Age-related changes in thermoregulation US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice US Medical PG questions for Age-related changes in thermoregulation. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Age-related changes in thermoregulation US Medical PG Question 1: A 75-year-old woman presents with a sudden onset of weakness and difficulty walking. She also complains of nausea and palpitations. She was working in her garden about an hour ago when her problems started. The patient says she is feeling warm even though the emergency room is air-conditioned. Past medical history is significant for major depressive disorder (MDD), diagnosed 5 years ago, hypertension, and osteoporosis. Current medications are aspirin, lisinopril, alendronate, calcium, venlafaxine, and a vitamin D supplement. Her pulse is 110/min, respiratory rate is 22/min, and blood pressure is 160/100 mm Hg. Physical examination is unremarkable. A noncontrast CT scan of the head, electrocardiogram (ECG), and routine laboratory tests are all normal. Which of the following most likely accounts for this patient's condition?
- A. Aspirin overdose
- B. Missed dose of venlafaxine (Correct Answer)
- C. Dehydration due to physical activity
- D. Missed dose of lisinopril
- E. Ischemic stroke
Age-related changes in thermoregulation Explanation: ***Missed dose of venlafaxine***
- The patient's symptoms, including **weakness, difficulty walking, nausea, palpitations, and feeling warm**, are consistent with **venlafaxine withdrawal syndrome**.
- **Venlafaxine** is an SNRI with a short half-life; abrupt cessation or missed doses can rapidly lead to withdrawal symptoms like those described.
*Aspirin overdose*
- **Aspirin overdose** typically presents with symptoms such as **tinnitus, hyperventilation, metabolic acidosis**, and confusion.
- The patient's symptoms do not align with the classic presentation of aspirin toxicity, and laboratory results were normal.
*Dehydration due to physical activity*
- While gardening could lead to **dehydration**, symptoms usually include **thirst, dry mucous membranes, and orthostatic hypotension**.
- This patient exhibits **hypertension** and a **rapid pulse**, which are atypical for simple dehydration.
*Missed dose of lisinopril*
- Missing a dose of **lisinopril** (an ACE inhibitor) could lead to an **increase in blood pressure**, but it would not typically cause acute symptoms like nausea, palpitations, or the feeling of warmth.
- The patient's current blood pressure is elevated, but the constellation of other symptoms points away from this being the primary cause.
*Ischemic stroke*
- An **ischemic stroke** would typically present with **focal neurological deficits**, such as unilateral weakness or sensory changes.
- The patient's **CT scan of the head was normal**, and her symptoms are more systemic than focal, making a stroke less likely.
Age-related changes in thermoregulation US Medical PG Question 2: An 84-year-old man presents to the emergency department for a loss of consciousness. The patient states that he was using the bathroom when he lost consciousness and fell, hitting his head on the counter. The patient has a past medical history of diabetes, hypertension, obesity, factor V leiden, constipation, myocardial infarction, and vascular claudication. His current medications include lisinopril, atorvastatin, valproic acid, propranolol, insulin, metformin, and sodium docusate. The patient denies use of illicit substances. His temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), blood pressure is 167/98 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, respirations are 15/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam reveals an elderly man sitting comfortably in his stretcher. Cardiac exam reveals a systolic murmur heard at the right upper sternal border that radiates to the carotids. Pulmonary exam reveals mild bibasilar crackles. Neurological exam reveals 5/5 strength in his upper and lower extremities with normal sensation. The patient's gait is mildly unstable. The patient is unable to give a urine sample in the emergency department and states that he almost fainted again when he tried to. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Seizure
- B. Cardiac arrhythmia
- C. Postural hypotension
- D. Situational syncope (Correct Answer)
- E. Transient ischemic attack
Age-related changes in thermoregulation Explanation: ***Situational syncope***
- The patient's loss of consciousness while **straining during defecation** (using the bathroom) is highly suggestive of **situational syncope**, which is a type of **reflex syncope** triggered by specific actions.
- His complaint of almost fainting again when trying to provide a urine sample reinforces the diagnosis, as **micturition (urination) syncope** is another common form of situational syncope.
*Seizure*
- While a loss of consciousness occurred, the patient's presentation lacks typical features of a seizure such as a **postictal state**, tongue biting, or tonic-clonic movements.
- The trigger (straining) and the near-syncopal episode with micturition are inconsistent with a primary seizure disorder.
