Ammonia production and excretion US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice US Medical PG questions for Ammonia production and excretion. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Ammonia production and excretion US Medical PG Question 1: Which region of the nephron reabsorbs the highest percentage of filtered bicarbonate?
- A. Collecting duct
- B. Thick ascending limb
- C. Distal tubule
- D. Proximal tubule (Correct Answer)
Ammonia production and excretion Explanation: ***Proximal tubule***
- The **proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)** reabsorbs approximately 80-90% of the **filtered bicarbonate** through a process involving **carbonic anhydrase** and the **Na+/H+ exchanger**.
- This vital function ensures that the majority of bicarbonate, a key buffer, is returned to the blood to maintain **acid-base balance**.
*Collecting duct*
- While the collecting duct does have the ability to reabsorb and secrete bicarbonate, its contribution is minor compared to the PCT, primarily for fine-tuning acid-base balance.
- Cells in the collecting duct, particularly **Type A intercalated cells**, are important for secreting acid (H+) in acidosis and therefore reabsorbing bicarbonate, but not the bulk of it.
*Thick ascending limb*
- The primary role of the **thick ascending limb** is the reabsorption of **sodium**, **potassium**, and **chloride** to create a concentrated interstitium, not significant bicarbonate reabsorption.
- It is largely impermeable to water and is relatively impermeable to bicarbonate.
*Distal tubule*
- The **distal convoluted tubule (DCT)** reabsorbs a small percentage of filtered bicarbonate, but its main role is regulated reabsorption of **sodium** and **calcium**, and secretion of **potassium** and **hydrogen ions**.
- Its contribution to bicarbonate reabsorption is much less significant than that of the proximal tubule.
Ammonia production and excretion US Medical PG Question 2: On cardiology service rounds, your team sees a patient admitted with an acute congestive heart failure exacerbation. In congestive heart failure, decreased cardiac function leads to decreased renal perfusion, which eventually leads to excess volume retention. To test your knowledge of physiology, your attending asks you which segment of the nephron is responsible for the majority of water absorption. Which of the following is a correct pairing of the segment of the nephron that reabsorbs the majority of all filtered water with the means by which that segment absorbs water?
- A. Distal convoluted tubule via passive diffusion following ion reabsorption
- B. Distal convoluted tubule via aquaporin channels
- C. Thick ascending loop of Henle via passive diffusion following ion reabsorption
- D. Proximal convoluted tubule via passive diffusion following ion reabsorption (Correct Answer)
- E. Collecting duct via aquaporin channels
Ammonia production and excretion Explanation: ***Proximal convoluted tubule via passive diffusion following ion reabsorption***
- The **proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)** is responsible for reabsorbing approximately **65-70% of filtered water**, making it the primary site of water reabsorption in the nephron.
- This water reabsorption primarily occurs **passively**, following the active reabsorption of solutes (especially **sodium ions**), which creates an osmotic gradient.
*Distal convoluted tubule via passive diffusion following ion reabsorption*
- The **distal convoluted tubule (DCT)** reabsorbs a much smaller percentage of filtered water (around 5-10%) and its water reabsorption is largely **regulated by ADH**, not primarily simple passive diffusion following bulk ion reabsorption.
- While some passive water movement occurs, it is not the main mechanism or location for the majority of water reabsorption.
*Distal convoluted tubule via aquaporin channels*
- While aquaporin channels do play a role in water reabsorption in the DCT, particularly under the influence of **ADH**, the DCT is not the segment responsible for the **majority of all filtered water absorption**.
- The bulk of water reabsorption occurs earlier in the nephron, independently of ADH for the most part.
*Thick ascending loop of Henle via passive diffusion following ion reabsorption*
- The **thick ascending loop of Henle** is primarily involved in reabsorbing ions like Na+, K+, and Cl- but is largely **impermeable to water**.
- Its impermeability to water is crucial for creating the **osmotic gradient** in the renal medulla, which is necessary for later water reabsorption.
*Collecting duct via aquaporin channels*
- The **collecting duct** is critically important for **regulated water reabsorption** via **aquaporin-2 channels** under the influence of **ADH**, allowing for fine-tuning of urine concentration.
