Combination antihypertensive therapy US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice US Medical PG questions for Combination antihypertensive therapy. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Combination antihypertensive therapy US Medical PG Question 1: A 54-year-old African American man presents to the clinic for his first annual well-check. He was unemployed for years but recently received health insurance from a new job. He reports feeling healthy and has no complaints. His blood pressure is 157/90 mmHg, pulse is 86/min, and respirations are 12/min. Routine urinalysis demonstrated a mild increase in albumin and creatinine. What medication is indicated at this time?
- A. Hydrochlorothiazide
- B. Metoprolol
- C. Furosemide
- D. Lisinopril (Correct Answer)
- E. Amlodipine
Combination antihypertensive therapy Explanation: ***Lisinopril***
- This patient presents with **hypertension (157/90 mmHg)** and **mild albuminuria with elevated creatinine**, indicating early chronic kidney disease (CKD). An **ACE inhibitor (e.g., lisinopril)** is the first-line treatment for hypertension in **any patient with CKD or proteinuria**, regardless of race or ethnicity.
- ACE inhibitors are **renoprotective** by reducing intraglomerular pressure and slowing progression of kidney disease. The presence of albuminuria represents a **compelling indication** that overrides other considerations for initial antihypertensive selection.
- Note: While ACE inhibitors are typically **less effective** as monotherapy in African Americans without compelling indications, the presence of CKD/proteinuria makes them the preferred agent.
*Hydrochlorothiazide*
- While a **thiazide diuretic** like hydrochlorothiazide would be an appropriate first-line agent for this African American patient with uncomplicated hypertension, it is **less effective** than an ACE inhibitor in patients with **proteinuria or kidney disease**.
- It does not offer the same degree of **renoprotection** as an ACE inhibitor in this clinical scenario with documented albuminuria.
*Metoprolol*
- **Beta-blockers** like metoprolol are effective antihypertensives but are generally **not considered first-line** for uncomplicated hypertension unless there are compelling indications like heart failure, angina, or history of myocardial infarction.
- They also do not provide the specific **renoprotective benefits** seen with ACE inhibitors in patients with albuminuria.
*Furosemide*
- **Loop diuretics** such as furosemide are potent diuretics primarily used for managing **symptoms of fluid overload** (e.g., heart failure, severe edema) and are not typically the first choice for chronic hypertension without such indications.
- For patients with **mild kidney impairment and hypertension without volume overload**, an ACE inhibitor is preferred for its renoprotective effects.
*Amlodipine*
- **Calcium channel blockers** like amlodipine are effective antihypertensives and would typically be an excellent first-line choice for an African American patient with hypertension.
- However, for this patient with **documented albuminuria**, an ACE inhibitor is preferred due to its **specific renoprotective effects** and proven benefit in slowing CKD progression, which amlodipine does not provide.
Combination antihypertensive therapy US Medical PG Question 2: A 67-year-old man with a history of diabetes mellitus type II and a previous myocardial infarction presents to your office for a routine examination. His blood pressure is found to be 180/100 mmHg. Which drug is the first-line choice of treatment for this patient's hypertension?
- A. Hydrochlorothiazide
- B. Prazosin
- C. Lisinopril (Correct Answer)
- D. Isoproterenol
- E. Amlodipine
Combination antihypertensive therapy Explanation: ***Lisinopril***
- **ACE inhibitors** (like lisinopril) are first-line for patients with hypertension and **diabetes mellitus** due to their **renal protective effects** and ability to slow the progression of diabetic nephropathy.
- They are also beneficial post-myocardial infarction as they **reduce ventricular remodeling** and improve long-term outcomes.
*Hydrochlorothiazide*
- While **thiazide diuretics** can be used for hypertension, they may **worsen glucose control** in diabetic patients and are not preferred as first-line in the presence of diabetes and a history of MI.
- They primarily act by reducing blood volume and peripheral resistance but lack the specific **cardio-renal protective benefits** of ACE inhibitors.
*Prazosin*
- **Alpha-1 blockers** like prazosin are generally not recommended as first-line monotherapy for hypertension due to potential side effects such as **orthostatic hypotension** and a higher risk of cardiovascular events compared to other classes.
- Their use is typically reserved for patients with concomitant **benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)** or as add-on therapy.
*Isoproterenol*
- **Isoproterenol** is a non-selective beta-agonist primarily used for **bradycardia** or **heart block**, not for the treatment of hypertension.