*Cardiac arrhythmia*
- Although the patient has a history of myocardial infarction and is on **propranolol** (a beta-blocker), there are no specific findings on physical exam or in the history to strongly suggest an arrhythmia as the cause of syncope.
- An arrhythmia-induced syncope typically doesn't have such a clear situational trigger like defecation or urination.
*Postural hypotension*
- Postural hypotension is characterized by a significant drop in blood pressure upon standing, leading to symptoms like dizziness or syncope.
- While the patient is on several medications that could contribute to hypotension (e.g., lisinopril, propranolol), the syncope was specifically associated with straining, not just standing up.
*Transient ischemic attack*
- A TIA involves **transient neurological deficits** such as weakness, sensory changes, or speech disturbances, which typically last minutes to hours.
- A transient loss of consciousness without focal neurological symptoms is not characteristic of a TIA.
Age-related changes in thermoregulation US Medical PG Question 3: A 70-year-old man with a history of Alzheimer dementia presents to the emergency department with a change in his behavior. The patient has been more confused recently and had a fever. Upon presentation, he is too confused to answer questions. His temperature is 103°F (39.4°C), blood pressure is 102/68 mmHg, pulse is 157/min, respirations are 22/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. The patient is given 3 liters of IV fluids and acetaminophen and his vitals improve. He is also less confused. The patient is asking where he is and becomes combative and strikes a nurse when he finds out he has to be admitted to the hospital. He is given diphenhydramine for sedation and put in soft restraints. His mental status subsequently worsens and he becomes much more aggressive, spitting at nurses and attempting to bite his restraints. He also complains of abdominal pain. A post void residual volume is notable for a urine volume of 750 mL. Which of the following is the etiology of this patient's recent mental status change?
- A. Diphenhydramine (Correct Answer)
- B. Lorazepam
- C. Haloperidol
- D. Acute infection
- E. Olanzapine
Age-related changes in thermoregulation Explanation: ***Diphenhydramine***
- This patient exhibited a **paradoxical reaction** (increased agitation and aggression) to diphenhydramine, which is an **anticholinergic** medication.
- Anticholinergic drugs can worsen confusion and agitation, especially in elderly patients or those with pre-existing **dementia**.
*Lorazepam*
- **Benzodiazepines** like lorazepam primarily work on **GABA receptors** to produce sedative and anxiolytic effects.
- While sometimes used for agitation, it typically causes sedation rather than increased aggression in the elderly; a paradoxical reaction is less common than with anticholinergics.
*Haloperidol*
- Haloperidol is a **first-generation antipsychotic** used to treat acute agitation and psychosis, primarily by blocking **dopamine D2 receptors**.
- Its typical effect would be to decrease agitation and aggression, not worsen mental status in this manner.
*Acute infection*
- The patient initially presented with signs of an acute infection (fever, increased confusion), which improved after initial treatment with IV fluids and acetaminophen, indicating the initial symptoms were likely due to infection.
- The subsequent worsening after diphenhydramine points to a new etiology for the mental status change, rather than a resurgence of the infection.
*Olanzapine*
- Olanzapine is a **second-generation antipsychotic** that blocks serotonin and dopamine receptors, often used for acute agitation.
- Like haloperidol, it would be expected to reduce agitation and aggression, not exacerbate it, and was not administered to the patient according to the vignette.
Age-related changes in thermoregulation US Medical PG Question 4: A 39-year-old female presents to the clinic with the complaints of dry skin for a few months. She adds that she also has constipation for which she started eating vegetables and fruits but with no improvement. She lives with her husband and children who often complain when she turns the air conditioning to high as she cannot tolerate low temperatures. She has gained 5 kgs (11.2 lb) since her last visit 2 months back although her diet has not changed much. Her past medical history is relevant for cardiac arrhythmias and diabetes. She is on several medications currently. Her temperature is 98.6° F (37° C), respirations are 15/min, pulse is 57/min and blood pressure is 132/98 mm Hg. A physical examination is within normal limits. Thyroid function test results are given below:
Serum
TSH: 13.0 μU/mL
Thyroxine (T4): 3.0 μg/dL
Triiodothyronine (T3): 100 ng/dL
Which of the following medications is most likely to be responsible for her symptoms?
