P-glycoprotein interactions US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice US Medical PG questions for P-glycoprotein interactions. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
P-glycoprotein interactions US Medical PG Question 1: An investigator is comparing the risk of adverse effects among various antiarrhythmic medications. One of the drugs being studied primarily acts by blocking the outward flow of K+ during myocyte repolarization. Further investigation shows that the use of this drug is associated with a lower rate of ventricular tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation, and torsades de pointes when compared to similar drugs. Which of the following drugs is most likely being studied?
- A. Verapamil
- B. Procainamide
- C. Esmolol
- D. Amiodarone (Correct Answer)
- E. Sotalol
P-glycoprotein interactions Explanation: ***Amiodarone***
- Amiodarone is a **Class III antiarrhythmic drug** that primarily blocks **potassium channels**, thereby prolonging repolarization and the effective refractory period in cardiac myocytes.
- While it has properties of all four Vaughn-Williams classes, its dominant action as a potassium channel blocker makes it highly effective in preventing and treating various arrhythmias, including **ventricular tachycardia (VT)** and **ventricular fibrillation (VF)**, and it has a relatively lower risk of **torsades de pointes (TdP)** compared to other Class III drugs due to its broader ion channel effects.
*Verapamil*
- Verapamil is a **Class IV antiarrhythmic drug (non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker)** that primarily blocks **L-type calcium channels**, slowing conduction through the AV node.
- It is mainly used for **supraventricular tachycardias** and rate control in atrial fibrillation, not typically for ventricular arrhythmias like VT/VF.
*Procainamide*
- Procainamide is a **Class IA antiarrhythmic drug** that blocks **sodium channels** and also prolongs repolarization by blocking some potassium channels, but its primary effect is on sodium channels.
- Class IA drugs are known to **increase the QT interval** and carry a significant risk of **torsades de pointes**, making them less favorable for preventing VT/VF with adverse effect concerns.
*Esmolol*
- Esmolol is a **Class II antiarrhythmic drug (beta-blocker)** that primarily acts by **blocking beta-adrenergic receptors**, thereby reducing heart rate, contractility, and AV nodal conduction.
- While useful in some arrhythmias, its main mechanism is not potassium channel blockade, and it is not typically preferred for the direct prevention of VT/VF in situations with concerns about TdP.
*Sotalol*
- Sotalol is a **Class III antiarrhythmic drug** that primarily acts as a **potassium channel blocker**, prolonging the action potential duration and effective refractory period, and also has **beta-blocking properties**.
- While it blocks potassium channels, sotalol carries a **higher risk of torsades de pointes** compared to amiodarone, especially at higher doses and in patients with underlying heart conditions.
P-glycoprotein interactions US Medical PG Question 2: Which transport mechanism is primarily responsible for calcium reabsorption in the proximal tubule?
- A. Paracellular transport (Correct Answer)
- B. Facilitated diffusion
- C. Active transport
- D. Antiport with sodium
P-glycoprotein interactions Explanation: ***Paracellular transport***
- In the **proximal tubule**, approximately 60-70% of filtered calcium is reabsorbed primarily through the **paracellular pathway**, driven by the electrochemical gradient and solvent drag.
- This transport occurs between cells, moving through the **tight junctions**, and is passive, following the reabsorption of water.
*Facilitated diffusion*
- While a type of passive transport, **facilitated diffusion** typically involves membrane proteins and occurs across the cell membrane, not primarily between cells in the proximal tubule for calcium.
- This mechanism is prominent for calcium reabsorption in other nephron segments like the **distal convoluted tubule** via **TRPV5/6 channels**, but not the main route in the proximal tubule.
*Active transport*
- **Active transport** of calcium, mainly via **calcium ATPase** and the **Na+/Ca2+ exchanger**, occurs across the luminal and basolateral membranes, respectively, in specific nephron segments.
- However, in the **proximal tubule**, the bulk of calcium reabsorption is passive and paracellular, not ATP-dependent active transport across cell membranes.
*Antiport with sodium*
- The **Na+/Ca2+ exchanger (NCX)** is an antiport mechanism that plays a crucial role in extruding calcium from the cell into the interstitium, particularly in the basolateral membrane of the distal tubule.
