Chamber enlargement patterns US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice US Medical PG questions for Chamber enlargement patterns. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Chamber enlargement patterns US Medical PG Question 1: A 23-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of palpitations, dizziness, and substernal chest pain for three hours. The day prior, he was at a friend’s wedding, where he consumed seven glasses of wine. The patient appears diaphoretic. His pulse is 220/min and blood pressure is 120/84 mm Hg. Based on the patient's findings on electrocardiography, the physician diagnoses atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response and administers verapamil for rate control. Ten minutes later, the patient is unresponsive and loses consciousness. Despite resuscitative efforts, the patient dies. Histopathologic examination of the heart at autopsy shows an accessory atrioventricular conduction pathway. Electrocardiography prior to the onset of this patient's symptoms would most likely have shown which of the following findings?
- A. Epsilon wave following the QRS complex
- B. Prolongation of the QT interval
- C. Cyclic alteration of the QRS axis
- D. Slurred upstroke of the QRS complex (Correct Answer)
- E. Positive Sokolow-Lyon index
Chamber enlargement patterns Explanation: ***Slurred upstroke of the QRS complex***
- The patient's presentation with **atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response** and subsequent collapse after verapamil administration—a calcium channel blocker—is classic for a pre-excitation syndrome like **Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome**.
- In WPW, an accessory pathway (bundle of Kent) bypasses the AV node, leading to a **short PR interval** and a **delta wave** (slurred upstroke of the QRS complex) on ECG during normal sinus rhythm.
*Epsilon wave following the QRS complex*
- An **epsilon wave** is characteristic of **arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy (ARVC)**, representing delayed depolarization of the right ventricle.
- While ARVC can cause arrhythmias, it is distinctly different from the pre-excitation syndrome described, which involves an accessory pathway.
*Prolongation of the QT interval*
- **Prolonged QT interval** is associated with an increased risk of **torsades de pointes**, a polymorphic ventricular tachycardia.
- This finding is typical of **long QT syndrome** and does not directly relate to an accessory atrioventricular conduction pathway.
*Cyclic alteration of the QRS axis*
- **Cyclic alteration of the QRS axis** or electrical alternans is seen in conditions causing swings in cardiac position, most notably **pericardial effusion with tamponade**.
- This ECG finding is unrelated to accessory pathways or the mechanisms of pre-excitation syndromes.
*Positive Sokolow-Lyon index*
- A **positive Sokolow-Lyon index** signifies **left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH)**, characterized by large QRS voltages (e.g., SV1 + RV5/V6 ≥ 35 mm).
- While LVH can be associated with various cardiac conditions, it is not a direct ECG manifestation of an accessory atrioventricular conduction pathway.
Chamber enlargement patterns US Medical PG Question 2: The medical student on the pediatric cardiology team is examining a 9-year-old girl who was referred by her primary care physician for unexplained hypertension. She is accompanied by her mother who reveals that the child is generally well but has been significantly less active than her peers for the past year. On exam, the medical student notes a thin girl in no apparent distress appearing slightly younger than stated age. Vital signs reveal a BP is 160/80, HR 80, RR 16. Physical exam is notable only for a clicking sound is noted around the time of systole but otherwise the cardiac exam is normal. Pedal pulses could not be palpated. Which of the following physical exam findings was most likely missed by both the medical student and primary care physician?
- A. Long philtrum
- B. Prominent occiput
- C. Webbed neck (Correct Answer)
- D. Cleft palate
- E. Single palmar crease
Chamber enlargement patterns Explanation: ***Webbed neck***
- The combination of **hypertension** with **unpalpable pedal pulses** and a **systolic click** in a pediatric patient strongly suggests **coarctation of the aorta**.
- **Webbed neck** (or **pterygium colli**) is a classic phenotypic feature associated with **Turner syndrome**, which frequently co-occurs with coarctation of the aorta.
*Long philtrum*
- A **long philtrum** is a craniofacial feature sometimes associated with certain genetic syndromes like **fetal alcohol syndrome** or **Marfan syndrome**, but it is not specifically linked to coarctation of the aorta or Turner syndrome.
- While these syndromes can have cardiovascular manifestations, a long philtrum does not directly point to the specific findings presented.
*Prominent occiput*
- A **prominent occiput** is a non-specific finding that can be seen in various conditions, including some **chromosomal abnormalities** or **skeletal dysplasias**.