- A. Amiodarone (Correct Answer)
- B. Digoxin
- C. Metformin
- D. Theophylline
- E. Warfarin
Age-related changes in thermoregulation Explanation: ***Amiodarone***
- Amiodarone is a known cause of both **hypothyroidism** and **hyperthyroidism** due to its iodine content and direct toxic effects on the thyroid gland. The patient's symptoms (dry skin, constipation, **cold intolerance**, **weight gain**, bradycardia) and thyroid function tests (high TSH, low T4, low T3) are highly consistent with drug-induced hypothyroidism.
- The patient's history of **cardiac arrhythmias** makes amiodarone a plausible medication she would be taking, as it is a common antiarrhythmic drug.
*Digoxin*
- Digoxin is primarily used to treat **heart failure** and certain arrhythmias, but it does not typically cause thyroid dysfunction.
- Its common side effects include gastrointestinal upset, visual disturbances, and various arrhythmias, which do not align with the patient's predominant symptoms of hypothyroidism.
*Metformin*
- Metformin is an oral hypoglycemic agent used to treat **Type 2 diabetes**, a condition the patient also has.
- It does not have substantial effects on thyroid hormone synthesis or metabolism and is not associated with hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism.
*Theophylline*
- Theophylline is a bronchodilator used in the treatment of **asthma** and **COPD**.
- It is not known to cause thyroid dysfunction, and its side effects mainly involve the central nervous system, gastrointestinal tract, and cardiovascular system.
*Warfarin*
- Warfarin is an **anticoagulant** prescribed to prevent blood clots.
- It has no direct known interaction with thyroid hormone synthesis or metabolism and is not associated with thyroid dysfunction.
Age-related changes in thermoregulation US Medical PG Question 5: An infant boy of unknown age and medical history is dropped off in the emergency department. The infant appears lethargic and has a large protruding tongue. Although the infant exhibits signs of neglect, he is in no apparent distress. The heart rate is 70/min, the respiratory rate is 30/min, and the temperature is 35.7°C (96.2°F). Which of the following is the most likely cause of the patient’s physical exam findings?
- A. Autosomal dominant mutation in the SERPING1 gene
- B. Genetic imprinting disorder affecting chromosome 11p15.5
- C. Type I hypersensitivity reaction
- D. Excess growth hormone secondary to pituitary gland tumor
- E. Congenital agenesis of an endocrine gland in the anterior neck (Correct Answer)
Age-related changes in thermoregulation Explanation: ***Congenital agenesis of an endocrine gland in the anterior neck***
- This description is highly suggestive of **congenital hypothyroidism**, caused by **thyroid dysgenesis** (agenesis or hypoplasia of the thyroid gland).
- Symptoms include **lethargy**, **macroglossia** (large protruding tongue), **hypotonia**, **feeding difficulties**, **umbilical hernia**, and **hypothermia**, all consistent with the clinical picture.
*Autosomal dominant mutation in the SERPING1 gene*
- A mutation in the **SERPING1 gene** causes **hereditary angioedema**, characterized by recurrent episodes of unpredictable swelling in various body parts.
- While swelling can affect the tongue, it is typically episodic, painful, and often triggered, which is not suggested by the chronic lethargy and physical signs described.
*Genetic imprinting disorder affecting chromosome 11p15.5*
- This describes **Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome**, an overgrowth disorder caused by imprinting defects involving genes like **IGF2**, **H19**, and **CDKN1C** on chromosome 11p15.5.
- Features include **macroglossia**, **macrosomia**, **umbilical hernia**, **hemihyperplasia**, and increased risk of embryonal tumors like **Wilms tumor**.
- However, Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome does not typically present with profound **lethargy** and **hypothermia** as seen in congenital hypothyroidism.
*Type I hypersensitivity reaction*
- A **Type I hypersensitivity reaction** (e.g., anaphylaxis) could cause acute **angioedema** of the tongue, but this would be an acute, rapidly progressing, and life-threatening event.
- The infant's description of being "in no apparent distress" and exhibiting chronic signs like lethargy and hypothermia makes an acute allergic reaction unlikely.
*Excess growth hormone secondary to pituitary gland tumor*
- **Excess growth hormone** (gigantism in children, acromegaly in adults) can cause **macroglossia** and coarse facial features in the long term.
- However, it does not explain the associated **lethargia**, **hypothermia**, and profound developmental delay seen in congenital hypothyroidism in an infant.