- However, it is not the primary mechanism for overall tubular reabsorption of calcium in the **proximal tubule**, where paracellular movement dominates.
P-glycoprotein interactions US Medical PG Question 3: A 63-year-old man with a history of hypertension and atrial fibrillation is brought into the emergency room and found to have a ventricular tachyarrhythmia. Ibutilide is discontinued and the patient is switched to another drug that also prolongs the QT interval but is associated with a decreased risk of torsades de pointes. Which drug was most likely administered in this patient?
- A. Esmolol
- B. Digoxin
- C. Sotalol
- D. Amiodarone (Correct Answer)
- E. Quinidine
P-glycoprotein interactions Explanation: ***Amiodarone***
- **Amiodarone** prolongs the **QT interval** but has a lower risk of **torsades de pointes** compared to other **Class III antiarrhythmics** due to its mixed ion channel blocking properties and consistent action potential prolongation.
- It's a broad-spectrum **antiarrhythmic drug** effective for both **atrial** and **ventricular arrhythmias**, making it a good choice for someone with a history of **atrial fibrillation** presenting with **ventricular tachyarrhythmia**.
*Esmolol*
- **Esmolol** is a **beta-blocker** that does not prolong the **QT interval**; it is used to slow heart rate and can be used for rhythm control but not by **QT prolongation**.
- Its primary action is on **beta-1 receptors**, reducing **myocardial contractility** and **heart rate**, primarily used for acute control of **tachyarrhythmias** or **hypertensive emergencies**.
*Digoxin*
- **Digoxin** is a **cardiac glycoside** that does not prolong the **QT interval**; it primarily works by inhibiting the **Na+/K+-ATPase pump** and increasing **vagal tone**.
- It is used to control **ventricular rate** in **atrial fibrillation** and to manage **heart failure**, but it is not an **antiarrhythmic** in the sense of directly terminating **ventricular tachyarrhythmias** by affecting **QT prolongation**.
*Sotalol*
- **Sotalol** is a **beta-blocker** with **Class III antiarrhythmic properties** that prolongs the **QT interval** and has a significant **dose-related risk of torsades de pointes**, particularly at higher doses.
- While it's effective for both **ventricular** and **supraventricular arrhythmias**, its risk of **TdP** is a major concern, making **amiodarone** a safer alternative when **TdP risk** is to be minimized.
*Quinidine*
- **Quinidine** is a **Class IA antiarrhythmic** that significantly prolongs the **QT interval** and is known for a high risk of causing **torsades de pointes**.
- It primarily blocks **fast sodium channels** and also **potassium channels**, contributing to its **proarrhythmic effects** and making it a less favored option when **TdP risk** needs to be decreased.
P-glycoprotein interactions US Medical PG Question 4: A 62-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because of a 4-hour history of abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and confusion. His wife reports that he had blurry vision on the way to the hospital. Two weeks ago, he lost his job and since then has been extremely worried about their financial situation and future. He has congestive heart failure and atrial fibrillation well controlled with combination medical therapy. His temperature is 36.5°C (97.7°F), pulse is 57/min and irregular, respirations are 14/min, and blood pressure is 118/63 mm Hg. The patient is oriented only to person. Serum studies show:
Na+ 138 mEq/L
Cl− 100 mEq/L
K+ 5.3 mEq/L
HCO3− 25 mEq/L
Blood urea nitrogen 14 mg/dL
Creatinine 0.9 mg/dL
An ECG shows premature ventricular beats. The drug most likely responsible for this patient's symptoms has which of the following mechanisms of action?
- A. Blockade of aldosterone receptors
- B. Blockade of beta-adrenergic receptors
- C. Inhibition of Na+/K+-ATPase (Correct Answer)
- D. Inhibition of Na+-K+-2Cl--cotransporters
- E. Inhibition of funny channels
P-glycoprotein interactions Explanation: ***Inhibition of Na+/K+-ATPase***
- The patient's symptoms (confusion, blurry vision, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, arrhythmia, hyperkalemia) are classic for **digoxin toxicity**, which occurs due to the inhibition of the **Na+/K+-ATPase pump**.