- However, it reabsorbs only a variable portion (typically 5-19%) of the remaining filtered water, not the **majority of all filtered water**.
Ammonia production and excretion US Medical PG Question 3: Which transport mechanism is primarily responsible for calcium reabsorption in the proximal tubule?
- A. Paracellular transport (Correct Answer)
- B. Facilitated diffusion
- C. Active transport
- D. Antiport with sodium
Ammonia production and excretion Explanation: ***Paracellular transport***
- In the **proximal tubule**, approximately 60-70% of filtered calcium is reabsorbed primarily through the **paracellular pathway**, driven by the electrochemical gradient and solvent drag.
- This transport occurs between cells, moving through the **tight junctions**, and is passive, following the reabsorption of water.
*Facilitated diffusion*
- While a type of passive transport, **facilitated diffusion** typically involves membrane proteins and occurs across the cell membrane, not primarily between cells in the proximal tubule for calcium.
- This mechanism is prominent for calcium reabsorption in other nephron segments like the **distal convoluted tubule** via **TRPV5/6 channels**, but not the main route in the proximal tubule.
*Active transport*
- **Active transport** of calcium, mainly via **calcium ATPase** and the **Na+/Ca2+ exchanger**, occurs across the luminal and basolateral membranes, respectively, in specific nephron segments.
- However, in the **proximal tubule**, the bulk of calcium reabsorption is passive and paracellular, not ATP-dependent active transport across cell membranes.
*Antiport with sodium*
- The **Na+/Ca2+ exchanger (NCX)** is an antiport mechanism that plays a crucial role in extruding calcium from the cell into the interstitium, particularly in the basolateral membrane of the distal tubule.
- However, it is not the primary mechanism for overall tubular reabsorption of calcium in the **proximal tubule**, where paracellular movement dominates.
Ammonia production and excretion US Medical PG Question 4: Activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system yields a significant physiological effect on renal blood flow and filtration. Which of the following is most likely to occur in response to increased levels of Angiotensin-II?
- A. Decreased renal plasma flow, decreased filtration fraction
- B. Decreased renal plasma flow, increased glomerular capillary oncotic pressure
- C. Increased renal plasma flow, decreased filtration fraction
- D. Increased renal plasma flow, increased filtration fraction
- E. Decreased renal plasma flow, increased filtration fraction (Correct Answer)
Ammonia production and excretion Explanation: ***Decreased renal plasma flow, increased filtration fraction***
- **Angiotensin II** causes **efferent arteriolar constriction**, which reduces blood flow leaving the glomerulus, thereby **decreasing renal plasma flow**.
- This efferent constriction also increases **glomerular hydrostatic pressure** and reduces plasma flow distal to the glomerulus, leading to a **higher filtration fraction** (GFR/RPF).
*Decreased renal plasma flow, decreased filtration fraction*
- While **renal plasma flow decreases**, a **decreased filtration fraction** would imply that either GFR decreases disproportionately more than RPF or GFR does not increase despite the RPF reduction, which is not the typical response to **angiotensin II** due to its predominant effect on the **efferent arteriole**.
*Decreased renal plasma flow, increased glomerular capillary oncotic pressure*
- **Increased glomerular capillary oncotic pressure** is a consequence of increased filtration fraction, as more fluid is filtered out, leaving behind a more concentrated plasma. This option includes a correct element (decreased RPF) but pairs it with a less direct and defining outcome of acute Angiotensin II action as the primary physiological effect.
*Increased renal plasma flow, decreased filtration fraction*
- **Angiotensin II** causes **vasoconstriction**, predominantly of the efferent arteriole, which by definition would **decrease renal plasma flow**, not increase it.
- A **decreased filtration fraction** would be inconsistent with efferent arteriolar constriction which typically raises GFR relative to RPF.
*Increased renal plasma flow, increased filtration fraction*
- **Angiotensin II** causes **vasoconstriction**, leading to a **decrease in renal plasma flow**, not an increase.
- While **filtration fraction is increased**, the initial premise of increased renal plasma flow is incorrect.
Ammonia production and excretion US Medical PG Question 5: During heavy exercise, what is the primary mechanism for maintaining arterial pH despite increased lactic acid production?
