Growth hormone and analogs US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice US Medical PG questions for Growth hormone and analogs. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Growth hormone and analogs US Medical PG Question 1: An investigator is studying a drug that acts on a G protein-coupled receptor in the pituitary gland. Binding of the drug to this receptor leads to increased production of inositol triphosphate (IP3) in the basophilic cells of the anterior pituitary. Administration of this drug every 90 minutes is most likely to be beneficial in the treatment of which of the following conditions?
- A. Prostate cancer
- B. Variceal bleeding
- C. Central diabetes insipidus
- D. Anovulatory infertility (Correct Answer)
- E. Hyperkalemia
Growth hormone and analogs Explanation: ***Anovulatory infertility***
- The drug's action on a G protein-coupled receptor leading to increased **IP3 production** in pituitary basophils suggests activation of the **gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) receptor**.
- **Pulsatile administration** (e.g., every 90 minutes) of GnRH or its agonists is crucial for stimulating the release of **FSH and LH**, which can induce ovulation in women with anovulatory infertility due to hypothalamic-pituitary dysfunction.
*Prostate cancer*
- While GnRH agonists are used in prostate cancer, they are typically administered **continuously or in depot forms** to desensitize the GnRH receptor, thereby suppressing testosterone production.
- **Pulsatile administration** would rather stimulate testosterone release, which is detrimental in prostate cancer.
*Variceal bleeding*
- **Variceal bleeding** is primarily managed with vasoconstrictors like **octreotide** (a somatostatin analog) or **vasopressin**, which are unrelated to GnRH receptor activation.
- The mechanism of action described (increased IP3 in pituitary basophils) does not align with treatments for variceal bleeding.
*Central diabetes insipidus*
- **Central diabetes insipidus** is caused by a deficiency in **vasopressin (ADH)**, which regulates water balance in the kidneys.
- Treatment involves synthetic ADH (**desmopressin**), not drugs acting on GnRH receptors and affecting pituitary basophils.
*Hyperkalemia*
- **Hyperkalemia** is an electrolyte imbalance characterized by high potassium levels and is managed with medications that shift potassium intracellularly (e.g., insulin, beta-agonists) or promote its excretion (e.g., diuretics, potassium binders).
- The described drug action on pituitary GnRH receptors is unrelated to potassium homeostasis.
Growth hormone and analogs US Medical PG Question 2: A 5-year-old boy is brought to the physician for excessive weight gain. The mother reports that her son has been “chubby” since he was a toddler and that he has gained 10 kg (22 lbs) over the last year. During this period, he fractured his left arm twice from falling on the playground. He had cryptorchidism requiring orchiopexy at age 2. He is able to follow 1-step instructions and uses 2-word sentences. He is at the 5th percentile for height and 95th percentile for weight. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows central obesity. There is mild esotropia and coarse, dry skin. In addition to calorie restriction, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
- A. Levothyroxine
- B. Fluoxetine
- C. Laparoscopic gastric banding
- D. Growth hormone therapy (Correct Answer)
- E. Octreotide
Growth hormone and analogs Explanation: ***Growth hormone therapy***
- This patient's constellation of symptoms, including **obesity**, **short stature**, developmental delay (**1-step instructions, 2-word sentences at age 5**), **cryptorchidism**, and **bone fractures**, is highly suggestive of **Prader-Willi syndrome (PWS).**
- **Growth hormone therapy** is the most appropriate next step and is crucial for improving growth, body composition, muscle strength, and bone density in patients with Prader-Willi syndrome.
- Growth hormone therapy should be initiated in early childhood and has been shown to significantly improve height, lean body mass, and motor development in PWS patients.
- **Note:** While PWS is associated with hypogonadism, testosterone replacement is not initiated at age 5; it is typically reserved for adolescent males approaching puberty.
*Levothyroxine*
- While **coarse, dry skin** can suggest **hypothyroidism**, the overall clinical picture, including developmental delay, cryptorchidism, hyperphagia with obesity, and short stature, is classic for **Prader-Willi syndrome** rather than primary hypothyroidism.
- There are no other clear signs of hypothyroidism such as bradycardia, lethargy, or significant goiter.