- It is not a characteristic feature of **Turner syndrome** or **coarctation of the aorta**.
*Cleft palate*
- **Cleft palate** is a birth defect affecting the roof of the mouth, often associated with a wide range of genetic or environmental factors.
- While patients with cleft palate can have associated congenital heart defects, it is not a direct or common association with **Turner syndrome** or **coarctation of the aorta**.
*Single palmar crease*
- A **single palmar crease** (simian crease) is a dermatoglyphic feature often associated with **Down syndrome** (Trisomy 21).
- While Down syndrome is associated with various congenital heart defects (e.g., AV septal defect), it is not typically associated with **coarctation of the aorta** or **Turner syndrome**.
Chamber enlargement patterns US Medical PG Question 3: A 56-year-old man comes to the physician for a 5-month history of progressive bilateral ankle swelling and shortness of breath on exertion. He can no longer walk up the stairs to his bedroom without taking a break. He also constantly feels tired during the day. His wife reports that he snores at night and that he sometimes chokes in his sleep. The patient has smoked 1 pack of cigarettes daily for 25 years. He has a history of hypertension treated with enalapril. His pulse is 72/min, respirations are 16/min, and blood pressure is 145/95 mmHg. There is jugular venous distention. The lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. The extremities are warm and well perfused. There is 2+ lower extremity edema bilaterally. ECG shows right axis deviation. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's condition?
- A. Alveolar destruction
- B. Ischemic heart disease
- C. Left ventricular hypertrophy
- D. Chronic hypoxia (Correct Answer)
- E. Chronic kidney damage
Chamber enlargement patterns Explanation: ***Chronic hypoxia***
- The patient's history of **heavy smoking**, snoring with choking episodes suggestive of **sleep apnea**, and symptoms of **right-sided heart failure** (bilateral ankle swelling, JVD, right axis deviation on ECG) point to chronic hypoxia as the underlying cause.
- **Chronic hypoxia** leads to **pulmonary vasoconstriction** and subsequent pulmonary hypertension, which eventually causes **right ventricular hypertrophy** and failure (cor pulmonale).
*Alveolar destruction*
- While **alveolar destruction** (emphysema) can lead to hypoxia in smokers, the normal auscultation of the lungs makes this less likely to be the primary cause of his symptoms, although it could contribute.
- The **ECG showing right axis deviation** more strongly suggests a primary pulmonary vascular issue or sustained right ventricular strain rather than solely alveolar destruction.
*Ischemic heart disease*
- Although the patient has risk factors for **ischemic heart disease** (smoking, hypertension), his symptoms and signs (bilateral ankle swelling, JVD, right axis deviation, clear lungs) are more consistent with isolated **right-sided heart failure** due to a pulmonary issue, not acute or chronic ischemia.
- **Left-sided heart failure** due to ischemic heart disease would typically present with pulmonary congestion (crackles, dyspnea) before isolated right-sided symptoms appear.
*Left ventricular hypertrophy*
- **Left ventricular hypertrophy** (LVH) is often seen in hypertension, but the patient's presentation of **right-sided heart failure** symptoms (JVD, edema, right axis deviation) with clear lungs does not directly point to LVH as the primary cause of his current condition.
- While his hypertension could lead to LVH, the symptoms described are more consistent with **pulmonary hypertension** and cor pulmonale.
*Chronic kidney damage*
- **Chronic kidney damage** would explain the bilateral ankle swelling, but it would typically be associated with other signs like elevated creatinine, uremia, or proteinuria, which are not mentioned.
- It would also not explain the **shortness of breath on exertion**, **snoring with choking**, or the **right axis deviation** on ECG, which directly points to a cardiac or pulmonary issue.
Chamber enlargement patterns US Medical PG Question 4: A 27-year-old woman with a history of a "heart murmur since childhood" presents following a series of syncopal episodes over the past several months. She also complains of worsening fatigue over this time period, and notes that her lips have begun to take on a bluish tinge, for which she has been using a brighter shade of lipstick. You do a careful examination, and detect a right ventricular heave, clubbing of the fingers, and 2+ pitting edema bilaterally to the shins. Despite your patient insisting that every doctor she has ever seen has commented on her murmur, you do not hear one. Transthoracic echocardiography would most likely detect which of the following?
