80 mm Hg. The physical exam is notable for warm and slightly moist skin. She also exhibits a fine tremor in her hands when her arms are outstretched. Which of the following laboratory values is most likely low in this patient?
- A. Triiodothyronine (T3)
- B. Thyroxine (T4)
- C. Calcitonin
- D. Glucose
- E. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (Correct Answer)
Hypothalamic thermoregulation Explanation: ***Thyroid-stimulating hormone***
- The patient's symptoms (heat intolerance, weight loss, tachycardia, hypertension, warm/moist skin, fine tremor) are classic for **hyperthyroidism**.
- In primary hyperthyroidism, the thyroid gland overproduces T3 and T4, which **negatively feedbacks** on the pituitary, leading to a **low TSH** level.
*Triiodothyronine (T3)*
- In hyperthyroidism, **T3 levels are typically elevated**, not low, as the thyroid gland is overactive.
- T3 is one of the primary thyroid hormones responsible for the patient's metabolic symptoms.
*Thyroxine (T4)*
- In hyperthyroidism, **T4 levels are typically elevated**, not low, alongside T3.
- T4 is the other key thyroid hormone produced in excess, contributing to the hypermetabolic state.
*Calcitonin*
- Calcitonin is a hormone involved in **calcium regulation** and is produced by the parafollicular C cells of the thyroid gland.
- Its levels are not directly affected by hyperthyroidism and would not be consistently low in this scenario.
*Glucose*
- While hyperthyroidism can affect glucose metabolism, causing increased gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis, it more commonly leads to **elevated or normal glucose levels**, not consistently low levels.
- Low glucose would typically suggest other conditions like insulinoma or adrenal insufficiency.
Hypothalamic thermoregulation US Medical PG Question 2: A 15-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his father 10 minutes after falling into a frozen lake during ice fishing. He was in the water for less than 1 minute before his father managed to pull him out. On arrival, his clothes are still wet and he appears scared. His body temperature is 36.2°C (97.1°F), pulse is 102/min, blood pressure is 133/88 mm Hg. Which of the following mechanisms contributes most to maintaining this patient's core body temperature?
- A. Inhibition of the thyroid axis
- B. Involuntary muscular contractions (Correct Answer)
- C. Activation of thermogenin
- D. Increase in hypothalamic set point
- E. Contraction of arrector pili muscles
Hypothalamic thermoregulation Explanation: ***Involuntary muscular contractions***
- **Shivering** is the body's primary mechanism for increasing heat production in response to cold stress, involving rapid, involuntary muscle contractions to generate heat.
- This process significantly increases the **metabolic rate** and heat output, crucial for maintaining core body temperature when exposed to cold environments.
*Inhibition of the thyroid axis*
- The **thyroid axis** is generally activated in response to chronic cold exposure to increase basal metabolic rate, not inhibited.
- Inhibition of thyroid hormones would lead to a decrease in metabolism and heat production, worsening hypothermia.
*Activation of thermogenin*
- **Thermogenin** (uncoupling protein 1) is found primarily in **brown adipose tissue** and its activation leads to non-shivering thermogenesis.
- While present in infants and some adults, shivering is a much more significant and rapid response to acute cold in a 15-year-old.
*Increase in hypothalamic set point*
- An increase in the **hypothalamic set point** is characteristic of **fever**, where the body aims to achieve a higher temperature.
- In this scenario, the body is trying to maintain its normal set point despite cold exposure, not raise it.
*Contraction of arrector pili muscles*
- **Contraction of arrector pili muscles** causes **piloerection** (goosebumps), which traps a layer of air close to the skin.
- While contributing to insulation, this mechanism is relatively minor in humans compared to the heat generated by shivering.