*Fluoxetine*
- **Fluoxetine** is an SSRI that may be used for behavioral issues like hyperphagia, compulsive behaviors, or anxiety often seen in Prader-Willi syndrome, but it does **not address the underlying hormonal deficiencies** or growth failure.
- Behavioral management and psychiatric medications are adjunctive but secondary to addressing the growth and metabolic issues with hormone therapy.
*Laparoscopic gastric banding*
- This is a surgical option for severe, refractory obesity, but it is **not appropriate for a 5-year-old child**, especially not as a first-line treatment for obesity in Prader-Willi syndrome.
- The **underlying hormonal and metabolic issues** must be addressed first with growth hormone therapy and dietary management, and such invasive bariatric procedures carry significant risks and are not indicated in young children.
*Octreotide*
- **Octreotide** is a somatostatin analog used to inhibit growth hormone secretion in conditions like acromegaly or to manage symptoms of neuroendocrine tumors.
- In Prader-Willi syndrome, the issue is **growth hormone deficiency**, not excess, making octreotide contraindicated as it would worsen the growth failure.
Growth hormone and analogs US Medical PG Question 3: A 15-year-old girl comes to the physician with her father for evaluation of her tall stature. She is concerned because she is taller than all of her friends. Her birth weight and height were within normal limits. Her father is 174 cm (5 ft 7 in) tall; her mother is 162 cm (5 ft 3 in) tall. She is at the 98th percentile for height and 90th percentile for BMI. She has not had her menstrual period yet. Her mother has Graves disease. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows a tall stature with broad hands and feet. There is frontal bossing and protrusion of the mandible. Finger perimetry is normal. The remainder of the examinations shows no abnormalities. Serum studies show a fasting serum glucose of 144 mg/dL. An x-ray of the left hand and wrist shows a bone age of 15 years. Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive treatment for this patient's condition?
- A. Caloric restriction
- B. Letrozole therapy
- C. Methimazole therapy
- D. Transsphenoidal adenomectomy (Correct Answer)
- E. Leuprolide therapy
Growth hormone and analogs Explanation: ***Transsphenoidal adenomectomy***
- The patient's clinical presentation, including **tall stature with broad hands and feet**, frontal bossing, mandibular prognathism, primary amenorrhea, and elevated fasting glucose, is highly suggestive of **gigantism** (growth hormone excess before epiphyseal closure) due to a **GH-secreting pituitary adenoma**.
- **Transsphenoidal adenomectomy** is the **definitive treatment** to surgically remove the GH-secreting tumor, thereby normalizing GH levels and preventing further progression of gigantism.
- This is the most appropriate treatment to address the **underlying cause** and halt disease progression.
*Caloric restriction*
- While caloric restriction might impact overall growth, it is not a treatment for a hormonally driven condition like **gigantism** caused by a pituitary adenoma.
- It would not address the underlying **excess growth hormone production** or prevent the associated physical changes and metabolic complications.
*Letrozole therapy*
- **Letrozole** is an **aromatase inhibitor** used primarily in the treatment of estrogen-dependent breast cancer and sometimes to induce ovulation or delay puberty in tall stature from other causes.
- It does not directly target or reduce **growth hormone secretion** from a pituitary adenoma and is not appropriate for treating gigantism.
*Methimazole therapy*
- **Methimazole** is an **antithyroid medication** used to treat hyperthyroidism by reducing thyroid hormone production.
- While the patient's mother has Graves' disease, this patient's symptoms are not indicative of thyroid dysfunction, and methimazole would not treat **GH excess** from a pituitary adenoma.
*Leuprolide therapy*
- **Leuprolide** is a **GnRH agonist** used to suppress puberty (e.g., in central precocious puberty) or for hormone-sensitive cancers.
- It primarily affects the **hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis** and has no direct role in treating **growth hormone excess** from a pituitary adenoma.
Growth hormone and analogs US Medical PG Question 4: A 29-year-old female visits her gynecologist because of an inability to conceive with her husband. Past medical history reveals that she has been amenorrheic for several months, and she complains of frequent white nipple discharge. Urine tests for beta-HCG are negative. A receptor agonist for which of the following would be most likely to treat her condition:
- A. Dopamine (Correct Answer)
- B. Somatostatin
- C. Insulin
- D. Vasopressin
- E. Serotonin
Growth hormone and analogs Explanation: ***Dopamine***
- The patient's symptoms of **amenorrhea**, difficulty conceiving, and **galactorrhea** (white nipple discharge) in a non-pregnant state are classic for **hyperprolactinemia**.