- A. Increased bicarbonate reabsorption
- B. Phosphate buffering
- C. Increased hydrogen secretion
- D. Hyperventilation (Correct Answer)
Ammonia production and excretion Explanation: ***Hyperventilation***
- **Hyperventilation** during heavy exercise increases the expulsion of **carbon dioxide (CO2)**, shifting the **bicarbonate buffer system** equilibrium to the left.
- This reduction in **CO2** effectively removes **hydrogen ions (H+)**, thereby helping to maintain **arterial pH** despite rising **lactic acid** levels.
*Increased bicarbonate reabsorption*
- While the kidneys adapt by increasing **bicarbonate reabsorption** to compensate for acidosis, this is a **slower renal mechanism** for pH regulation, taking hours to days, rather than an immediate response during acute exercise.
- The rapid pH regulation during exercise primarily relies on respiratory and chemical buffer systems, not renal function.
*Phosphate buffering*
- The **phosphate buffer system** is indeed important for intracellular and renal tubular fluid buffering.
- However, its buffering capacity in the extracellular fluid and plasma is relatively limited compared to the **bicarbonate system** due to its lower concentration.
*Increased hydrogen secretion*
- **Increased hydrogen secretion** by the renal tubules is a long-term mechanism for compensating for acidosis, which helps excrete excess **acid** and regenerate **bicarbonate**.
- This is a slow, renal regulatory process and not the primary rapid mechanism for maintaining pH during the immediate demands of heavy exercise.
Ammonia production and excretion US Medical PG Question 6: A 37-year-old G1P0 woman presents to her primary care physician for a routine checkup. She has a history of diabetes and hypertension but has otherwise been healthy with no change in her health status since the last visit. She is expecting her first child 8 weeks from now. She also enrolled in a study about pregnancy where serial metabolic panels and arterial blood gases are obtained. Partial results from these studies are shown below:
Serum:
Na+: 141 mEq/L
Cl-: 108 mEq/L
pH: 7.47
pCO2: 30 mmHg
HCO3-: 21 mEq/L
Which of the following disease processes would most likely present with a similar panel of metabolic results?
- A. Diarrheal disease
- B. Loop diuretic abuse
- C. Living at high altitude (Correct Answer)
- D. Ingestion of metformin
- E. Anxiety attack
Ammonia production and excretion Explanation: ***Living at high altitude***
- Chronic exposure to **high altitude** leads to sustained **hypoxia**, which stimulates **hyperventilation** as a compensatory mechanism.
- This persistent hyperventilation causes a **respiratory alkalosis** (high pH, low pCO2) and a compensatory **metabolic acidosis** (low HCO3-) to normalize pH, mimicking the presented metabolic panel.
*Diarrheal disease*
- Severe **diarrhea** leads to the loss of bicarbonate from the gastrointestinal tract, causing a **non-anion gap metabolic acidosis**.
- This would present with a **low pH**, **low HCO3-**, and a **compensatory drop in pCO2**, not a respiratory alkalosis with a high pH.
*Loop diuretic abuse*
- Chronic abuse of **loop diuretics** can cause **metabolic alkalosis** due to increased renal excretion of hydrogen ions and potassium, leading to volume contraction.
- This would typically present with a **high pH**, high HCO3-, and a compensatory rise in pCO2, which is different from the given values.
*Ingestion of metformin*
- **Metformin** can cause **lactic acidosis** (a type of high anion gap metabolic acidosis), especially in patients with renal impairment.
- This would manifest as a **low pH**, **low HCO3-**, and a **compensatory decrease in pCO2**, along with an elevated anion gap, not the respiratory alkalosis seen here.
*Anxiety attack*
- An **anxiety attack** causes acute **hyperventilation**, leading to **acute respiratory alkalosis** (high pH, low pCO2).
- However, in an acute setting, there is insufficient time for significant renal compensation, so the HCO3- would remain near normal, unlike the compensated state shown in the panel.