- A. Mitral insufficiency
- B. Aortic stenosis
- C. Dynamic left ventricular outflow tract obstruction
- D. Positive bubble study (Correct Answer)
- E. Ventricular aneurysm
Chamber enlargement patterns Explanation: ***Positive bubble study***
- The patient's symptoms, including **cyanosis** (**bluish tinge to the lips**), **clubbing**, and **right ventricular heave**, suggest **Eisenmenger syndrome**, a late complication of a **left-to-right shunt** that has reversed due to pulmonary hypertension.
- A positive bubble study on echocardiography would confirm the presence of a **right-to-left shunt**, characteristic of Eisenmenger syndrome, by showing microbubbles crossing from the right to the left side of the heart.
*Mitral insufficiency*
- While mitral insufficiency can cause a murmur and heart failure symptoms, it does not typically lead to the **cyanosis** and **clubbing** described.
- The absence of a murmur, despite a history of one, points away from a significant current insufficiency.
*Aortic stenosis*
- Aortic stenosis is characterized by an **ejection systolic murmur** that would likely be heard on examination, contradicting the scenario where no murmur is audible.
- It usually presents with a different constellation of symptoms, such as angina, syncope, and heart failure, without the prominent cyanosis or clubbing seen here.
*Dynamic left ventricular outflow tract obstruction*
- This is characteristic of **hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM)**, which can cause exertional syncope.
- However, HOCM does not typically lead to **cyanosis**, a **right ventricular heave**, or **clubbing**, which are strong indicators of a right-to-left shunt.
*Ventricular aneurysm*
- A ventricular aneurysm is a bulging of the ventricular wall, often a complication of a **myocardial infarction**, which is unlikely in a 27-year-old with a history of a "heart murmur since childhood."
- It typically presents with symptoms related to heart failure, arrhythmias, or embolism, and would not explain the prominent **cyanosis** and **clubbing**.
Chamber enlargement patterns US Medical PG Question 5: A 72-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 2-month history of intermittent retrosternal chest pain and tightness on exertion. He has type 2 diabetes mellitus, osteoarthritis of the right hip, and hypertension. Current medications include insulin, ibuprofen, enalapril, and hydrochlorothiazide. Vital signs are within normal limits. His troponin level is within the reference range. An ECG at rest shows a right bundle branch block and infrequent premature ventricular contractions. The patient's symptoms are reproduced during adenosine stress testing. Repeat ECG during stress testing shows new ST depression of > 1 mm in leads V2, V3, and V4. Which of the following is the most important underlying mechanism of this patient's ECG changes?
- A. Diversion of blood flow from stenotic coronary arteries (Correct Answer)
- B. Transient atrioventricular nodal blockade
- C. Reduced left ventricular preload
- D. Ruptured cholesterol plaque within a coronary vessel
- E. Increased myocardial oxygen demand
Chamber enlargement patterns Explanation: ***Diversion of blood flow from stenotic coronary arteries***
- The **adenosine stress test** induces **submaximal coronary vasodilation** in healthy vessels, diverting blood flow away from stenosed areas that are already maximally dilated, a phenomenon known as **coronary steal**.
- This **relative hypoperfusion** in areas supplied by stenotic arteries leads to myocardial ischemia, manifested as **new ST depression** on the ECG due to **subendocardial oxygen supply-demand mismatch**.
*Transient atrioventricular nodal blockade*
- While adenosine can cause transient AV nodal blockade, leading to AV blocks, this would manifest as specific changes in **PR interval** or **QRS drop-out**, not ST segment depression indicative of ischemia.
- The patient's symptoms and ECG changes point towards myocardial ischemia, not an AV conduction disturbance.
*Reduced left ventricular preload*
- Reduced preload can occur in certain cardiac conditions but is not the primary mechanism behind ST depression during an adenosine stress test.
- ECG changes due to reduced preload are usually nonspecific, such as **sinus tachycardia** or **low voltage**, and do not typically cause new ST depression in specific leads.
*Ruptured cholesterol plaque within a coronary vessel*
- A ruptured plaque with subsequent **thrombus formation** would lead to **acute coronary syndrome (ACS)**, characterized by persistent chest pain, **elevated troponins**, and potentially **ST elevation** or new **pathologic Q waves** if complete occlusion occurs.
- The patient's troponin level is normal, and his symptoms are intermittent and reproducible on stress testing, which is more consistent with **stable angina**.
*Increased myocardial oxygen demand*
- While increased myocardial oxygen demand is a component of angina pectoris, adenosine primarily causes **coronary vasodilation**, which can worsen ischemia in stenotic areas by diverting blood flow, rather than directly increasing myocardial oxygen demand itself.