- **Dopamine agonists** like cabergoline or bromocriptine are the first-line treatment as dopamine inhibits prolactin release from the anterior pituitary.
*Somatostatin*
- **Somatostatin** inhibits the release of various hormones, including **growth hormone** and **TSH**, but does not directly or primarily regulate prolactin in a therapeutic context for hyperprolactinemia.
- While somatostatin analogs can be used for neuroendocrine tumors that secrete other hormones, they are **not the treatment of choice** for simple hyperprolactinemia.
*Insulin*
- **Insulin** is a hormone involved in **glucose metabolism** and has no direct role in the regulation of prolactin or the treatment of hyperprolactinemia.
- Its primary therapeutic use is in the management of **diabetes mellitus**.
*Vasopressin*
- **Vasopressin** (ADH) regulates **water reabsorption** in the kidneys and affects blood pressure.
- It is **not involved** in the regulation of prolactin secretion or the management of galactorrhea/amenorrhea.
*Serotonin*
- **Serotonin** typically has a **stimulatory effect** on prolactin release, meaning agonists would worsen hyperprolactinemia, whereas antagonists might decrease it.
- Therefore, a receptor agonist for serotonin would be **contraindicated** and not a treatment for this condition.
Growth hormone and analogs US Medical PG Question 5: A 35-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 4-month history of intermittent headaches. They have been getting progressively worse and no longer respond to ibuprofen. He also complains of weight gain and excessive sweating. Physical examination shows prominent supraorbital ridges, prognathism, macroglossia with thick lips, and disproportionately broad hands and feet. There is decreased peripheral vision bilaterally on visual field testing. An MRI of the brain shows a mass in the sella turcica. Genetic analysis of a biopsy specimen from the mass shows cells that overexpress adenylyl cyclase. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy for this condition?
- A. Octreotide (Correct Answer)
- B. Leuprolide
- C. Metyrapone
- D. Methimazole
- E. Risperidone
Growth hormone and analogs Explanation: ***Octreotide***
- This patient presents with **acromegaly**, characterized by progressive headaches, weight gain, excessive sweating, and distinctive physical features such as **prominent supraorbital ridges (frontal bossing)**, **prognathism**, **macroglossia**, and **broad hands and feet**. The visual field defects (**bitemporal hemianopsia** as suggested by decreased peripheral vision) and a mass in the **sella turcica** indicate a **pituitary adenoma**.
- **Overexpression of adenylyl cyclase** is consistent with a somatotroph adenoma that secretes **growth hormone (GH)**. **Octreotide** is a **somatostatin analog** that suppresses GH secretion from these tumors, making it the most appropriate pharmacotherapy.
*Leuprolide*
- **Leuprolide** is a **GnRH agonist** primarily used in conditions like **prostate cancer**, **endometriosis**, and **precocious puberty** by downregulating GnRH receptors, leading to reduced LH and FSH.
- It is not indicated for the treatment of **acromegaly**, as it does not directly affect growth hormone secretion.
*Metyrapone*
- **Metyrapone** is an **inhibitor of 11β-hydroxylase**, an enzyme involved in cortisol synthesis. It is used in the diagnosis and treatment of conditions involving **cortisol excess**, such as **Cushing's syndrome**.
- This patient's symptoms are suggestive of **growth hormone excess**, not **cortisol excess**, making metyrapone an inappropriate treatment.
*Methimazole*
- **Methimazole** is an **antithyroid drug** that inhibits thyroid hormone synthesis and is used to treat **hyperthyroidism**, such as in **Graves' disease**.
- The clinical presentation clearly points to **acromegaly** due to a pituitary adenoma, not a thyroid disorder.
*Risperidone*
- **Risperidone** is an **atypical antipsychotic medication** used primarily to treat conditions like **schizophrenia** and **bipolar disorder**.