- Inhibition of this pump leads to increased intracellular calcium, enhancing cardiac contractility but also causing hyperexcitability and arrhythmias like **premature ventricular beats**.
*Blockade of aldosterone receptors*
- This mechanism is characteristic of **aldosterone antagonists** (e.g., spironolactone, eplerenone) which are often used in heart failure.
- While they can cause hyperkalemia, they typically do not cause the constellation of neurological (confusion, blurry vision) and gastrointestinal symptoms seen in this patient.
*Blockade of beta-adrenergic receptors*
- This is the mechanism of **beta-blockers** (e.g., carvedilol, metoprolol), also commonly used in heart failure and atrial fibrillation.
- Symptoms of beta-blocker overdose usually include bradycardia, hypotension, and bronchospasm, but not the prominent GI or blurry vision symptoms seen here.
*Inhibition of Na+-K+-2Cl--cotransporters*
- This mechanism belongs to **loop diuretics** (e.g., furosemide), often used in congestive heart failure.
- Loop diuretics primarily cause electrolyte imbalances such as hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia, and volume depletion, which does not match the patient's presentation of hyperkalemia and specific digoxin toxicity symptoms.
*Inhibition of funny channels*
- This is the mechanism of action of **ivabradine**, a selective inhibitor of the I_f current in the sinoatrial node, used to reduce heart rate in heart failure.
- While it can cause bradycardia, it is not associated with the severe GI distress, neurological symptoms, or hyperkalemia observed in this patient.
P-glycoprotein interactions US Medical PG Question 5: A pharmaceutical company is studying a new drug that inhibits the glucose transporter used by intestinal enterocytes to absorb glucose into the body. The drug was designed such that it would act upon the glucose transporter similarly to how cyanide acts upon cytochrome proteins. During pre-clinical studies, the behavior of this drug on the activity of the glucose transporter is examined. Specifically, enterocyte cells are treated with the drug and then glucose is added to the solution at a concentration that saturates the activity of the transporter. The transport velocity and affinity of the transporters under these conditions are then measured. Compared to the untreated state, which of the following changes would most likely be seen in these transporters after treatment?
- A. Unchanged Km and decreased Vmax (Correct Answer)
- B. Unchanged Km and unchanged Vmax
- C. Increased Km and unchanged Vmax
- D. Increased Km and decreased Vmax
- E. Decreased Km and decreased Vmax
P-glycoprotein interactions Explanation: ***Unchanged Km and decreased Vmax***
- The drug functions similarly to **cyanide**, which works as a **noncompetitive inhibitor** by binding irreversibly to a site other than the active site
- **Noncompetitive inhibition** results in a **decreased Vmax** (maximum transport velocity) because fewer active transporters are available, but the **Km (substrate affinity) remains unchanged** as the binding affinity of the remaining active transporters is unaffected
- This is the expected pattern when glucose is added at saturating concentrations in the presence of an irreversible noncompetitive inhibitor
*Unchanged Km and unchanged Vmax*
- This would imply no significant effect of the drug on the glucose transporter, which contradicts the drug's design as an inhibitor
- An unaffected Vmax suggests that the maximum transport rate is maintained, and an unchanged Km indicates unaltered affinity—neither of which aligns with the action of a noncompetitive inhibitor
*Increased Km and unchanged Vmax*
- An **increased Km** signifies a **decreased affinity** of the transporter for glucose, which is characteristic of **competitive inhibition**
- An **unchanged Vmax** means the maximum transport rate is still achievable at high substrate concentrations, as competitive inhibitors can be overcome by saturating substrate concentrations
- This pattern does not match the cyanide-like irreversible noncompetitive inhibitor described
*Increased Km and decreased Vmax*
- This pattern suggests **mixed inhibition** or **uncompetitive inhibition**, where both Km and Vmax are affected
- While Vmax is appropriately decreased, the increase in Km indicates reduced affinity, which is not the primary mechanism for a cyanide-like noncompetitive inhibitor that binds irreversibly to a separate site
*Decreased Km and decreased Vmax*
- A **decreased Km** would imply an **increased affinity** of the transporter for glucose, which is not expected from an inhibitor designed to reduce overall transport
- Although Vmax is appropriately decreased, the change in Km does not fit the typical profile of a noncompetitive inhibitor acting in a cyanide-like manner
P-glycoprotein interactions US Medical PG Question 6: A 55-year-old male presents to his primary care physician for a normal check-up. He has a history of atrial fibrillation for which he takes metoprolol and warfarin. During his last check-up, his international normalized ratio (INR) was 2.5. He reports that he recently traveled to Mexico for a business trip where he developed a painful red rash on his leg. He was subsequently prescribed an unknown medication by a local physician. The rash resolved after a few days and he currently feels well. His temperature is 98.6°F (37°C), blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg, pulse is 95/min, and respirations are 18/min. Laboratory analysis reveals that his current INR is 4.5. Which of the following is the most likely medication this patient took while in Mexico?