Ammonia production and excretion US Medical PG Question 7: A 72-year-old man being treated for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is admitted to the emergency department for 1 week of dysuria, nocturia, urge incontinence, and difficulty initiating micturition. His medical history is relevant for hypertension, active tobacco use, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, and BPH with multiple urinary tract infections. Upon admission, he is found with a heart rate of 130/min, respiratory rate of 19/min, body temperature of 39.0°C (102.2°F), and blood pressure of 80/50 mm Hg. Additional findings during the physical examination include decreased breath sounds, wheezes, crackles at the lung bases, and intense right flank pain. A complete blood count shows leukocytosis and neutrophilia with a left shift. A sample for arterial blood gas analysis (ABG) was taken, which is shown below.
Laboratory test
Serum Na+ 140 mEq/L
Serum Cl- 102 mEq/L
Serum K+ 4.8 mEq/L
Serum creatinine (SCr) 2.3 mg/dL
Arterial blood gas
pH 7.12
Po2 82 mm Hg
Pco2 60 mm Hg
SO2% 92%
HCO3- 12.0 mEq/L
Which of the following best explains the patient’s condition?
- A. Metabolic acidosis complicated by respiratory alkalosis
- B. Non-anion gap metabolic acidosis
- C. Respiratory alkalosis complicated by metabolic acidosis
- D. Respiratory acidosis complicated by metabolic alkalosis
- E. Metabolic acidosis complicated by respiratory acidosis (Correct Answer)
Ammonia production and excretion Explanation: ***Metabolic acidosis complicated by respiratory acidosis***
- The patient's pH is significantly low (7.12), indicating **acidemia**. The **HCO3- is markedly low (12 mEq/L)**, and PCO2 is elevated (60 mm Hg), suggesting both a metabolic and a respiratory component to the acidosis.
- The severe infection (fever, elevated heart rate, hypotension, flank pain, leukocytosis, elevated creatinine) and the signs of hypoperfusion contribute to **lactic acidosis (metabolic acidosis)**, while his history of COPD and lung findings (decreased breath sounds, wheezes, crackles) explain the impaired ventilation leading to **respiratory acidosis**.
*Metabolic acidosis complicated by respiratory alkalosis*
- While a **metabolic acidosis** is clearly present due to the low pH and HCO3-, the PCO2 is elevated, indicating **respiratory acidosis**, not alkalosis.
- Respiratory alkalosis would be characterized by a **low PCO2** due to hyperventilation.
*Non-anion gap metabolic acidosis*
- To determine the anion gap, we use the formula: **Na+ - (Cl- + HCO3-)**. In this case, 140 - (102 + 12) = 140 - 114 = **26 mEq/L**.
- An anion gap of 26 mEq/L, which is significantly elevated (normal range is typically 8-12 mEq/L), indicates an **anion gap metabolic acidosis**, not a non-anion gap one.
*Respiratory alkalosis complicated by metabolic acidosis*
- The low pH and HCO3- confirm **metabolic acidosis**, but the elevated PCO2 (60 mm Hg) indicates **respiratory acidosis**, not alkalosis, as the respiratory component is also acidotic.
- Respiratory alkalosis would result from **hyperventilation and a low PCO2**.
*Respiratory acidosis complicated by metabolic alkalosis*
- While the elevated PCO2 indicates **respiratory acidosis**, the HCO3- is significantly low (12 mEq/L), which points to a **metabolic acidosis**, not metabolic alkalosis.
- **Metabolic alkalosis** would be characterized by an **elevated HCO3-**.
Ammonia production and excretion US Medical PG Question 8: A 29-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a broken arm after she tripped and fell at work. She says that she has no history of broken bones but that she has been having bone pain in her back and hips for several months. In addition, she says that she has been waking up several times in the middle of the night to use the restroom and has been drinking a lot more water. Her symptoms started after she fell ill during an international mission trip with her church and was treated by a local doctor with unknown antibiotics. Since then she has been experiencing weight loss and muscle pain in addition to the symptoms listed above. Urine studies are obtained showing amino acids in her urine. The pH of her urine is also found to be < 5.5. Which of the following would most likely also be seen in this patient?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypernatremia
- C. Metabolic alkalosis
- D. Hypocalcemia (Correct Answer)
- E. Decreased serum creatinine
Ammonia production and excretion Explanation: ***Hypocalcemia***
- The patient's clinical presentation (bone pain, pathologic fracture, polyuria, polydipsia, aminoaciduria, and urine pH <5.5) is characteristic of **Fanconi syndrome**, a generalized proximal tubule dysfunction.