- It would actually **increase heart rate and contractility**, exacerbating hypertension rather than treating it.
*Amlodipine*
- **Calcium channel blockers** like amlodipine are effective antihypertensives and can be used in patients with diabetes, but **ACE inhibitors** are generally preferred as first-line in patients with both diabetes and a history of MI due to their direct **renoprotective** and **cardioprotective** benefits.
- While effective for blood pressure control, amlodipine does not offer the same degree of **renal benefit** in diabetic nephropathy or post-MI remodeling as ACE inhibitors.
Combination antihypertensive therapy US Medical PG Question 3: A 55-year-old man presents to his primary care physician for a wellness checkup. He states that he generally feels well and has no complaints at this time. The patient consumes alcohol frequently, eats a high sodium diet, and is sedentary. His temperature is 97.5°F (36.4°C), blood pressure is 167/108 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, respirations are 15/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. The patient is 5'10" tall and weighs 220 lbs (BMI 31.5 kg/m²). The patient's blood pressure at his last 2 appointments were 159/100 mmHg and 162/99 mmHg, respectively. His physician wants to intervene to manage his blood pressure. Which of the following is the most effective lifestyle intervention for this patient's hypertension?
- A. Exercise
- B. DASH diet (Correct Answer)
- C. Reduce alcohol consumption
- D. Sodium restriction
- E. Weight loss
Combination antihypertensive therapy Explanation: ***DASH diet***
- The **DASH (Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension) diet** is a comprehensive dietary plan rich in fruits, vegetables, and low-fat dairy, and reduced in saturated and total fats. It is the most effective single lifestyle intervention for reducing **blood pressure (BP)**.
- This patient has **stage 2 hypertension** and multiple risk factors including obesity, frequent alcohol consumption, and a high-sodium diet, making a holistic dietary approach crucial for significant BP reduction.
*Exercise*
- While **regular exercise** is beneficial for overall cardiovascular health and can help manage hypertension, it is generally less effective than the DASH diet for initial, significant **blood pressure reduction** in a patient with stage 2 hypertension.
- The patient's **sedentary lifestyle** contributes to his hypertension, but exercise alone may not achieve the desired BP control as effectively as a comprehensive dietary change.
*Reduce alcohol consumption*
- **Excessive alcohol intake** is a risk factor for hypertension, and reducing consumption can lower blood pressure. However, its effect is typically less pronounced compared to the **DASH diet** in achieving major BP reductions.
- The patient's "frequent" alcohol consumption suggests this is an important area for intervention, but it's part of a broader lifestyle modification rather than the single most effective treatment.
*Sodium restriction*
- A **high sodium diet** is a significant contributor to hypertension, and **sodium restriction** is a key component of managing blood pressure. However, the DASH diet inherently incorporates sodium restriction along with other beneficial dietary changes.
- While important, focusing solely on sodium restriction often yields less comprehensive and sustained BP reduction compared to the **multi-faceted approach** of the DASH diet.
*Weight loss*
- Given the patient's **obesity (BMI 31.5 kg/m²)**, **weight loss** is a critical intervention for blood pressure control and overall health.
- However, achieving significant weight loss often requires a combination of dietary changes and increased physical activity, making the **DASH diet** a more direct and often more achievable initial step for BP reduction.
Combination antihypertensive therapy US Medical PG Question 4: A 34-year-old man is being evaluated in an emergency clinic for dizziness and headache after a stressful event at work. He also reports that his face often becomes swollen and he occasionally has difficulty breathing during these spells. Family history is significant for his father who died of a stroke and his mother who often suffers from similar facial swelling. The patient’s blood pressure is 170/80 mm Hg. On physical examination, the patient appears well. Which of the following medications is most likely contraindicated in this patient?
- A. The patient has no contraindications.
- B. Enalapril (Correct Answer)
- C. Sulfadiazine
- D. Penicillin
- E. Losartan
Combination antihypertensive therapy Explanation: **Enalapril**
- The patient's presentation with recurrent facial swelling, occasional difficulty breathing, and a family history of similar symptoms in his mother and stroke in his father is highly suggestive of **hereditary angioedema (HAE)**.
- **ACE inhibitors**, such as enalapril, are absolutely contraindicated in patients with HAE because they increase bradykinin levels, which can precipitate or worsen angioedema attacks.
*The patient has no contraindications.*
- The patient's history of recurrent angioedema episodes and a significant family history strongly suggest an underlying condition, likely HAE, which has clear contraindications for certain medications.