Hypothalamic thermoregulation US Medical PG Question 3: An 11-year-old boy presents with a 2-day history of uncontrollable shivering. During admission, the patient’s vital signs are within normal limits, except for a fluctuating body temperature registering as low as 35.0°C (95.0°F) and as high as 40.0°C (104.0°F), requiring alternating use of cooling and warming blankets. A complete blood count (CBC) is normal, and a chest radiograph is negative for consolidations and infiltrates. An MRI of the brain reveals a space-occupying lesion infiltrating the posterior hypothalamus and extending laterally. Which of the following additional findings are most likely, based on this patient’s physical examination?
- A. Polyuria
- B. Hyperphagia
- C. Galactorrhea
- D. Sleep disturbances
- E. Anorexia (Correct Answer)
Hypothalamic thermoregulation Explanation: **Anorexia**
- **Hypothalamic lesions**, particularly those affecting the **lateral hypothalamus**, often lead to **anorexia** and **weight loss** due to the role of this region in stimulating appetite.
- The patient's presentation with **uncontrollable shivering** and **deregulated body temperature** further points to hypothalamic dysfunction, which can also disrupt feeding centers.
*Polyuria*
- **Polyuria** is typically associated with damage to the **posterior pituitary gland** or its connections to the hypothalamus, leading to **diabetes insipidus** (lack of ADH).
- While a hypothalamic lesion can affect ADH production, the primary symptom constellation in this case more strongly suggests disruption of other hypothalamic functions.
*Hyperphagia*
- **Hyperphagia** (increased appetite) and **obesity** are most commonly linked to damage to the **ventromedial hypothalamus**, which is considered the satiety center.
- The presented lesion is described as infiltrating the posterior hypothalamus and extending laterally, making hyperphagia less likely than anorexia.
*Galactorrhea*
- **Galactorrhea** is often caused by **hyperprolactinemia**, which can result from lesions compressing the **pituitary stalk** or interfering with **dopamine's inhibitory effect** on prolactin release in the anterior pituitary.
- While a large hypothalamic lesion could theoretically impact pituitary function secondarily, galactorrhea is not a direct or most likely consequence of a posterior and lateral hypothalamic lesion.
*Sleep disturbances*
- While the **hypothalamus** plays a critical role in **sleep-wake cycles** (e.g., the **suprachiasmatic nucleus**), **uncontrollable shivering** and **poikilothermia** point more directly to acute disruption of temperature regulation rather than sleep disturbances as the most prominent likely additional finding.
- Many types of brain lesions can cause sleep disturbances, but the specific presentation here suggests a more particular set of hypothalamic dysfunctions.
Hypothalamic thermoregulation US Medical PG Question 4: A researcher is studying the effect of hypothalamic lesions on rat behavior and development. She has developed a novel genetic engineering technology that allows her to induce specific mutations in rat embryos that interfere with rat CNS development. She creates several lines of rats with mutations in only one region of the pituitary gland and hypothalamus. She then monitors their growth and development over six weeks. One line of rats has a mean body mass index (BMI) that is significantly lower than that of control rats. Food intake decreased by 40% in these rats compared to controls. These rats likely have a lesion in which of the following locations?
- A. Lateral hypothalamus (Correct Answer)
- B. Suprachiasmatic nucleus
- C. Ventromedial area
- D. Paraventricular nucleus
- E. Posterior hypothalamus
Hypothalamic thermoregulation Explanation: ***Lateral hypothalamus***
- The **lateral hypothalamus** is known as the **"hunger center"**. Lesions in this area lead to **aphagia** (decreased food intake) and **weight loss**.
- Decreased food intake by 40% and significantly lower BMI are consistent with a lesion affecting the lateral hypothalamus.
*Suprachiasmatic nucleus*
- The **suprachiasmatic nucleus** is the primary regulator of **circadian rhythms** and sleep-wake cycles.
- Lesions here would primarily affect sleep patterns and daily physiological rhythms, not directly cause severe reductions in food intake or BMI.
*Ventromedial area*
- The **ventromedial hypothalamus** is considered the **"satiety center"**. Lesions in this region typically lead to **hyperphagia** (increased food intake) and **obesity**.