Age-related changes in thermoregulation US Medical PG Question 6: A 33-year-old man presents to the emergency department acutely confused. The patient was found down at a local construction site by his coworkers. The patient has a past medical history of a seizure disorder and schizophrenia and is currently taking haloperidol. He had recent surgery 2 months ago to remove an inflamed appendix. His temperature is 105°F (40.6°C), blood pressure is 120/84 mmHg, pulse is 150/min, respirations are 19/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Physical exam is notable for a confused man who cannot answer questions. His clothes are drenched in sweat. He is not making purposeful movements with his extremities although no focal neurological deficits are clearly apparent. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Heat exhaustion
- B. Nonexertional heat stroke
- C. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
- D. Malignant hyperthermia
- E. Exertional heat stroke (Correct Answer)
Age-related changes in thermoregulation Explanation: ***Exertional heat stroke***
- This diagnosis is supported by the patient's presentation of **hyperthermia** (105°F), **tachycardia**, **confusion**, and a history of working at a **construction site** (suggesting physical exertion in a hot environment).
- The patient's **drenched clothes from sweat** indicate the body's initial attempt to cool down, but the extremely high core temperature and confusion signify a failure of thermoregulation.
*Heat exhaustion*
- While heat exhaustion also involves **sweating** and can present with elevated body temperature, the core temperature is typically **below 104°F (40°C)**, and **marked altered mental status** (like severe confusion) is less common or less severe.
- The patient's temperature of 105°F (40.6°C) and profound confusion are more indicative of heat stroke.
*Nonexertional heat stroke*
- Nonexertional (or classic) heat stroke usually affects populations with **compromised thermoregulation** (e.g., elderly, very young, chronically ill) who are exposed to high environmental temperatures **without significant physical exertion**.
- The patient's age (33) and history of working at a construction site make exertional heat stroke more likely than nonexertional.
*Neuroleptic malignant syndrome*
- NMS is characterized by **fever, muscle rigidity** (often "lead pipe" rigidity), **altered mental status**, and **autonomic instability** (including tachycardia and diaphoresis), and is associated with **antipsychotic medications** like haloperidol.
- However, NMS typically develops **gradually over days to weeks**, not acutely. The key differentiator here is the **clear environmental and exertional context** (construction site work), **acute onset** after being found down, and the **absence of characteristic muscle rigidity** that would be prominent in NMS.
- Heat stroke is more probable given the immediate occupational exposure and clinical timeline.
*Malignant hyperthermia*
- Malignant hyperthermia is a rare, life-threatening condition associated with exposure to certain **anesthetic agents** (e.g., succinylcholine, volatile anesthetics) or, less commonly, severe exertion in susceptible individuals.
- The patient's recent surgery was two months prior, and there is no mention of current exposure to triggers, making it unlikely to be the immediate cause of his acute presentation.
Age-related changes in thermoregulation US Medical PG Question 7: A previously healthy 44-year-old man is brought by his coworkers to the emergency department 45 minutes after he became light-headed and collapsed while working in the boiler room of a factory. He did not lose consciousness. His coworkers report that 30 minutes prior to collapsing, he told them he was nauseous and had a headache. The patient appears sweaty and lethargic. He is not oriented to time, place, or person. The patient’s vital signs are as follows: temperature 41°C (105.8°F); heart rate 133/min; respiratory rate 22/min; and blood pressure 90/52 mm Hg. Examination shows equal and reactive pupils. Deep tendon reflexes are 2+ bilaterally. His neck is supple. A 0.9% saline infusion is administered. A urinary catheter is inserted and dark brown urine is collected. The patient’s laboratory test results are as follows:
Laboratory test
Blood
Hemoglobin 15 g/dL
Leukocyte count 18,000/mm3
Platelet count 51,000/mm3
Serum
Na+ 149 mEq/L
K+ 5.0 mEq/L
Cl- 98 mEq/L
Urea nitrogen 42 mg/dL
Glucose 88 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.8 mg/dL
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST, GOT) 210
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT, GPT) 250
Creatine kinase 86,000 U/mL
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in patient management?