- Dismissing contraindications without further investigation into the cause of his angioedema would be unsafe and medically negligent.
*Sulfadiazine*
- **Sulfonamide antibiotics** are not directly contraindicated in HAE.
- While some individuals may have allergies to sulfa drugs, there is no specific link between sulfadiazine and triggering HAE attacks.
*Penicillin*
- Penicillin is a **beta-lactam antibiotic** and is not known to exacerbate or be contraindicated in hereditary angioedema.
- Allergic reactions to penicillin are common, but this is a Type I hypersensitivity, distinct from bradykinin-mediated angioedema.
*Losartan*
- **Angiotensin Receptor Blockers (ARBs)** like losartan generally do not significantly increase bradykinin levels and are typically considered a safer alternative to ACE inhibitors in patients who might develop ACE inhibitor–induced angioedema.
- While rare cases of ARB-induced angioedema have been reported, the risk is considerably lower than with ACE inhibitors, making it a less likely contraindication in this context.
Combination antihypertensive therapy US Medical PG Question 5: A 56-year-old Caucasian male presents to the clinic to establish care. He has never seen a physician and denies any known medical problems. Physical examination is notable for central obesity, but the patient has regular heart and lung sounds. He has a blood pressure of 157/95 mm Hg and heart rate of 92/min. He follows up 2 weeks later, and his blood pressure continues to be elevated. At this time, you diagnose him with essential hypertension and decide to initiate antihypertensive therapy. Per the Joint National Committee 8 guidelines for treatment of high blood pressure, of the following combinations of drugs, which can be considered for first-line treatment of high blood pressure in the Caucasian population?
- A. ACE inhibitor, ARB, CCB, or thiazide (Correct Answer)
- B. ACE inhibitor, angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB), beta-blocker (BB), or thiazide
- C. ACE inhibitor, ARB, CCB, or loop diuretic
- D. ACE inhibitor, ARB, alpha-blocker, or loop diuretic
- E. ACE inhibitor, ARB, alpha-blocker, or direct vasodilator
Combination antihypertensive therapy Explanation: **ACE inhibitor, ARB, CCB, or thiazide**
- The **JNC 8 guidelines** recommend **ACE inhibitors**, **ARBs**, **calcium channel blockers (CCBs)**, and **thiazide diuretics** as first-line agents for essential hypertension in the general non-Black population.
- These drug classes have demonstrated efficacy in reducing cardiovascular events and are generally well-tolerated.
*ACE inhibitor, angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB), beta-blocker (BB), or thiazide*
- While **ACE inhibitors**, **ARBs**, and **thiazides** are first-line, **beta-blockers** are generally not considered first-line for uncomplicated hypertension unless there are specific compelling indications (e.g., post-MI, heart failure).
- **Beta-blockers** are less effective than other first-line agents in preventing stroke in the elderly and may have more side effects in some populations.
*ACE inhibitor, ARB, CCB or loop diuretic*
- **ACE inhibitors**, **ARBs**, and **CCBs** are first-line options, but **loop diuretics** are typically reserved for patients with fluid overload or chronic kidney disease, not for initial management of essential hypertension.
- **Loop diuretics** have a shorter duration of action and a greater electrolyte-wasting effect compared to thiazide diuretics, making them less suitable for long-term monotherapy.
*ACE inhibitor, ARB, alpha-blocker, or loop diuretic*
- **Alpha-blockers** and **loop diuretics** are not considered first-line agents for essential hypertension. **Alpha-blockers** are typically used for benign prostatic hyperplasia or as add-on therapy for resistant hypertension.
- **Alpha-blockers** can cause significant orthostatic hypotension, particularly with the first dose, and have not shown the same cardiovascular protective benefits as true first-line agents.
*ACE inhibitor, ARB, alpha-blocker, or direct vasodilator*
- **Alpha-blockers** and **direct vasodilators** (e.g., hydralazine, minoxidil) are not first-line treatments for essential hypertension.
- **Direct vasodilators** are potent but often cause reflex tachycardia and fluid retention, requiring co-administration with other agents, and are typically reserved for severe or resistant hypertension.
Combination antihypertensive therapy US Medical PG Question 6: A 56-year-old man presents to the family medicine office since he has been having difficulty keeping his blood pressure under control for the past month. He has a significant medical history of hypertension, coronary artery disease, and diabetes mellitus. He has a prescription for losartan, atenolol, and metformin. The blood pressure is 178/100 mm Hg, the heart rate is 92/min, and the respiratory rate is 16/min. The physical examination is positive for a grade II holosystolic murmur at the left sternal border. He also has diminished sensation in his toes. Which of the following statements is the most effective means of communication between the doctor and the patient?