- **Dobutamine stress testing** would be the test that primarily increases myocardial oxygen demand.
Chamber enlargement patterns US Medical PG Question 6: A 41-year-old woman presents to the emergency room with chest pain. She has had progressive substernal chest pain accompanied by weakness and mild shortness of breath for the past 2 hours. Her past medical history is notable for poorly controlled systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), Sjogren syndrome, and interstitial lung disease. She was hospitalized last year with pericarditis presumed to be from SLE. Her temperature is 98.6°F (37°C), blood pressure is 106/56 mmHg, pulse is 132/min, and respirations are 26/min. On exam, the skin overlying the internal jugular vein fills at 9 cm above the sternal angle and distant heart sounds are appreciated. There is no friction rub. She is given 1000cc of intravenous fluids with no appreciable change in her blood pressure. An electrocardiogram in this patient would most likely reveal which of the following findings?
- A. Polymorphic P waves
- B. ST elevations in leads II, III, and aVF
- C. Peaked T waves
- D. Wide QRS complexes with no P waves
- E. Electrical alternans (Correct Answer)
Chamber enlargement patterns Explanation: ***Electrical alternans***
- The patient's symptoms (chest pain, shortness of breath, **hypotension**, **tachycardia**, **elevated JVP**, and **distant heart sounds**) in the context of a history of **pericarditis** and **SLE** are highly suggestive of **cardiac tamponade.**
- **Electrical alternans**, characterized by alternating QRS complex heights due to the swinging motion of the heart in a large pericardial effusion, is a classic EKG finding for cardiac tamponade.
- This finding reflects the mechanical swinging of the heart within the pericardial fluid, causing beat-to-beat variation in QRS amplitude.
*Polymorphic P waves*
- **Polymorphic P waves** (multifocal atrial tachycardia) occur when there are at least three different P wave morphologies on the EKG, indicating multiple ectopic atrial foci.
- This is typically seen in patients with severe lung disease or other conditions causing increased atrial stretch, but it is not a direct consequence or typical finding of cardiac tamponade.
*ST elevations in leads II, III, and aVF*
- **ST elevations in leads II, III, and aVF** indicate an **inferior myocardial infarction**, which is caused by coronary artery occlusion.
- While chest pain is present, the patient's other signs (elevated JVP, distant heart sounds, hypotension not responding to fluids, history of pericarditis/SLE) point away from an acute MI and strongly towards cardiac tamponade.
*Peaked T waves*
- **Peaked T waves** are characteristic of **hyperkalemia**, a condition of excessively high potassium levels in the blood.
- While hyperkalemia can cause cardiac symptoms, it does not typically present with the specific hemodynamic compromise and physical exam findings (elevated JVP, distant heart sounds) described, which are classic for cardiac tamponade.
*Wide QRS complexes with no P waves*
- **Wide QRS complexes with no P waves** are characteristic of a **ventricular arrhythmia**, such as ventricular tachycardia or idioventricular rhythm.
- While the patient is hypotensive and tachycardic, the presenting symptoms and physical exam findings are not directly indicative of a primary ventricular arrhythmia, but rather suggest an extracardiac compression of the heart due to tamponade.
Chamber enlargement patterns US Medical PG Question 7: A 64-year-old man presents to his primary care physician for follow-up of a severe, unrelenting, productive cough of 2 years duration. The medical history includes type 2 diabetes mellitus, which is well-controlled with insulin. He has a 25-pack-year smoking history and is an active smoker. The blood pressure is 135/88 mm Hg, the pulse is 94/min, the temperature is 36.9°C (98.5°F), and the respiratory rate is 18/min. Bilateral wheezes and crackles are heard on auscultation. A chest X-ray reveals cardiomegaly, increased lung markings, and a flattened diaphragm. Which of the following is most likely in this patient?
- A. Increased pH of the arterial blood
- B. Increased cerebral vascular resistance
- C. Increased pulmonary arterial resistance (Correct Answer)
- D. Decreased carbon dioxide content of the arterial blood
- E. Increased right ventricle compliance
Chamber enlargement patterns Explanation: ***Increased pulmonary arterial resistance***
- This patient's long-standing **smoking history**, chronic productive cough, **wheezes**, and **crackles** suggest **Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)**, likely including chronic bronchitis and emphysema.