- Fanconi syndrome leads to urinary wasting of **phosphate**, resulting in **hypophosphatemia**, which impairs bone mineralization and causes rickets/osteomalacia.
- Chronic hypophosphatemia triggers **secondary hyperparathyroidism**, and in severe cases or with concomitant vitamin D deficiency, **hypocalcemia** can develop, contributing to the bone disease and neuromuscular symptoms.
- While hypophosphatemia is the more direct and consistent finding, hypocalcemia may occur in this clinical context.
*Hyperkalemia*
- Fanconi syndrome causes impaired proximal tubule reabsorption of **potassium**, leading to **hypokalemia**, not hyperkalemia.
- Urinary potassium wasting is a hallmark feature of this proximal tubulopathy.
*Hypernatremia*
- Fanconi syndrome does not typically cause hypernatremia; the polyuria may lead to volume depletion, but **hypernatremia** is not a consistent or direct feature.
- Sodium reabsorption can be affected, but this does not reliably produce hypernatremia.
*Metabolic alkalosis*
- The urine pH <5.5 with systemic symptoms indicates **Type 2 (proximal) renal tubular acidosis**, which is an integral component of Fanconi syndrome.
- Loss of bicarbonate in the proximal tubule leads to **metabolic acidosis**, not alkalosis, though the distal tubule can still acidify urine (hence pH <5.5).
*Decreased serum creatinine*
- Fanconi syndrome is a **tubulopathy** affecting reabsorption, not a glomerulopathy affecting GFR.
- Serum creatinine typically remains **normal** unless there is concurrent glomerular or interstitial kidney disease; decreased creatinine is not an expected finding.
Ammonia production and excretion US Medical PG Question 9: A 20-year-old male presents with confusion, asterixis, and odd behavior. Very early in the morning, his mother found him urinating on the floor of his bedroom. A detailed history taken from the mother revealed that he has been a vegetarian his entire life but decided to "bulk up" by working out and consuming whey protein several times a day. A blood test revealed increased levels of ammonia and orotic acid but a decreased BUN. The patient began hemodialysis and was given oral sodium benzoate and phenylbutyrate, which improved his condition. Gene therapy of the enzyme producing which product would correct his condition?
- A. Citrulline (Correct Answer)
- B. Fructose-1-phosphate
- C. Homocysteine
- D. Phenylalanine
- E. Uridine monophosphate
Ammonia production and excretion Explanation: ***Citrulline***
- The clinical presentation (confusion, asterixis, bizarre behavior, high ammonia, low BUN, high orotic acid, improvement with sodium benzoate and phenylbutyrate) is classic for a **urea cycle disorder**, specifically **ornithine transcarbamylase (OTC) deficiency**.
- OTC catalyzes the conversion of ornithine and carbamoyl phosphate to citrulline. A deficiency in OTC leads to a buildup of carbamoyl phosphate, which is then shunted to the pyrimidine synthesis pathway, leading to increased orotic acid. Therefore, gene therapy for the enzyme producing citrulline (OTC) would address the underlying defect.
*Fructose-1-phosphate*
- This is an intermediate in **fructose metabolism**. Disorders related to this, such as **hereditary fructose intolerance**, are not associated with hyperammonemia or orotic aciduria in this manner.
- Symptoms typically involve hypoglycemia, vomiting, and liver dysfunction upon fructose ingestion.
*Homocysteine*
- Elevated homocysteine levels are characteristic of **homocystinuria**, which is due to defects in methionine metabolism, often involving **cystathionine beta-synthase** or enzymes in the folate/B12 pathways.
- Homocystinuria presents with developmental delay, skeletal abnormalities, and thromboembolic events, distinct from the patient's symptoms.
*Phenylalanine*
- Elevated phenylalanine is the hallmark of **phenylketonuria (PKU)**, an inherited disorder of amino acid metabolism where the body cannot process **phenylalanine**.
- PKU primarily causes neurological issues if untreated, but not typically hyperammonemia or orotic aciduria.