- A. “What is causing your blood pressure to be elevated?” (Correct Answer)
- B. “Have you been taking your medications as prescribed?”
- C. “Would you like us to consider trying a different medication for your blood pressure?”
- D. “You are taking your medications as prescribed, aren’t you?”
- E. “Why are you not taking your medication?”
Combination antihypertensive therapy Explanation: ***“What is causing your blood pressure to be elevated?”***
- This is an **open-ended question** that encourages the patient to share their perspective, concerns, and potential reasons for the elevated blood pressure, fostering a **patient-centered approach**.
- It allows the physician to understand the patient's individual circumstances, medication adherence, lifestyle factors, or other contributing issues without being judgmental or leading.
*“Have you been taking your medications as prescribed?”*
- This is a **closed-ended question** that primarily elicits a "yes" or "no" answer, providing limited insight into the patient's actual adherence and the underlying reasons for non-adherence.
- While important, phrasing it this way might make the patient feel interrogated or judged, potentially hindering honest communication.
*“Would you like us to consider trying a different medication for your blood pressure?”*
- This question prematurely jumps to a solution without fully understanding the cause of the elevated blood pressure and the patient's perspective.
- It bypasses the crucial step of investigating potential reasons for poor blood pressure control, which could include non-adherence, lifestyle factors, or secondary hypertension, rather than necessarily a medication efficacy issue.
*“You are taking your medications as prescribed, aren’t you?”*
- This is a **leading question** that implies an expectation and can make the patient feel pressured to answer affirmatively, even if they are not consistently taking their medication.
- Such phrasing can create a defensive environment and discourage the patient from openly discussing adherence challenges.
*“Why are you not taking your medication?”*
- This is a **direct and accusatory question** that implies blame and can immediately put the patient on the defensive, making them less likely to be honest or forthcoming about their medication habits.
- It fails to create a supportive or collaborative atmosphere, which is essential for effective patient-physician communication.
Combination antihypertensive therapy US Medical PG Question 7: A 61-year-old obese man with recently diagnosed hypertension returns to his primary care provider for a follow-up appointment and blood pressure check. He reports feeling well with no changes since starting his new blood pressure medication 1 week ago. His past medical history is noncontributory. Besides his blood pressure medication, he takes atorvastatin and a daily multivitamin. The patient reports a 25-pack-year smoking history and is a social drinker on weekends. Today his physical exam is normal. Vital signs and laboratory results are provided in the table.
Laboratory test
2 weeks ago Today
Blood pressure 159/87 mm Hg Blood pressure 164/90 mm Hg
Heart rate 90/min Heart rate 92/min
Sodium 140 mE/L Sodium 142 mE/L
Potassium 3.1 mE/L Potassium 4.3 mE/L
Chloride 105 mE/L Chloride 103 mE/L
Carbon dioxide 23 mE/L Carbon dioxide 22 mE/L
BUN 15 mg/dL BUN 22 mg/dL
Creatinine 0.80 mg/dL Creatinine 1.8 mg/dL
Magnetic resonance angiography (MRA) shows a bilateral narrowing of renal arteries. Which of the following is most likely this patient's new medication that caused his acute renal failure?
- A. Clonidine
- B. Verapamil
- C. Hydralazine
- D. Captopril (Correct Answer)
- E. Hydrochlorothiazide
Combination antihypertensive therapy Explanation: ***Captopril***
- The patient has **bilateral renal artery stenosis** and develops **acute renal failure** after starting a new blood pressure medication. **ACE inhibitors** (like captopril) and **angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs)** are nephrotoxic in such patients.
- In bilateral renal artery stenosis, the kidneys rely on **angiotensin II** to constrict the efferent arterioles, maintaining **glomerular filtration pressure**. ACE inhibitors block angiotensin II production, leading to a significant drop in glomerular filtration and acute kidney injury.
*Clonidine*
- Clonidine is an **alpha-2 adrenergic agonist** that lowers blood pressure by reducing sympathetic outflow from the central nervous system.
- It is **not directly nephrotoxic** and would not typically cause acute renal failure, especially in the context of renal artery stenosis.