- **COPD** often leads to **hypoxia**, causing **pulmonary vasoconstriction** and subsequent increase in **pulmonary arterial resistance**, eventually leading to **pulmonary hypertension** and **cor pulmonale** (right-sided heart failure).
*Increased pH of the arterial blood*
- Patients with severe COPD and chronic respiratory insufficiency often develop **chronic hypercapnia** (increased **PaCO2**), leading to **respiratory acidosis** and a tendency towards a **decreased pH** or a normal pH with compensation.
- An **increased pH** (alkalosis) would be less likely in the context of chronic ventilatory compromise.
*Increased cerebral vascular resistance*
- In chronic hypercapnia and hypoxia, **cerebral blood vessels** typically **dilate** to maintain cerebral perfusion, leading to **decreased cerebral vascular resistance**, not increased.
- This vasodilation can contribute to symptoms like headaches and altered mental status in severe cases.
*Decreased carbon dioxide content of the arterial blood*
- Patients with chronic obstructive lung disease often have impaired gas exchange, leading to **CO2 retention** (**hypercapnia**).
- Therefore, the **arterial carbon dioxide content** would typically be **increased**, not decreased.
*Increased right ventricle compliance*
- In the setting of chronic **pulmonary hypertension**, the right ventricle is subjected to increased pressure overload, leading to **ventricular hypertrophy** and eventually **decreased compliance** and **ventricular dysfunction**.
- **Increased compliance** (meaning the ventricle stretches more easily) is contrary to the expected response in chronic pressure overload.
Chamber enlargement patterns US Medical PG Question 8: An investigator develops a new drug that decreases the number of voltage-gated potassium channels in cardiac muscle cell membranes. Which of the following is the most likely effect of this drug on the myocardial action potential?
- A. Delayed repolarization (Correct Answer)
- B. Delayed depolarization
- C. Accelerated repolarization
- D. Decreased resting membrane potential
- E. Accelerated depolarization
Chamber enlargement patterns Explanation: ***Delayed repolarization***
- **Voltage-gated potassium channels** are primarily responsible for the efflux of potassium ions during the **repolarization phase** (phase 3) of the cardiac action potential.
- A decrease in the number of these channels would reduce potassium efflux, thus slowing down the repolarization process and prolonging the **action potential duration**.
*Delayed depolarization*
- **Depolarization** (phase 0) of the cardiac action potential is primarily mediated by the rapid influx of **sodium ions** through voltage-gated sodium channels.
- Changes in potassium channels do not directly affect the speed of depolarization.
*Accelerated repolarization*
- Accelerated repolarization would occur if there were an *increase* in the number or activity of **potassium channels**, leading to a faster efflux of potassium ions.
- A *decrease* in these channels would have the opposite effect.
*Decreased resting membrane potential*
- The **resting membrane potential** is primarily maintained by the **leak potassium channels** and the **Na+/K+ ATPase pump**, not directly by voltage-gated potassium channels involved in repolarization.
- A decrease in voltage-gated potassium channels would not significantly alter the resting membrane potential.
*Accelerated depolarization*
- Accelerated depolarization would result from an *increase* in the speed or magnitude of **sodium influx** during phase 0.
- A reduction in potassium channels has no direct impact on the rate of sodium channel activation or current.
Chamber enlargement patterns US Medical PG Question 9: A 17-year-old girl suddenly grabs her chest and collapses to the ground while playing volleyball at school. The teacher rushes to evaluate the situation and finds that the girl has no pulse and is not breathing. He starts chest compressions. An automated external defibrillator (AED) is brought to the scene within 3 minutes and a shock is delivered. The girl regains consciousness and regular sinus rhythm. She is rushed to the emergency department. The vital signs include: blood pressure 122/77 mm Hg and pulse 65/min. The pulse is regular. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows a shortened PR interval, a wide QRS complex, a delta wave, and an inverted T wave. Which of the following is the most likely pathology in the conduction system of this patient’s heart?
- A. Impulse generation by tissue in atrioventricular node
- B. Accessory pathway from atria to ventricles (Correct Answer)
- C. Automatic discharge of irregular impulses in the atria
- D. Wandering atrial pacemaker
- E. Blockage in conduction pathway
Chamber enlargement patterns Explanation: ***Accessory pathway from atria to ventricles***
- The ECG findings of a **shortened PR interval**, **delta wave**, and **wide QRS complex** are characteristic of **Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome**, which involves an **accessory pathway** (Bundle of Kent) bypassing the AV node.
