Global vaccination programs US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice US Medical PG questions for Global vaccination programs. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Global vaccination programs US Medical PG Question 1: A 40-year-old pregnant woman, G4 P3, visits your office at week 30 of gestation. She is very excited about her pregnancy and wants to be the healthiest she can be in preparation for labor and for her baby. What vaccination should she receive at this visit?
- A. Measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR)
- B. Varicella vaccine
- C. Herpes zoster vaccine
- D. Live attenuated influenza vaccine
- E. Tetanus, diphtheria, and acellular pertussis (Tdap) (Correct Answer)
Global vaccination programs Explanation: ***Tetanus, diphtheria, and acellular pertussis (Tdap)***
- The Tdap vaccine is recommended during each pregnancy, preferably between **27 and 36 weeks of gestation**, to maximize maternal antibody response and passive antibody transfer to the fetus.
- This provides critical protection against **pertussis (whooping cough)** for the newborn, who is too young to be vaccinated.
*Measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR)*
- The **MMR vaccine is a live vaccine** and is **contraindicated during pregnancy** due to the theoretical risk of congenital rubella syndrome, although no cases have been reported.
- It should be administered **postpartum** if the mother is not immune to rubella.
*Varicella vaccine*
- The **varicella vaccine is a live vaccine** and is **contraindicated during pregnancy** due to the theoretical risk of congenital varicella syndrome.
- Like MMR, it should be offered in the **postpartum period** if the woman is not immune.
*Herpes zoster vaccine*
- The herpes zoster vaccine is typically recommended for **older adults** (50 years and older) for shingles prevention.
- It is **not routinely recommended during pregnancy**, and its safety and efficacy in this population have not been sufficiently established.
*Live attenuated influenza vaccine*
- The **live attenuated influenza vaccine (LAIV)** is **contraindicated during pregnancy** due to its live virus content.
- Pregnant women should receive the **inactivated influenza vaccine (IIV)**, which is safe and recommended during any trimester.
Global vaccination programs US Medical PG Question 2: A 12-month-old girl is brought to her pediatrician for a checkup and vaccines. The patient’s mother wants to send her to daycare but is worried about exposure to unvaccinated children and other potential sources of infection. The toddler was born at 39 weeks gestation via spontaneous vaginal delivery. She is up to date on all vaccines. She does not walk yet but stands in place and can say a few words. The toddler drinks formula and eats a mixture of soft vegetables and pureed meals. She has no current medications. On physical exam, the vital signs include: temperature 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure 95/50 mm Hg, pulse 130/min, and respiratory rate 28/min. The patient is alert and responsive. The remainder of the exam is unremarkable. Which of the following is most appropriate for this patient at this visit?
- A. Meningococcal vaccine
- B. Gross motor workup and evaluation
- C. Rotavirus vaccine
- D. Referral for speech pathology
- E. MMR vaccine (Correct Answer)
Global vaccination programs Explanation: ***MMR vaccine***
- The **measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine** is recommended for administration at **12-15 months of age**.
- This timing offers protection against these common childhood diseases, which is especially important for children attending **daycare**.
*Meningococcal vaccine*
- The routine **meningococcal vaccine (MenACWY)** is typically recommended for adolescents at **11-12 years of age**, with a booster at 16 years.
- While there are specific circumstances for earlier vaccination (e.g., high-risk conditions), it is **not routine** for a 12-month-old.
*Gross motor workup and evaluation*
- The patient's motor development, standing in place but not yet walking, is **within the normal range** for a 12-month-old.
- A definitive **gross motor workup** would generally be considered if there were more significant delays or regressions.
*Rotavirus vaccine*
- The **rotavirus vaccine** series is typically given at **2, 4, and 6 months of age**, with the final dose administered no later than **8 months of age**.
- A 12-month-old is **outside the recommended age range** for initiating or completing this vaccine series.
*Referral for speech pathology*
- Saying "a few words" at 12 months is **within the normal developmental milestone** for expressive language at this age.
- A referral for **speech pathology** would generally be indicated for more significant language delays.
Global vaccination programs US Medical PG Question 3: A 2-year-old boy is brought in by his parents to his pediatrician. The boy was born by spontaneous vaginal delivery at 39 weeks and 5 days after a normal pregnancy. The boy has received all age-appropriate vaccinations as of his last visit at 18 months of age. Of note, the boy has confirmed sickle cell disease and the only medication he takes is penicillin prophylaxis. The parents state that they plan on enrolling their son in a daycare, which requires documentation of up-to-date vaccinations. The pediatrician states that their son needs an additional vaccination at this visit, which is a polysaccharide vaccine that is not conjugated to protein. Which of the following matches this description?