*Verapamil*
- Verapamil is a **non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker** that reduces heart rate and blood pressure.
- While it can affect renal hemodynamics, it does not typically cause **acute renal failure** or have a contraindication in bilateral renal artery stenosis like ACE inhibitors.
*Hydralazine*
- Hydralazine is a **direct arterial vasodilator** that lowers blood pressure.
- It is **not associated with acute renal failure** in the setting of renal artery stenosis and would not acutely worsen kidney function.
*Hydrochlorothiazide*
- Hydrochlorothiazide is a **thiazide diuretic** that lowers blood pressure by increasing sodium and water excretion.
- While it can cause **prerenal azotemia** due to volume depletion, it does not directly lead to the severe acute renal failure seen with ACE inhibitors in bilateral renal artery stenosis.
Combination antihypertensive therapy US Medical PG Question 8: A 27-year-old G1P0 woman at 25 weeks estimated gestational age presents with a blood pressure of 188/99 mm Hg during a routine prenatal visit. She has no symptoms, except for a mild headache. The patient's heart rate is 78/min. An injectable antihypertensive along with a beta-blocker is administered, and her blood pressure returns to normal within a couple of hours. She is sent home with advice to continue the beta-blocker. The patient returns after a couple of weeks with joint pain in both of her knees and fatigue. A blood test for anti-histone antibodies is positive. Which of the following is the mechanism of action of the intravenous antihypertensive medication most likely used in this patient?
- A. Potassium channel activation
- B. Calcium channel antagonism
- C. Release endogenous nitric oxide
- D. Interference with action of inositol trisphosphate (IP3) on intracellular calcium release (Correct Answer)
- E. Inhibition of phosphodiesterase enzyme
Combination antihypertensive therapy Explanation: ***Interference with action of inositol trisphosphate (IP3) on intracellular calcium release***
- The clinical presentation of hypertension, especially during pregnancy, followed by **joint pain** and ** positive anti-histone antibodies**, strongly suggests **drug-induced lupus**.
- **Hydralazine** is a common cause of **drug-induced lupus** and acts by interfering with **IP3-mediated calcium release**, causing **vasodilatation**.
*Potassium channel activation*
- Medications like **minoxidil** and **diazoxide** activate potassium channels, leading to **hyperpolarization** and **vasorelaxation**.
- While effective antihypertensives, they are not typically associated with **drug-induced lupus**.
*Calcium channel antagonism*
- **Calcium channel blockers** (e.g., nifedipine, amlodipine) reduce intracellular calcium, leading to **smooth muscle relaxation**.
- These medications are generally safe in pregnancy but are not linked to **anti-histone antibody formation** or **drug-induced lupus**.
*Release endogenous nitrous oxide*
- **Nitrates** (e.g., nitroglycerin) release **nitric oxide**, which activates **guanylyl cyclase** and leads to **vasodilatation**.
- While used in hypertensive emergencies, they are not a common cause of **drug-induced lupus**.
*Inhibition of phosphodiesterase enzyme*
- **Phosphodiesterase inhibitors** (e.g., sildenafil) increase intracellular levels of **cAMP** or **cGMP**, leading to **vasodilatation**.
- These drugs are not the primary treatment for acute severe hypertension in pregnancy and do not typically cause **drug-induced lupus**.
Combination antihypertensive therapy US Medical PG Question 9: A 72-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of blurry vision for the past 3 days. He has also had 4 episodes of right-sided headaches over the past month. He has no significant past medical history. His father died of coronary artery disease at the age of 62 years. His temperature is 37.2°C (99°F), pulse is 94/min, and blood pressure is 232/128 mm Hg. Fundoscopy shows right-sided optic disc blurring and retinal hemorrhages. A medication is given immediately. Five minutes later, his pulse is 75/min and blood pressure is 190/105 mm Hg. Which of the following drugs was most likely administered?
- A. Nicardipine
- B. Hydralazine
- C. Nitroprusside
- D. Fenoldopam
- E. Labetalol (Correct Answer)
Combination antihypertensive therapy Explanation: ***Labetalol***
- This patient presents with **malignant hypertension** given the severely elevated blood pressure (232/128 mm Hg) and signs of **end-organ damage** (blurry vision, optic disc blurring, retinal hemorrhages suggesting hypertensive retinopathy, and new-onset headaches).
- **Labetalol** is a mixed alpha- and beta-blocker commonly used in hypertensive emergencies because of its **rapid onset of action** and ability to effectively lower blood pressure without causing significant reflex tachycardia. The decrease in pulse rate from 94/min to 75/min after administration is consistent with its beta-blocking effects.