- This accessory pathway allows for pre-excitation of the ventricles, predisposing patients to **tachyarrhythmias** like the one experienced by the patient (sudden cardiac arrest).
*Impulse generation by tissue in atrioventricular node*
- This describes a **junctional rhythm**, which would present with a **normal or long PR interval** and a **narrow QRS complex**, contrasting with the given ECG findings.
- A junctional rhythm typically results in a slower heart rate and is not generally associated with sudden cardiac arrest in healthy individuals.
*Automatic discharge of irregular impulses in the atria*
- This typically refers to **atrial fibrillation** or multifocal atrial tachycardia, which would show an **irregularly irregular rhythm** or multiple P-wave morphologies, not the specific PR and QRS abnormalities seen.
- While atrial fibrillation can occur with WPW, the primary pathology described by the ECG findings is the accessory pathway itself.
*Wandering atrial pacemaker*
- A **wandering atrial pacemaker** is characterized by varying P-wave morphology and PR intervals as the pacemaker shifts between different atrial sites, but it generally maintains a normal QRS duration.
- It is typically a benign arrhythmia and does not cause the pre-excitation or the risk of sudden cardiac death seen in this patient.
*Blockage in conduction pathway*
- A **blockage in the conduction pathway** (e.g., AV block) would result in a **prolonged PR interval** or dropped QRS complexes, which is the opposite of the shortened PR interval observed.
- While heart block can cause syncope, it wouldn't explain the pre-excitation pattern (delta wave, wide QRS) seen in the ECG.
Chamber enlargement patterns US Medical PG Question 10: A 55-year-old man presents to his physician with weakness and fatigue for 1 week. There is no significant past medical history. He mentions that he is very health conscious and has heard about the health benefits of juices. He is following a juice-only diet for the last 2 weeks. His physical examination is completely normal, except for depressed deep tendon reflexes. The only abnormality in a complete laboratory evaluation is a serum potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L (6.0 mmol/L). There are significantly peaked T-waves on ECG. Which of the following pathophysiologic mechanisms best explains the patient’s symptoms?
- A. Decreased resting membrane potential of skeletal muscle cells (Correct Answer)
- B. Prolonged release of Ca2+ ions after stimulation of Ryanodine receptors
- C. Hyperpolarization of skeletal muscle cells
- D. Dysfunction of Na+ channels
- E. Dysfunction of dystrophin-glycoprotein complex
Chamber enlargement patterns Explanation: ***Decreased resting membrane potential of skeletal muscle cells***
- The patient's **hyperkalemia** (serum potassium 6.0 mEq/L), evidenced by peaked T-waves, reduces the electrochemical gradient for potassium, making the **resting membrane potential less negative (more depolarized)**.
- While seemingly contradictory, a persistent partial depolarization due to high extracellular potassium can lead to inactivation of voltage-gated sodium channels, preventing the generation of new action potentials and causing **muscle weakness and depressed reflexes**.
*Prolonged release of Ca2+ ions after stimulation of Ryanodine receptors*
- This mechanism is associated with conditions like **malignant hyperthermia** or certain myopathies, characterized by muscle rigidity, cramps, or excessive heat production, which are not seen here.
- Hyperkalemia primarily affects **membrane excitability** rather than intracellular calcium release pathways directly.
*Hyperpolarization of skeletal muscle cells*
- **Hyperpolarization** would make the resting membrane potential more negative, making it harder to reach the threshold for an action potential, leading to weakness.
- This typically occurs in conditions causing **hypokalemia**, as a lower extracellular potassium concentration increases the electrochemical gradient and causes a net efflux of potassium ions.
*Dysfunction of Na+ channels*
- Dysfunction of **sodium channels** can cause various neuromuscular disorders, including periodic paralysis or myotonic conditions.
- While hyperkalemia indirectly affects sodium channel function by altering the resting membrane potential, the primary pathophysiologic insult here is the altered potassium gradient, not an intrinsic channel defect.
*Dysfunction of dystrophin-glycoprotein complex*
- This complex is crucial for maintaining muscle fiber integrity and is defective in **muscular dystrophies** (e.g., Duchenne muscular dystrophy).
- Such conditions cause progressive muscle degeneration and weakness, which develop over a much longer period than the acute symptoms described here and are not related to electrolyte imbalances.
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