- This effect is the opposite of what is observed in the rat line described in the question.
*Paraventricular nucleus*
- The **paraventricular nucleus** plays a role in various functions, including stress response, metabolism, and **feeding behavior**, but its lesion mostly causes increased feeding specifically of carbohydrates.
- While it's involved in feeding, severe aphagia and dramatic weight loss are more classically associated with lateral hypothalamic lesions.
*Posterior hypothalamus*
- The **posterior hypothalamus** is involved in temperature regulation and arousal.
- Lesions in this area can cause problems with **thermoregulation** and can lead to somnolence, but are not directly associated with a primary reduction in food intake and BMI.
Hypothalamic thermoregulation US Medical PG Question 5: Which neurotransmitter is primarily responsible for parasympathetic effects on heart rate?
- A. Norepinephrine
- B. Dopamine
- C. Acetylcholine (Correct Answer)
- D. Epinephrine
Hypothalamic thermoregulation Explanation: ***Acetylcholine***
- **Acetylcholine** is the primary neurotransmitter released by postganglionic parasympathetic neurons.
- It acts on **muscarinic receptors** (M2 receptors) in the heart to decrease heart rate.
*Norepinephrine*
- **Norepinephrine** is primarily associated with the **sympathetic nervous system**, increasing heart rate and contractility.
- It acts on **beta-1 adrenergic receptors** in the heart.
*Dopamine*
- **Dopamine** is a precursor to norepinephrine and epinephrine, and primarily functions as a neurotransmitter in the **central nervous system** and in regulating renal blood flow.
- While it can have cardiac effects, it is not the primary neurotransmitter for parasympathetic actions on heart rate.
*Epinephrine*
- **Epinephrine** (adrenaline) is a hormone released by the adrenal medulla and a neurotransmitter in the sympathetic nervous system, causing an **increase in heart rate** and contractility.
- It works through **beta-1 adrenergic receptors**, antagonistic to parasympathetic effects.
Hypothalamic thermoregulation US Medical PG Question 6: A researcher is studying how arachidonic acid metabolites mediate the inflammatory response in rats. She has developed multiple enzyme inhibitors that specifically target individual proteins in the arachidonic acid pathway. She injects these inhibitors in rats who have been exposed to common bacterial pathogens and analyzes their downstream effects. In one of her experiments, she injects a leukotriene B4 inhibitor into a rat and observes an abnormal cell response. Which of the following interleukins would most closely restore the function of one of the missing products?
- A. Interleukin 2
- B. Interleukin 4
- C. Interleukin 1
- D. Interleukin 5
- E. Interleukin 8 (Correct Answer)
Hypothalamic thermoregulation Explanation: ***Interleukin 8***
- **Leukotriene B4 (LTB4)** is a potent **chemoattractant** and activator of neutrophils.
- **Interleukin 8 (IL-8)**, also known as **CXCL8**, is a primary **chemoattractant** for neutrophils, functionally mimicking the role of LTB4 in recruiting these inflammatory cells to the site of infection.
*Interleukin 2*
- **IL-2** is primarily involved in the **growth, proliferation, and differentiation of T cells**, as well as the activation of B cells and natural killer cells.
- It does not have a significant role in **neutrophil chemotaxis**, which is the main function of LTB4.
*Interleukin 4*
- **IL-4** is crucial for **B cell activation** and class switching to IgE, and it's a key cytokine in the **Th2 immune response**.
- Its functions are related to **allergic reactions** and **parasitic infections**, not neutrophil recruitment.
*Interleukin 1*
- **IL-1** is a pro-inflammatory cytokine that mediates a wide range of immune responses, including **fever** and the activation of other immune cells.
- While it contributes to inflammation, it does not directly act as a **chemoattractant for neutrophils** in the same manner as LTB4 or IL-8.
*Interleukin 5*
- **IL-5** is primarily involved in the **growth and differentiation of eosinophils** and B cell IgA production.