- It has no role in the direct management of a **growth hormone-secreting pituitary adenoma** or the symptoms of acromegaly.
Growth hormone and analogs US Medical PG Question 6: Researchers are experimenting with hormone levels in mice in fasting and fed states. To test hormone levels in the fed state, the mice are given an oral glucose load and various hormones are measured in a blood sample. Researchers are most interested in the hormone whose blood levels track evenly with C-peptide levels. The hormone the researchers are most interested in is responsible for which of the following actions in the body?
- A. Protein catabolism
- B. Fatty acid breakdown
- C. Fatty acid synthesis (Correct Answer)
- D. Ketogenesis
- E. Lipolysis
Growth hormone and analogs Explanation: ***Fatty acid synthesis***
- The hormone whose blood levels track evenly with **C-peptide** levels after a glucose load is **insulin**.
- Insulin is a key anabolic hormone that promotes **fatty acid synthesis** from excess glucose in the fed state, particularly in the liver and adipose tissue.
*Protein catabolism*
- **Insulin** is an anabolic hormone that generally **inhibits protein catabolism** and promotes protein synthesis.
- Conditions like **glucagon excess** or **cortisol excess** promote protein catabolism, not insulin.
*Fatty acid breakdown*
- **Insulin inhibits fatty acid breakdown** (beta-oxidation) by suppressing hormone-sensitive lipase.
- **Glucagon** and **epinephrine** promote fatty acid breakdown, especially during fasting.
*Ketogenesis*
- **Insulin inhibits ketogenesis** by reducing the supply of fatty acids to the liver and inhibiting the enzymes involved in ketone body formation.
- **Glucagon** and **low insulin levels** (as in uncontrolled diabetes or prolonged fasting) promote ketogenesis.
*Lipolysis*
- **Insulin is a potent inhibitor of lipolysis** (breakdown of triglycerides into fatty acids and glycerol) in adipose tissue.
- **Glucagon**, **catecholamines**, and **growth hormone** stimulate lipolysis.
Growth hormone and analogs US Medical PG Question 7: A group of scientists is studying the mechanism of action of various pancreatic hormones in rats. The scientists studied hormone A, which is secreted by the β-cells of the pancreas, and found that hormone A binds to a complex dimeric receptor on the cell membrane and exerts its effects via phosphorylation and subsequent downstream signaling that includes dephosphorylation of different intracellular proteins. Now they are studying hormone B, which is secreted by the α-cells and antagonizes the actions of hormone A. Which 2nd messenger system would hormone B utilize to exert its cellular effects?
- A. Direct cytoplasmic receptor binding
- B. Phospholipase C
- C. Tyrosine kinase
- D. Direct nuclear receptor binding
- E. Adenylyl cyclase-cyclic AMP (Correct Answer)
Growth hormone and analogs Explanation: ***Adenylyl cyclase-cyclic AMP***
- Hormone B is **glucagon**, secreted by pancreatic α-cells, which antagonizes the effects of insulin (hormone A). Glucagon primarily acts through a **G protein-coupled receptor** that activates **adenylyl cyclase**, leading to an increase in intracellular **cyclic AMP (cAMP)**.
- Increased cAMP then activates **protein kinase A (PKA)**, which phosphorylates various intracellular proteins to promote **glycogenolysis** and **gluconeogenesis**, thereby raising blood glucose levels.
*Direct cytoplasmic receptor binding*
- This mechanism is characteristic of **steroid hormones**, which are lipid-soluble and can diffuse across the cell membrane to bind to receptors in the cytoplasm.
- Pancreatic hormones like glucagon are **peptide hormones**, which are water-soluble and typically bind to cell surface receptors.
*Phospholipase C*
- Activation of **phospholipase C (PLC)** leads to the production of **inositol triphosphate (IP3)** and **diacylglycerol (DAG)**, which mobilize intracellular calcium and activate protein kinase C, respectively.
- While some G protein-coupled receptors activate PLC, **glucagon's primary signaling pathway** involves adenylyl cyclase.
*Tyrosine kinase*
- **Tyrosine kinase receptors** are often associated with growth factors and insulin (hormone A) signaling, leading to phosphorylation of tyrosine residues on target proteins.