- A. Griseofulvin
- B. Rifampin
- C. St. John’s wort
- D. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Correct Answer)
- E. Phenobarbital
P-glycoprotein interactions Explanation: ***Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole***
- **Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole** is a potent inhibitor of **CYP2C9**, the primary enzyme responsible for metabolizing **warfarin**, leading to significantly increased INR and bleeding risk.
- The patient's **elevated INR (4.5)** from a previous stable level of 2.5 strongly suggests an interaction with a medication that inhibits warfarin metabolism, and trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole is a common culprit.
- TMP-SMX is commonly used to treat **cellulitis** and other skin infections, which aligns with the clinical presentation of a painful red rash.
*Griseofulvin*
- **Griseofulvin** is an antifungal agent that acts as a **CYP inducer**, which would *increase* warfarin metabolism and lead to a *decreased* INR, not the elevated INR seen in this patient.
- While it could treat fungal skin infections (e.g., tinea), it would cause the opposite effect on warfarin levels.
*Rifampin*
- **Rifampin** is a strong **CYP inducer**, meaning it would *increase* warfarin metabolism and thus *decrease* INR, leading to a higher risk of clotting, which is the opposite of what is seen in this patient.
- It is often used for tuberculosis or serious bacterial infections, not typically for a simple skin rash.
*St. John's wort*
- **St. John's wort** is a known **CYP inducer**, similar to rifampin, and would lead to a *decrease* in warfarin levels and INR.
- It is an herbal supplement primarily used for depression and would not typically be prescribed by a physician for a rash.
*Phenobarbital*
- **Phenobarbital** is a potent **CYP inducer**, which would *accelerate* warfarin metabolism and result in a *decreased* INR, increasing the risk of thrombosis.
- It is an anticonvulsant and sedative, not a medication typically prescribed for a rash.
P-glycoprotein interactions US Medical PG Question 7: A 78-year-old male comes to the physician’s office for a routine check-up. He complains of increased lower extremity swelling, inability to climb the one flight of stairs in his home, and waking up in the middle of the night 2-3 times gasping for breath. He has had to increase the number of pillows on which he sleeps at night. These symptoms started 9 months ago and have been progressing. The doctor starts him on a medication regimen, one of which changes his Starling curve from A to B as shown in the Figure. Which of the following medications is most consistent with this mechanism of action?
- A. Aspirin
- B. Furosemide
- C. Digoxin (Correct Answer)
- D. Metoprolol
- E. Hydrochlorothiazide
P-glycoprotein interactions Explanation: ***Digoxin***
- The patient's symptoms (lower extremity swelling, dyspnea on exertion, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea) are highly suggestive of **congestive heart failure (CHF)**.
- The Starling curve shifts from **A to B** with the medication, indicating an increase in stroke volume for a given left ventricular end-diastolic pressure, which is characteristic of an **inotropic effect**.
- **Digoxin** is a positive inotropic agent that increases cardiac contractility by inhibiting Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase, leading to increased intracellular calcium.
*Aspirin*
- Aspirin is an antiplatelet agent used for cardiovascular disease prevention, but it does not directly alter the Starling curve in the manner shown by improving cardiac contractility.
- It would not improve the symptoms of heart failure by increasing stroke volume.
*Furosemide*
- Furosemide is a loop diuretic that reduces preload (LV end-diastolic pressure) but does not directly improve cardiac contractility.
- On the Starling curve, a diuretic would shift the operating point to the left, not upward as shown from A to B.