- It plays a significant role in **allergic reactions** and defense against parasites, not neutrophil chemotaxis.
Hypothalamic thermoregulation US Medical PG Question 7: While playing in the woods with friends, a 14-year-old African-American male is bitten by an insect. Minutes later he notices swelling and redness at the site of the insect bite. Which substance has directly led to the wheal formation?
- A. IFN-gamma
- B. IL-4
- C. IL-22
- D. Histamine (Correct Answer)
- E. Arachidonic acid
Hypothalamic thermoregulation Explanation: ***Histamine***
- **Histamine** is a key mediator released by **mast cells** and basophils during immediate hypersensitivity reactions, such as an insect bite.
- It causes vasodilation, increased vascular permeability, and itching, leading to the characteristic **wheal and flare** response.
*IFN-gamma*
- **IFN-gamma** is primarily involved in **Type IV hypersensitivity** (delayed-type) reactions and viral/intracellular bacterial defense.
- It would not directly cause immediate wheal formation from an insect bite.
*IL-4*
- **IL-4** is crucial for **Th2 differentiation** and IgE production, which is involved in allergic reactions.
- While essential for the underlying allergic response, it does not directly cause the acute wheal formation.
*IL-22*
- **IL-22** is involved in host defense, particularly against extracellular bacteria, and plays a role in tissue repair and inflammation, especially in epithelial tissues.
- It is not a primary mediator of immediate hypersensitivity reactions or wheal formation.
*Arachidonic acid*
- **Arachidonic acid** is a precursor to eicosanoids (prostaglandins, leukotrienes), which mediate later phases of inflammation and pain.
- While contributing to the overall inflammatory response, it does not directly cause the initial, rapid wheal formation.
Hypothalamic thermoregulation US Medical PG Question 8: A group of investigators is studying thermoregulatory adaptations of the human body. A subject is seated in a thermally insulated isolation chamber with an internal temperature of 48°C (118°F), a pressure of 1 atmosphere, and a relative humidity of 10%. Which of the following is the primary mechanism of heat loss in this subject?
- A. Convection
- B. Evaporation (Correct Answer)
- C. Conduction
- D. Piloerection
- E. Radiation
Hypothalamic thermoregulation Explanation: ***Evaporation***
- In an environment where the ambient temperature (48°C) is **higher than body temperature**, heat gain by convection, conduction, and radiation occurs. Therefore, **evaporation** of sweat is the only significant mechanism for heat loss.
- The relatively low humidity (10%) at this high temperature facilitates efficient sweat **evaporation**, which cools the body as it converts liquid sweat into water vapor.
*Convection*
- **Convection** involves heat transfer through the movement of air or fluid over the body surface.
- Since the ambient temperature (48°C) is significantly **above body temperature**, the body would gain heat via convection, not lose it.
*Conduction*
- **Conduction** is direct heat transfer between objects in contact.
- As the ambient temperature (48°C) is much **higher than the skin temperature**, the body would actually **gain heat** through conduction from any surfaces it touched if they were at ambient temperature.
*Piloerection*
- **Piloerection** (goosebumps) is a mechanism for minimizing heat loss by trapping a layer of warm air close to the skin.
- This response is activated in **cold environments** to conserve heat, not in hot environments to dissipate it.
*Radiation*
- **Radiation** is heat transfer via electromagnetic waves without direct contact.
- Since the ambient temperature (48°C) is **higher than body surface temperature**, the body would **gain heat** by radiation, not lose it efficiently, from the surrounding environment.
Hypothalamic thermoregulation US Medical PG Question 9: An 18-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with a complaint of excessive daytime sleepiness. He denies any substance abuse or major changes in his sleep schedule. He reports frequently dozing off during his regular daily activities. On further review of systems, he endorses falling asleep frequently with the uncomfortable sensation that there is someone in the room, even though he is alone. He also describes that from time to time, he has transient episodes of slurred speech when experiencing heartfelt laughter. Vital signs are stable, and his physical exam is unremarkable. This patient is likely deficient in a neurotransmitter produced in which part of the brain?