- A. Pneumovax (Correct Answer)
- B. Menactra
- C. Prevnar
- D. Hib vaccine
- E. Live attenuated influenza vaccine
Global vaccination programs Explanation: ***Pneumovax***
- **Pneumovax** (PCV23, PPSV23) is a **polysaccharide vaccine** that is not conjugated to a protein carrier. Children with **sickle cell disease** should receive this vaccine due to their immunocompromised state and increased risk of encapsulated bacterial infections.
- The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommends PPSV23 for children aged 2 years and older with chronic medical conditions such as **sickle cell disease**, usually administered 8 weeks after their last PCV13 dose.
*Menactra*
- **Menactra** is a **quadrivalent meningococcal conjugate vaccine** (MCV4), meaning it contains a polysaccharide antigen conjugated to a protein carrier.
- This vaccine primarily targets *Neisseria meningitidis* and is different from the pneumococcal vaccine required here.
*Prevnar*
- **Prevnar** (PCV13) is a **pneumococcal conjugate vaccine**, meaning its polysaccharide antigens are conjugated to a protein carrier.
- While important for children with sickle cell disease, the question specifically asks for a vaccination that is a **polysaccharide vaccine that is not conjugated to protein**.
*Hib vaccine*
- The **Hib vaccine** (against *Haemophilus influenzae* type b) is a **conjugate vaccine**, meaning its polysaccharide capsule is linked to a protein carrier to enhance immunogenicity, particularly in infants.
- This vaccine is typically given earlier in childhood and is not the "additional" unconjugated polysaccharide vaccine described.
*Live attenuated influenza vaccine*
- The **live attenuated influenza vaccine (LAIV)** is a live virus vaccine, not a polysaccharide vaccine.
- It is also contraindicated in individuals with certain immunocompromising conditions, such as some patients with sickle cell disease.
Global vaccination programs US Medical PG Question 4: A 21-year-old gravida 1, para 0 woman presents to the family medicine clinic for her first prenatal appointment. She states that she has been taking folic acid supplements daily as directed by her mother. She smokes a few cigarettes a day and has done so for the last 5 years. Pediatric records indicate the patient is measles, mumps, and rubella non-immune. Her heart rate is 78/min, respiratory rate is 14/min, temperature is 36.5°C (97.7°F), and blood pressure is 112/70 mm Hg. Her calculated BMI is approximately 26 kg/m2. Her heart is without murmurs and lung sounds are clear bilaterally. Standard prenatal testing is ordered. Which of the following is the next best step for this patient’s prenatal care?
- A. MMR vaccine during pregnancy
- B. Serology, then vaccine postpartum
- C. MMR vaccine postpartum (Correct Answer)
- D. Serology, then vaccine during pregnancy
- E. MMR vaccine and immune globulin postpartum
Global vaccination programs Explanation: ***MMR vaccine postpartum***
- The **MMR vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine** and therefore **contraindicated during pregnancy** due to the theoretical risk of fetal infection and congenital rubella syndrome.
- Vaccinating postpartum ensures the mother develops immunity without any risk to the current pregnancy, and it's also safe for breastfeeding.
*MMR vaccine during pregnancy*
- Administering a **live attenuated vaccine** like MMR during pregnancy is generally avoided due to the **theoretical risk of teratogenicity**.
- While documented cases of congenital rubella syndrome from the vaccine are rare, the risk is not zero, making it unsafe for routine administration during gestation.
*Serology, then vaccine postpartum*
- The patient's records already indicate she is **MMR non-immune**, rendering additional serology unnecessary to determine her immune status.
- The crucial step is the timing of vaccination, which should be postpartum, regardless of repeat serology findings.
*Serology, then vaccine during pregnancy*
- As explained, **MMR vaccination is contraindicated during pregnancy**, making immediate vaccination during gestation an inappropriate course of action.
- While serology can confirm non-immunity, it doesn't change the recommendation to delay vaccination until after delivery.
*MMR vaccine and immune globulin postpartum*
- **Immune globulin** is typically given for passive immunity following exposure to certain diseases if the patient is non-immune (e.g., RhoGAM for Rh-negative mothers).
- It is **not routinely administered with the MMR vaccine postpartum** for healthy, non-immune individuals, as the vaccine itself stimulates active immunity.
Global vaccination programs US Medical PG Question 5: A 3255-g (7-lb) female newborn is delivered at term. Pregnancy and delivery were uncomplicated. On the day of her birth, she is given a routine childhood vaccine that contains a noninfectious glycoprotein. This vaccine will most likely help prevent infection by which of the following pathogens?
- A. Bordetella pertussis
- B. Rotavirus
- C. Poliovirus
- D. Haemophilus influenzae type b
- E. Hepatitis B virus (Correct Answer)
Global vaccination programs Explanation: ***Hepatitis B virus***
- The **Hepatitis B vaccine** is routinely given at birth and contains a **noninfectious glycoprotein** (HBsAg) that elicits an immune response.