- Glucagon's receptor is a **G protein-coupled receptor**, not a receptor tyrosine kinase, and its actions are mediated through serine/threonine phosphorylation via PKA.
*Direct nuclear receptor binding*
- This mechanism is typical for **steroid hormones** and **thyroid hormones**, which are lipid-soluble and bind to receptors in the nucleus to directly influence gene transcription.
- As a peptide hormone, glucagon binds to cell surface receptors and does not directly interact with nuclear receptors.
Growth hormone and analogs US Medical PG Question 8: A 42-year-old man who is employed as a construction worker presents to his primary care physician with complaints of moderate headaches and profuse sweating. He reports the need to carry up to 3 additional shirt changes to work because they drench quickly even with tasks of low physical exertion. His coworkers have commented about his changing glove and boot sizes, which have increased at least 4 times since he joined the company 10 years ago. Physical examination is unremarkable except for blood pressure of 160/95 mm Hg, hyperhidrosis, noticeably large pores, hypertrichosis, widely spaced teeth, and prognathism. Which of the following best explains the patient’s clinical manifestations?
- A. Increased serum cortisol
- B. Increased thyroid-stimulating hormone
- C. Increased serum metanephrines
- D. Increased serum insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1) (Correct Answer)
- E. Increased serum testosterone
Growth hormone and analogs Explanation: ***Increased serum insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1)***
- Elevated **IGF-1** levels are indicative of **acromegaly**, a condition caused by excess growth hormone (GH) secretion, which explains the gradual changes in glove and boot sizes, prognathism, widely spaced teeth, and large pores.
- The symptoms of **profuse sweating**, **hypertrichosis**, **headaches**, and **hypertension** are common clinical manifestations of acromegaly due to the systemic effects of chronic GH excess.
*Increased serum cortisol*
- **Increased cortisol** (Cushing's syndrome) would present with central obesity, moon facies, buffalo hump, and striae, which are not described in the patient.
- While hypertension and hyperhidrosis can occur in Cushing's, the characteristic physical changes related to growth are absent.
*Increased thyroid-stimulating hormone*
- Elevated **TSH** suggests **hypothyroidism**, which would typically cause fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance, and bradycardia, rather than profuse sweating and hypertension.
- **Hyperthyroidism** (low TSH, high thyroid hormones) can cause sweating and hypertension, but it would not explain the gradual increase in body and appendage size.
*Increased serum metanephrines*
- Elevated **metanephrines** are a hallmark of **pheochromocytoma**, which typically presents with paroxysmal episodes of hypertension, palpitations, and sweating.
- While sweating and hypertension are present, the absence of episodic symptoms and the long-term changes in body size make pheochromocytoma less likely.
*Increased serum testosterone*
- **Increased testosterone** in a male would typically lead to increased muscle mass, acne, and potentially male-pattern baldness, but not the specific skeletal and soft tissue growth patterns observed, such as increased shoe and glove size or prognathism.
- While some skin changes might occur, **hyperhidrosis** and the dramatic facial and extremity changes are not characteristic features of testosterone excess.
Growth hormone and analogs US Medical PG Question 9: A 45-year-old woman comes to the physician for the evaluation of persistent headaches for the last 2 months. The symptoms started insidiously. Menses had previously occurred at regular 28-day intervals with moderate flow. Her last menstrual period was 12 weeks ago. She is sexually active with her husband but reports decreased interest in sexual intercourse over the past few months. The patient does not smoke or drink alcohol. She is 168 cm (5 ft 6 in) tall and weighs 68 kg (150 lb); BMI is 24 kg/m2. She appears uncomfortable. Vital signs are within normal limits. A urine pregnancy test is negative. A pelvic ultrasound shows atrophic endometrium. A cranial MRI with contrast shows a 2-cm intrasellar mass. A hormone assay is performed and is positive. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management?
- A. Temozolomide therapy
- B. Observation and outpatient follow-up
- C. Cabergoline therapy (Correct Answer)
- D. Radiotherapy
- E. Biopsy of intrasellar mass
Growth hormone and analogs Explanation: ***Cabergoline therapy***
- The patient's symptoms (amenorrhea, decreased libido, headaches) and imaging findings (intrasellar mass) are highly suggestive of a **prolactinoma**. A positive hormone assay further strengthens this diagnosis.