*Nicardipine*
- **Nicardipine** is a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker that primarily causes **vasodilation**, making it effective in hypertensive emergencies.
- While it would lower blood pressure, it typically causes **reflex tachycardia** due to vasodilation, which is not observed in this patient (pulse decreased).
*Hydralazine*
- **Hydralazine** is a direct arterial vasodilator often used in hypertensive emergencies, but it typically causes a more pronounced **reflex tachycardia** than calcium channel blockers.
- Its onset of action can also be less predictable, and its use is generally avoided if there's evidence of **coronary artery disease** due to the risk of increased myocardial oxygen demand.
*Nitroprusside*
- **Nitroprusside** is a powerful balanced arterial and venous vasodilator, leading to a rapid and significant drop in blood pressure.
- It is known for causing **reflex tachycardia** and has a risk of **cyanide toxicity** with prolonged use, making its use in this scenario less ideal given the patient's existing elevated pulse.
*Fenoldopam*
- **Fenoldopam** is a dopamine-1 receptor agonist that causes vasodilation and improves renal blood flow, useful in hypertensive emergencies.
- Like other vasodilators, it can cause **reflex tachycardia** and may lead to increased intraocular pressure, which would be a concern in a patient with acute blurry vision.
Combination antihypertensive therapy US Medical PG Question 10: A 42-year-old man presents to his primary care physician for preventative care. He does not have any current complaint. His father died of diabetic nephropathy. Vital signs include a temperature of 36.7°C (98.06°F), blood pressure of 150/95 mm Hg, and pulse of 90/min. His fasting blood glucose is 159 mg/dL (on 2 occasions) and HbA1c is 8.1%. The patient is started on metformin and lifestyle modifications. 3 months later, he comes for a follow-up visit. His serum blood glucose is 370 mg/dL and HbA1C is 11%. The patient currently complains of weight loss and excessive urination. Which of the following is the optimal therapy for this patient?
- A. A thiazolidinedione added to metformin
- B. Basal-bolus insulin (Correct Answer)
- C. Basal insulin added to metformin
- D. A sulfonylurea added to metformin
- E. A sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 inhibitor added to metformin
Combination antihypertensive therapy Explanation: ***Basal-bolus insulin***
- This patient presents with an HbA1C of 11% and symptoms of **polyuria** and **weight loss**, indicating significant hyperglycemia. Due to the high HbA1c and symptomatic presentation despite initial metformin and lifestyle modifications, **aggressive glucose lowering** is required to prevent acute complications and long-term organ damage.
- Basal-bolus insulin therapy provides both continuous basal insulin to control fasting glucose and prandial boluses to manage post-meal glucose spikes, offering the most comprehensive and effective glucose control in severe hyperglycemia.
*A thiazolidinedione added to metformin*
- Thiazolidinediones (TZDs) like pioglitazone improve insulin sensitivity and are used as a second-line agent, but they have a **slow onset of action** and are generally insufficient for patients with such severe hyperglycemia (HbA1c 11%).
- TZDs can take several weeks to reach maximal effect and are not potent enough for immediate and significant glucose reduction in symptomatic patients with markedly elevated HbA1c.
*Basal insulin added to metformin*
- While adding basal insulin to metformin is a common step for patients whose HbA1c is a few points above target, an HbA1c of 11% with symptoms of weight loss and polyuria indicates **more severe insulin deficiency** or resistance requiring more comprehensive insulin replacement.
- Basal insulin alone would not adequately address post-prandial hyperglycemia, which is likely contributing significantly to the overall high HbA1c.
*A sulfonylurea added to metformin*
- Sulfonylureas stimulate insulin release from pancreatic beta cells, but their efficacy is limited, and they carry a risk of **hypoglycemia** and weight gain.
- Given the patient's very high HbA1c of 11%, sulfonylureas would likely be insufficient to achieve target glycemic control and might lead to significant side effects without achieving adequate glucose lowering.
*A sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 inhibitor added to metformin*
- SGLT2 inhibitors promote glucose excretion in the urine and offer cardiovascular and renal benefits, but they are generally less potent in reducing HbA1c compared to insulin, especially in patients with severe hyperglycemia.
- While beneficial for some, they would not provide the rapid and substantial glucose reduction needed for a patient with an HbA1c of 11% and acute symptoms.
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