- This vaccine is crucial for preventing mother-to-child transmission and provides long-term protection against **Hepatitis B infection**.
*Bordetella pertussis*
- The vaccine for **Bordetella pertussis** (whooping cough) is part of the DTaP vaccine and is typically given at 2 months of age, not at birth.
- The DTaP vaccine usually contains **inactivated toxins** or acellular components, not solely a glycoprotein.
*Rotavirus*
- The **Rotavirus vaccine** is an **oral live-attenuated vaccine** administered in two or three doses, with the first dose typically given at 2 months of age.
- It does not contain a noninfectious glycoprotein.
*Poliovirus*
- The **Poliovirus vaccine** (IPV) is an **inactivated vaccine** given at 2 months of age, and the **oral poliovirus vaccine (OPV)** is a live-attenuated vaccine.
- Neither is routinely given at birth, nor described as a noninfectious glycoprotein.
*Haemophilus influenzae type b*
- The **Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) vaccine** is a polysaccharide-protein conjugate vaccine, first administered at 2 months of age.
- While it contains a protein component, it is not typically given at birth.
Global vaccination programs US Medical PG Question 6: A 1-year-old girl is brought to the physician for a well-child examination. She has no history of serious illness. She receives a vaccine in which a polysaccharide is conjugated to a carrier protein. Which of the following pathogens is the most likely target of this vaccine?
- A. Hepatitis A virus
- B. Varicella zoster virus
- C. Streptococcus pneumoniae (Correct Answer)
- D. Bordetella pertussis
- E. Clostridium tetani
Global vaccination programs Explanation: ***Streptococcus pneumoniae***
- This pathogen is a common cause of **pneumonia**, **otitis media**, and **meningitis** in young children. The **pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV)** targets *Streptococcus pneumoniae*'s polysaccharide capsule by conjugating it to a carrier protein.
- Conjugating the polysaccharide to a protein carrier allows for a **T-cell-dependent immune response**, which is crucial for eliciting a robust and long-lasting antibody response in infants and young children, whose immune systems are not yet mature enough to respond effectively to unconjugated polysaccharide antigens.
*Hepatitis A virus*
- The vaccine for **Hepatitis A virus** is an **inactivated vaccine** containing whole killed virus particles, not a polysaccharide conjugated to a carrier protein.
- It is typically given to children to prevent **Hepatitis A infection**, which causes liver inflammation.
*Varicella zoster virus*
- The **varicella vaccine** for **Varicella zoster virus** is a **live, attenuated vaccine**, meaning it contains a weakened form of the live virus.
- This vaccine aims to prevent **chickenpox** and is not a polysaccharide-protein conjugate vaccine.
*Bordetella pertussis*
- The vaccine for **Bordetella pertussis** (whooping cough) is part of the **DTaP vaccine** and is an **acellular vaccine**, containing purified components of the bacterium.
- These components are primarily **toxoids** (inactivated toxins) or other bacterial proteins, not polysaccharides.
*Clostridium tetani*
- The vaccine for **Clostridium tetani** is a **toxoid vaccine**, meaning it contains an inactivated form of the **tetanus toxin**.
- This is part of the **DTaP vaccine** and works by stimulating an immune response against the toxin, not bacterial polysaccharides.
Global vaccination programs US Medical PG Question 7: A 19-year-old male arrives to student health for an annual check up. He is up to date on his infant and childhood vaccinations up to age 10. At age 12, he received a single dose of the tetanus, diphtheria, and acellular pertussis vaccine, and a quadrivalent meningococcal conjugate vaccine. A month ago, he received the influenza vaccine. The patient has no significant medical history. He takes over the counter ibuprofen for occasional headaches. He has a father with hypertension and hyperlipidemia, and his brother has asthma. He is sexually active with his current girlfriend. He denies tobacco use, illicit drug use, and recent or future travel. The patient’s temperature is 98°F (36.7°C), blood pressure is 118/78 mmHg, pulse is 70/min, and respirations are 14/min with an oxygen saturation of 99% O2 on room air. A physical examination is normal. What of the following is the best recommendation for vaccination?
- A. Human papillomavirus vaccine (Correct Answer)
- B. Hepatitis A vaccine
- C. Herpes zoster vaccine
- D. Pneumococcal vaccine
- E. Tetanus and reduced diphtheria toxoid booster
Global vaccination programs Explanation: ***Human papilloma virus***
- This patient, being 19 years old and **sexually active**, is a prime candidate for the **HPV vaccine** to prevent infections that can lead to various cancers.
- The CDC recommends routine HPV vaccination at age 11-12, but catch-up vaccination is recommended for individuals up to age 26 if not adequately vaccinated previously.
*Hepatitis A vaccine*
- The Hepatitis A vaccine is generally recommended for individuals at **increased risk** of infection, such as travelers to endemic areas, men who have sex with men, or those with chronic liver disease, none of which apply to this patient.