*Metoprolol*
- Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that reduces heart rate and myocardial oxygen demand and can improve mortality in CHF, but it is a **negative inotrope**, reducing contractility acutely.
- It would not cause an immediate upward shift in the Starling curve representing increased stroke volume.
*Hydrochlorothiazide*
- Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that reduces preload by increasing sodium and water excretion, similar to furosemide but less potent.
- It would cause a leftward shift on the Starling curve, not an upward shift indicating improved contractility.
P-glycoprotein interactions US Medical PG Question 8: A previously healthy 52-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 3-month history of chest pain on exertion. She takes no medications. Cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. Cardiac stress ECG shows inducible ST-segment depressions in the precordial leads that coincide with the patient's report of chest pain and resolve upon cessation of exercise. Pharmacotherapy with verapamil is initiated. This drug is most likely to have which of the following sets of effects?
$$$ End-diastolic volume (EDV) %%% Blood pressure (BP) %%% Contractility %%% Heart rate (HR) $$$
- A. No change no change no change no change
- B. ↓ ↓ no change ↑
- C. ↓ ↓ ↓ ↑
- D. ↓ ↓ ↓ no change
- E. ↑ ↓ ↓ ↓ (Correct Answer)
P-glycoprotein interactions Explanation: ***↑ ↓ ↓ ↓***
- **Verapamil**, a **non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker**, reduces **cardiac contractility**, leading to decreased **heart rate** and **blood pressure**, while increasing **end-diastolic volume**.
- Its therapeutic effect in **exertional angina** is primarily due to reduced myocardial oxygen demand, achieved by decreasing **heart rate**, **contractility** (both leading to reduced work of heart), and **afterload** (due to vasodilation which decreases blood pressure).
*No change no change no change no change*
- This option is incorrect because verapamil has significant **pharmacological effects** on the cardiovascular system.
- Verapamil is prescribed to treat the patient's symptoms, implying a need for **hemodynamic changes**, not stasis.
*↓ ↓ no change ↑*
- Verapamil typically **decreases heart rate** due to its action on the sinoatrial (SA) node, making an increase unlikely.
- While it decreases **blood pressure** and **contractility**, the absence of an effect on heart rate and an increase in heart rate are inconsistent with verapamil's known pharmacology.
*↓ ↓ ↓ ↑*
- This option incorrectly suggests an **increase in heart rate**, whereas verapamil is known to cause a dose-dependent **decrease in heart rate**.
- The other parameters (decreased EDV, BP, contractility) are also not fully aligned with verapamil's effects; EDV tends to increase due to better filling time and reduced contractility.
*↓ ↓ ↓ no change*
- This option suggests a **decrease in EDV**, which is generally incorrect; verapamil tends to allow for **increased ventricular filling** due to a reduced heart rate and prolonged diastole.
- The absence of a change in heart rate is also incorrect, as verapamil is a known **negative chronotropic agent**.
P-glycoprotein interactions US Medical PG Question 9: A patient is receiving daily administrations of Compound X. Compound X is freely filtered in the glomeruli and undergoes net secretion in the renal tubules. The majority of this tubular secretion occurs in the proximal tubule. Additional information regarding this patient's renal function and the renal processing of Compound X is included below:
Inulin clearance: 120 mL/min
Plasma concentration of Inulin: 1 mg/mL
PAH clearance: 600 mL/min
Plasma concentration of PAH: 0.2 mg/mL
Total Tubular Secretion of Compound X: 60 mg/min
Net Renal Excretion of Compound X: 300 mg/min
Which of the following is the best estimate of the plasma concentration of Compound X in this patient?
- A. 2 mg/mL (Correct Answer)
- B. 3 mg/mL
- C. There is insufficient information available to estimate the plasma concentration of Compound X
- D. 1 mg/mL
- E. 0.5 mg/mL
P-glycoprotein interactions Explanation: ***2 mg/mL***
* The **net renal excretion of Compound X (300 mg/min)** is the sum of the filtered load and the net tubular secretion.
* Given that Compound X is **freely filtered** and undergoes **net secretion (60 mg/min)**, we can calculate the filtered load and subsequently its plasma concentration.