- **Cabergoline** is a dopamine agonist and the first-line treatment for prolactinomas, effectively reducing prolactin levels and tumor size in most cases.
*Temozolomide therapy*
- **Temozolomide** is an oral alkylating agent used primarily for certain aggressive brain tumors like glioblastoma, or for recurrent/refractory pituitary adenomas that are not prolactinomas or have failed other treatments.
- It is not the initial treatment of choice for a newly diagnosed prolactinoma, which typically responds well to dopamine agonists.
*Observation and outpatient follow-up*
- Given the presence of symptomatic features (headaches, amenorrhea, decreased libido) and a 2-cm intrasellar mass, active management to reduce tumor size and prolactin levels is warranted.
- **Observation** is usually reserved for asymptomatic, small microprolactinomas (<10 mm) or those with minimal symptoms.
*Radiotherapy*
- **Radiotherapy** is generally reserved for prolactinomas that are resistant to medical therapy (dopamine agonists) or after surgical failure, and when conventional treatments have failed to control tumor growth or hormone secretion.
- It carries risks of side effects like hypopituitarism and optic nerve damage, making it unsuitable as a first-line treatment.
*Biopsy of intrasellar mass*
- A definitive diagnosis of prolactinoma can often be made based on elevated **prolactin levels** and characteristic imaging findings (intrasellar mass), making biopsy unnecessary in most cases.
- Pituitary biopsies are associated with morbidity and are typically reserved for atypical presentations or suspicion of malignancy.
Growth hormone and analogs US Medical PG Question 10: A 51-year-old woman presents to your office with 2 weeks of fatigue and generalized weakness. She has a past medical history of diabetes, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia. She was recently diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis and started on disease-modifying therapy. She states she has felt less able to do things she enjoys and feels guilty she can't play sports with her children. Review of systems is notable for the patient occasionally seeing a small amount of bright red blood on the toilet paper. Laboratory studies are ordered as seen below.
Hemoglobin: 12 g/dL
Hematocrit: 36%
Leukocyte count: 7,700/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 207,000/mm^3
MCV: 110 fL
Which of the following is the most likely etiology of this patient's fatigue?
- A. Depression
- B. Gastrointestinal bleed
- C. Iron deficiency
- D. Medication side effect
- E. Vitamin B12 deficiency (Correct Answer)
Growth hormone and analogs Explanation: ***Vitamin B12 deficiency***
- The elevated **MCV (110 fL)** indicates **macrocytic anemia**, which is often caused by a vitamin B12 deficiency, leading to fatigue and weakness.
- While other causes of fatigue are present, the specific lab finding of macrocytosis points directly to vitamin B12 deficiency as the most likely cause of her current symptoms.
*Depression*
- While feelings of guilt, loss of enjoyment, and fatigue could be symptoms of **depression**, the clear **macrocytic anemia** in the lab results points to a distinct physical cause.
- Depression is a common comorbidity, especially with chronic diseases like rheumatoid arthritis, but is less likely to be the primary cause of fatigue in the presence of such a dominant lab finding.
*Gastrointestinal bleed*
- Bright red blood on toilet paper suggests a **lower GI bleed** (e.g., hemorrhoids), but this type of bleed typically leads to **iron deficiency anemia** with a **microcytic MCV** (low MCV), not high MCV.
- The patient's hemoglobin and hematocrit are not severely low, making an acute significant bleed less likely to be the sole cause of her profound fatigue and macrocytic anemia.
*Iron deficiency*
- **Iron deficiency** usually presents with **microcytic anemia** (low MCV), typically less than 80 fL, and often results from chronic blood loss, such as in this patient's reported rectal bleeding.
- The presented elevated **MCV of 110 fL** directly contradicts iron deficiency as the primary cause of her fatigue and anemia.
*Medication side effect*
- While many medications can cause fatigue, there's no specific information provided about new medications that commonly lead to **macrocytic anemia** (e.g., methotrexate without folate supplementation).
- Without details on her specific disease-modifying therapy for rheumatoid arthritis and in the presence of a clear finding for macrocytic anemia, medication side effect is a less direct explanation.
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