- A. Dantrolene
- B. Acetaminophen therapy
- C. Hemodialysis
- D. Ice water immersion (Correct Answer)
- E. Evaporative cooling
Age-related changes in thermoregulation Explanation: ***Ice water immersion***
- This patient presents with signs and symptoms consistent with **heat stroke**, including high body temperature (41°C), altered mental status, and a history of working in a hot environment (boiler room). **Rapid aggressive cooling** is the most critical immediate intervention to prevent organ damage.
- **Ice water immersion** is the fastest and most effective cooling method for heat stroke, aiming to reduce core body temperature to less than 39°C (102.2°F) within 30 minutes.
*Dantrolene*
- **Dantrolene** is primarily used to treat **malignant hyperthermia** and **neuroleptic malignant syndrome**, conditions caused by abnormal calcium release in muscle cells, not environmental heat exposure.
- While both conditions involve hyperthermia, the underlying pathophysiology and triggers are different from heat stroke.
*Acetaminophen therapy*
- **Acetaminophen** is an antipyretic that works by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis in the central nervous system, affecting the hypothalamic thermoregulatory center.
- It is **ineffective** for the hyperthermia seen in heat stroke, which is due to a failure of thermoregulation rather than an altered hypothalamic set point, and could potentially worsen liver injury.
*Hemodialysis*
- **Hemodialysis** is indicated for severe **renal failure**, drug overdose, or certain electrolyte imbalances. Although this patient has acute kidney injury (elevated BUN and creatinine, dark urine suggestive of rhabdomyolysis), aggressive cooling is the immediate life-saving intervention for heat stroke.
- While renal support might be necessary later if kidney injury progresses, it is not the most appropriate *initial* next step for hyperthermia and altered mental status.
*Evaporative cooling*
- **Evaporative cooling** (e.g., spraying with lukewarm water and using fans) is a cooling method that can be effective, particularly in environments with low humidity.
- However, for severe heat stroke with a temperature as high as 41°C, **ice water immersion** provides a more rapid and aggressive temperature reduction, which is crucial for improving outcomes.
Age-related changes in thermoregulation US Medical PG Question 8: A group of investigators is studying thermoregulatory adaptations of the human body. A subject is seated in a thermally insulated isolation chamber with an internal temperature of 48°C (118°F), a pressure of 1 atmosphere, and a relative humidity of 10%. Which of the following is the primary mechanism of heat loss in this subject?
- A. Convection
- B. Evaporation (Correct Answer)
- C. Conduction
- D. Piloerection
- E. Radiation
Age-related changes in thermoregulation Explanation: ***Evaporation***
- In an environment where the ambient temperature (48°C) is **higher than body temperature**, heat gain by convection, conduction, and radiation occurs. Therefore, **evaporation** of sweat is the only significant mechanism for heat loss.
- The relatively low humidity (10%) at this high temperature facilitates efficient sweat **evaporation**, which cools the body as it converts liquid sweat into water vapor.
*Convection*
- **Convection** involves heat transfer through the movement of air or fluid over the body surface.
- Since the ambient temperature (48°C) is significantly **above body temperature**, the body would gain heat via convection, not lose it.
*Conduction*
- **Conduction** is direct heat transfer between objects in contact.
- As the ambient temperature (48°C) is much **higher than the skin temperature**, the body would actually **gain heat** through conduction from any surfaces it touched if they were at ambient temperature.
*Piloerection*
- **Piloerection** (goosebumps) is a mechanism for minimizing heat loss by trapping a layer of warm air close to the skin.
- This response is activated in **cold environments** to conserve heat, not in hot environments to dissipate it.
*Radiation*
- **Radiation** is heat transfer via electromagnetic waves without direct contact.
- Since the ambient temperature (48°C) is **higher than body surface temperature**, the body would **gain heat** by radiation, not lose it efficiently, from the surrounding environment.
Age-related changes in thermoregulation US Medical PG Question 9: A 45-year-old man presents to the physician with complaints of burning pain in both feet and lower legs for 3 months. He reports that the pain is especially severe at night. He has a history of diabetes mellitus for the past 5 years, and he frequently skips his oral antidiabetic medications. His temperature is 36.9°C (98.4°F), heart rate is 80/min, respiratory rate is 15/min, and blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg. His weight is 70 kg (154.3 lb) and height is 165 cm (approx. 5 ft 5 in). The neurologic examination reveals loss of sensations of pain and temperature over the dorsal and ventral sides of the feet and over the distal one-third of both legs. Proprioception is normal; knee jerks and ankle reflexes are also normal. The tone and strength in all muscles are normal. The hemoglobin A1C is 7.8%. Involvement of what type of nerve fibers is the most likely cause of the patient’s symptoms?