* **Net excretion = Filtered load + Net tubular secretion**
* **300 mg/min = Filtered load + 60 mg/min**
* **Filtered load = 300 mg/min - 60 mg/min = 240 mg/min**
* Since **Filtered load = Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR) * Plasma concentration (P_X)**, and GFR is estimated by **inulin clearance (120 mL/min)**:
* **240 mg/min = 120 mL/min * P_X**
* **P_X = 240 mg/min / 120 mL/min = 2 mg/mL**.
*3 mg/mL*
* This value would imply a significantly higher filtered load or a different contribution from tubular secretion.
* Calculations using this plasma concentration would not align with the provided excretion and secretion rates.
*There is insufficient information available to estimate the plasma concentration of Compound X*
* The problem provides all necessary values: **Inulin clearance (GFR)**, **net tubular secretion of Compound X**, and **net renal excretion of Compound X**.
* These parameters are sufficient to determine the filtered load and thus the plasma concentration of Compound X.
*1 mg/mL*
* A plasma concentration of 1 mg/mL would result in a lower filtered load than calculated and would not account for the observed net renal excretion.
* **Filtered load = 120 mL/min * 1 mg/mL = 120 mg/min**. Total excretion would then be 120 mg/min + 60 mg/min = 180 mg/min, which contradicts the given 300 mg/min.
*0.5 mg/mL*
* This plasma concentration would lead to an even lower filtered load, making it impossible to achieve the *net renal excretion of Compound X* given the tubular secretion.
* **Filtered load = 120 mL/min * 0.5 mg/mL = 60 mg/min**. Total excretion would be 60 mg/min + 60 mg/min = 120 mg/min, which is much lower than the given 300 mg/min.
P-glycoprotein interactions US Medical PG Question 10: A 72-year-old man with congestive heart failure is brought to the emergency department because of chest pain, shortness of breath, dizziness, and palpitations for 30 minutes. An ECG shows a wide complex tachycardia with a P-wave rate of 105/min, an R-wave rate of 130/min, and no apparent relation between the two. Intravenous pharmacotherapy is initiated with a drug that prolongs the QRS and QT intervals. The patient was most likely treated with which of the following drugs?
- A. Carvedilol
- B. Verapamil
- C. Flecainide
- D. Quinidine (Correct Answer)
- E. Sotalol
P-glycoprotein interactions Explanation: **Quinidine**
- Quinidine is a **Class IA antiarrhythmic** that blocks fast sodium channels, prolonging both the **QRS complex** (due to slowed conduction) and the **QT interval** (due to prolonged repolarization).
- The ECG findings of **wide-complex tachycardia** and **AV dissociation** (P-wave rate different from R-wave rate without apparent relation) are consistent with ventricular tachycardia, which Class IA drugs can treat.
*Carvedilol*
- Carvedilol is a **beta-blocker** (Class II antiarrhythmic) that primarily slows heart rate and AV nodal conduction, generally **shortening the QT interval** or having no effect, and would not widen the QRS complex.
- Beta-blockers are typically contraindicated in **decompensated heart failure** and **wide-complex tachycardia** due to their negative inotropic effects and risk of worsening decompensation.
*Verapamil*
- Verapamil is a **non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker** (Class IV antiarrhythmic) that mainly slows AV nodal conduction. It would not cause QRS widening and can shorten the QT interval.
- Verapamil is generally contraindicated in **wide-complex tachycardias** of unknown origin as it can precipitate cardiovascular collapse if the arrhythmia is ventricular.
*Flecainide*
- Flecainide is a **Class IC antiarrhythmic** that primarily blocks fast sodium channels, causing significant **QRS widening** but has **minimal effect on the QT interval**, which is contrary to the case description.
- Class IC agents are also generally avoided in patients with **structural heart disease** like congestive heart failure due to increased mortality risk.
*Sotalol*
- Sotalol is a **Class III antiarrhythmic** (beta-blocker with potassium channel blockade) that primarily prolongs the **QT interval** by blocking potassium channels. While it prolongs the QT, it does **not significantly widen the QRS complex**.
- Its beta-blocking effects could exacerbate **decompensated heart failure** in this patient, similar to carvedilol.
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