- A. Hippocampus
- B. Midbrain
- C. Pons nucleus
- D. Hypothalamus (Correct Answer)
- E. Thalamus
Hypothalamic thermoregulation Explanation: ***Hypothalamus***
- The patient's symptoms of excessive daytime sleepiness, cataplexy (falling asleep with strong emotions like laughter), and hypnagogic hallucinations (sensing someone in the room upon falling asleep) are classic for **narcolepsy**.
- Narcolepsy type 1 is characterized by a significant loss of **orexin (hypocretin)** neurons, a neuropeptide primarily produced in the **lateral hypothalamus** (specifically the lateral and perifornical areas), which plays a crucial role in maintaining wakefulness.
*Hippocampus*
- The **hippocampus** is primarily involved in **memory formation** and spatial navigation.
- Deficiencies in neurotransmitters produced or acting in the hippocampus are typically associated with memory disorders, not narcolepsy.
*Midbrain*
- The **midbrain** contains nuclei involved in dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine pathways, which are critical for mood, reward, and sleep-wake regulation.
- While these neurotransmitters influence the sleep-wake cycle, the primary deficiency in narcolepsy type 1 is specifically orexin, which originates from the hypothalamus, not the midbrain.
*Pons nucleus*
- The **pons** is essential for regulating sleep stages, particularly **REM sleep**, and contains nuclei involved in breathing and motor control.
- While it contributes to sleep architecture, the core pathology of narcolepsy type 1, the loss of orexin-producing neurons, is located higher in the brain, in the hypothalamus.
*Thalamus*
- The **thalamus** acts as a crucial relay station for sensory and motor signals to the cerebral cortex and is involved in regulating consciousness and alertness.
- While it is involved in arousal regulation, it is not the primary site of orexin production, nor is a neurotransmitter deficiency directly from the thalamus the primary cause of narcolepsy.
Hypothalamic thermoregulation US Medical PG Question 10: An investigator is conducting a study on hematological factors that affect the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen. An illustration of two graphs (A and B) that represent the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen is shown. Which of the following best explains a shift from A to B?
- A. Decreased serum pCO2
- B. Increased serum pH
- C. Decreased serum 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate concentration
- D. Increased body temperature (Correct Answer)
- E. Increased hemoglobin γ-chain synthesis
Hypothalamic thermoregulation Explanation: ***Increased body temperature***
- A shift from A to B represents a **rightward shift** of the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve, indicating **decreased hemoglobin affinity for oxygen**.
- **Increased body temperature** (e.g., during exercise, fever) reduces hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen, facilitating **oxygen release to tissues**.
*Decreased serum pCO2*
- A **decrease in serum pCO2** leads to an **increase in pH** (alkalosis) and a **leftward shift** of the curve, meaning an increased affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen.
- This is part of the **Bohr effect**, where lower CO2 levels signal decreased tissue metabolic activity, thus reducing oxygen unloading.
*Increased serum pH*
- An **increase in serum pH** (alkalosis) causes a **leftward shift** of the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve, signifying **increased hemoglobin affinity for oxygen**.
- This response is beneficial in the lungs, where higher pH promotes oxygen binding to hemoglobin.
*Decreased serum 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate concentration*
- A **decrease in 2,3-BPG** concentration leads to a **leftward shift** of the curve, representing **increased hemoglobin affinity for oxygen**.
- 2,3-BPG typically binds to deoxyhemoglobin, stabilizing its T-state and promoting oxygen release; thus, less 2,3-BPG means less release.
*Increased hemoglobin γ-chain synthesis*
- Increased **hemoglobin γ-chain synthesis** is characteristic of **fetal hemoglobin (HbF)**, which has a **higher affinity for oxygen** than adult hemoglobin (HbA).
- This would result in a **leftward shift** of the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve, enhancing oxygen uptake by the fetus.
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