- A. Aδ & C fibers (Correct Answer)
- B. Aα & Aβ fibers
- C. Aγ & B fibers
- D. Aγ & C fibers
- E. Aβ & Aγ fibers
Age-related changes in thermoregulation Explanation: ***Aδ & C fibers***
- The patient's symptoms of **burning pain** and loss of **pain and temperature sensations** are characteristic of small fiber neuropathy, which primarily involves **Aδ and C fibers**.
- These are **unmyelinated or thinly myelinated** fibers responsible for transmitting pain (nociception) and thermal sensations, and they are frequently affected in **diabetic neuropathy**.
*Aα & Aβ fibers*
- **Aα fibers** are large, myelinated fibers involved in **proprioception** and motor function; **Aβ fibers** transmit touch and pressure sensations.
- The patient's **normal proprioception** and motor strength indicate that these fibers are largely spared.
*Aγ & B fibers*
- **Aγ fibers** innervate muscle spindles and are involved in **motor control** and stretch reflexes.
- **B fibers** are preganglionic autonomic fibers; neither is directly responsible for pain and temperature sensation.
*Aγ & C fibers*
- While **C fibers** are involved in pain and temperature, **Aγ fibers** are primarily motor, controlling muscle spindle sensitivity.
- The combination does not accurately represent the sensory deficits observed in this patient.
*Aβ & Aγ fibers*
- **Aβ fibers** are involved in touch and pressure, and **Aγ fibers** are motor.
- The patient's primary complaint is burning pain and loss of temperature sensation, not deficits related to these fiber types.
Age-related changes in thermoregulation US Medical PG Question 10: A 42-year-old man undergoes therapeutic hypothermia (target temperature 33°C/91.4°F) following cardiac arrest with return of spontaneous circulation. During the cooling phase, he develops shivering, which increases oxygen consumption and interferes with target temperature achievement. He is already on sedation and neuromuscular blockade is being considered. Evaluate the most appropriate management strategy considering both efficacy and safety.
- A. Administer meperidine alone to reduce shivering threshold
- B. Increase sedation and add surface counter-warming of extremities before neuromuscular blockade (Correct Answer)
- C. Abandon therapeutic hypothermia due to complications
- D. Use only mechanical restraints to prevent movement
- E. Immediate neuromuscular blockade without additional measures
Age-related changes in thermoregulation Explanation: ***Increase sedation and add surface counter-warming of extremities before neuromuscular blockade***
- A **stepwise approach** to shivering is preferred; increasing **sedation** and using **surface counter-warming** reduces the shivering threshold by tricking the hypothalamus into sensing a warmer periphery.
- This strategy minimizes the need for **neuromuscular blockade**, which can mask seizures and prevent accurate **neurological assessment**.
*Administer meperidine alone to reduce shivering threshold*
- While **meperidine** is an effective anti-shivering agent that lowers the shivering threshold, using it **alone** is often insufficient to control vigorous shivering during induction.
- Reliance on a single pharmacologic agent ignores the **multimodal therapy** benefits of physical measures like skin warming and optimized sedation.
*Abandon therapeutic hypothermia due to complications*
- Shivering is a predictable physiological response, not a reason to abandon **Targeted Temperature Management (TTM)**, which provides significant **neuroprotection** post-cardiac arrest.
- Stopping the therapy would deprive the patient of the benefit of reduced **cerebral metabolic rate** and improved survival outcomes.
*Use only mechanical restraints to prevent movement*
- Mechanical restraints are ineffective against the **metabolic consequences** of shivering, such as increased **oxygen consumption** and CO2 production.
- Shivering is a thermoregulatory reflex, and physical restraint does not stop the underlying **thermogenesis** or metabolic demand.
*Immediate neuromuscular blockade without additional measures*
- **Neuromuscular blockade** should be a last resort as it carries risks of **prolonged muscle weakness** and obscures the patient's clinical neurological status.
- It treats the muscular manifestation but lacks the **sedative or analgesic** properties needed to comfort the patient during the cooling process.
More Age-related changes in thermoregulation US Medical PG questions available in the OnCourse app. Practice MCQs, flashcards, and get detailed explanations.