*Uridine monophosphate*
- While orotic acid is a precursor to uridine monophosphate in pyrimidine synthesis, a direct gene therapy for the enzyme producing uridine monophosphate is not the primary intervention for the underlying urea cycle disorder.
- The high orotic acid is a consequence of the urea cycle blockade, not the primary defect itself.
Ammonia production and excretion US Medical PG Question 10: A 32-year-old woman is admitted to the emergency department for 36 hours of intense left-sided back pain that extends into her left groin. She reports that the pain started a day after a charitable 5 km (3.1 mi) marathon. The past medical history is relevant for multiple complaints of eye dryness and dry mouth. Physical examination is unremarkable, except for intense left-sided costovertebral pain. The results from laboratory tests are shown.
Laboratory test Result
Serum Na+ 137
Serum Cl- 110
Serum K+ 3.0
Serum creatinine (SCr) 0.82
Arterial blood gas Result
pH 7.28
pO2 98 mm Hg
pCO2 28.5 mm Hg
SaO2% 98%
HCO3- 15 mm Hg
Which of the following explains this patient’s condition?
- A. Carbonic acid accumulation
- B. Decreased bicarbonate renal absorption
- C. Decreased renal excretion of hydrogen ions (H+) (Correct Answer)
- D. Decreased synthesis of ammonia (NH3)
- E. Decreased excretion of nonvolatile acids
Ammonia production and excretion Explanation: ***Decreased renal excretion of hydrogen ions (H+)***
- The patient presents with **metabolic acidosis** (pH 7.28, HCO3- 15 mEq/L) with **respiratory compensation** (pCO2 28.5 mm Hg). The anion gap is **normal** (Na+ - (Cl- + HCO3-) = 137 - (110 + 15) = **12 mEq/L**), indicating a **non-anion gap metabolic acidosis**.
- The history of **dry eyes and dry mouth** strongly suggests **Sjögren syndrome**, which is commonly associated with **Type 1 (distal) renal tubular acidosis**.
- In **Type 1 RTA**, the distal tubule alpha-intercalated cells cannot adequately secrete H+ ions, leading to metabolic acidosis with **inability to acidify urine** (urine pH > 5.5). Associated findings include **hypokalemia** (K+ 3.0), **nephrolithiasis** (calcium phosphate stones due to alkaline urine), and hypercalciuria.
- The left-sided flank pain radiating to the groin is consistent with **nephrolithiasis**, a common complication of Type 1 RTA.
*Carbonic acid accumulation*
- **Carbonic acid accumulation** indicates **respiratory acidosis** with elevated pCO2, which is not present here.
- The patient has a **low pCO2 (28.5 mm Hg)**, representing appropriate **respiratory compensation** for the primary metabolic acidosis.
*Decreased bicarbonate renal absorption*
- **Decreased bicarbonate renal absorption** characterizes **Type 2 (proximal) RTA**.
- While Type 2 RTA also causes non-anion gap metabolic acidosis, it is **not typically associated with Sjögren syndrome** and would present with different features (glycosuria, aminoaciduria, phosphaturia as part of Fanconi syndrome).
- Type 2 RTA can acidify urine to pH < 5.5 when serum HCO3- is low, unlike Type 1 RTA.
*Decreased synthesis of ammonia (NH3)*
- **Decreased ammonia synthesis** is characteristic of **Type 4 RTA** or severe chronic kidney disease.
- Type 4 RTA presents with **hyperkalemia** (due to hypoaldosteronism), not the hypokalemia seen in this patient.
- The normal serum creatinine (0.82 mg/dL) rules out significant renal failure.
*Decreased excretion of nonvolatile acids*
- **Decreased excretion of nonvolatile acids** would cause **elevated anion gap metabolic acidosis** (e.g., lactic acidosis, ketoacidosis, or advanced renal failure with accumulation of organic acids).
- This patient has a **normal anion gap (12 mEq/L)** and **normal renal function** (creatinine 0.82 mg/dL), making this mechanism unlikely.
- The clinical context of Sjögren syndrome with dry eyes/mouth points specifically to distal RTA.
More Ammonia production and excretion US Medical PG questions available in the OnCourse app. Practice MCQs, flashcards, and get detailed explanations.