- There is no indication for routine vaccination without specific risk factors in this otherwise healthy young male.
*Herpes zoster vaccine*
- The herpes zoster (shingles) vaccine is recommended for adults **age 50 years and older** to prevent shingles.
- This patient is only 19 years old, making him too young for this vaccine recommendation.
*Pneumococcal vaccine*
- Pneumococcal vaccines (PCV13 and PPSV23) are typically recommended for **young children**, adults **65 years and older**, or individuals with **certain underlying medical conditions** (e.g., chronic heart, lung, or kidney disease, or immunocompromised states).
- This 19-year-old patient has no such risk factors for pneumococcal disease.
*Tetanus and reduced diphtheria toxoid booster*
- The patient received a Tdap vaccine at age 12. A Td booster is recommended **every 10 years** for adults.
- Since it has been only 7 years since his last Tdap vaccine, he is not due for a Td booster at this time.
Global vaccination programs US Medical PG Question 8: A 28-year-old male presents to his primary care physician with complaints of intermittent abdominal pain and alternating bouts of constipation and diarrhea. His medical chart is not significant for any past medical problems or prior surgeries. He is not prescribed any current medications. Which of the following questions would be the most useful next question in eliciting further history from this patient?
- A. "Does the diarrhea typically precede the constipation, or vice-versa?"
- B. "Is the diarrhea foul-smelling?"
- C. "Please rate your abdominal pain on a scale of 1-10, with 10 being the worst pain of your life"
- D. "Are the symptoms worse in the morning or at night?"
- E. "Can you tell me more about the symptoms you have been experiencing?" (Correct Answer)
Global vaccination programs Explanation: ***Can you tell me more about the symptoms you have been experiencing?***
- This **open-ended question** encourages the patient to provide a **comprehensive narrative** of their symptoms, including details about onset, frequency, duration, alleviating/aggravating factors, and associated symptoms, which is crucial for diagnosis.
- In a patient presenting with vague, intermittent symptoms like alternating constipation and diarrhea, allowing them to elaborate freely can reveal important clues that might not be captured by more targeted questions.
*Does the diarrhea typically precede the constipation, or vice-versa?*
- While knowing the sequence of symptoms can be helpful in understanding the **pattern of bowel dysfunction**, it is a very specific question that might overlook other important aspects of the patient's experience.
- It prematurely narrows the focus without first obtaining a broad understanding of the patient's overall symptomatic picture.
*Is the diarrhea foul-smelling?*
- Foul-smelling diarrhea can indicate **malabsorption** or **bacterial overgrowth**, which are important to consider in some gastrointestinal conditions.
- However, this is a **specific symptom inquiry** that should follow a more general exploration of the patient's symptoms, as it may not be relevant if other crucial details are missed.
*Please rate your abdominal pain on a scale of 1-10, with 10 being the worst pain of your life*
- Quantifying pain intensity is useful for assessing the **severity of discomfort** and monitoring changes over time.
- However, for a patient with intermittent rather than acute, severe pain, understanding the **character, location, and triggers** of the pain is often more diagnostically valuable than just a numerical rating initially.
*Are the symptoms worse in the morning or at night?*
- Diurnal variation can be relevant in certain conditions, such as inflammatory bowel diseases where nocturnal symptoms might be more concerning, or functional disorders whose symptoms might be stress-related.
- This is another **specific question** that should come after gathering a more complete initial picture of the patient's symptoms to ensure no key information is overlooked.
Global vaccination programs US Medical PG Question 9: A 4-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department with difficulty breathing. His mother reports that he developed a fever last night and began to have trouble breathing this morning. The boy was born at 39 weeks gestation via spontaneous vaginal delivery. He is unvaccinated (conscientious objection by the family) and is meeting all developmental milestones. At the hospital, his vitals are temperature 39.8°C (103.6°F), pulse 122/min, respiration rate 33/min, blood pressure 110/66 mm Hg, and SpO2 93% on room air. On physical examination, he appears ill with his neck hyperextended and chin protruding. His voice is muffled and is drooling. The pediatrician explains that there is one particular bacteria that commonly causes these symptoms. At what age should the patient have first received vaccination to prevent this condition from this particular bacteria?
- A. At birth
- B. At 2-months-old (Correct Answer)
- C. Between 9- and 12-months-old
- D. At 6-months-old
- E. Between 12- and 15-months-old
Global vaccination programs Explanation: ***At 2-months-old***
- The clinical presentation with **high fever**, **difficulty breathing**, **neck hyperextension**, **muffled voice**, and **drooling** in an unvaccinated child strongly suggests **epiglottitis**, likely caused by *Haemophilus influenzae type b* (Hib).
- The **Hib vaccine** is routinely given starting at **2 months of age** as part of the multi-dose primary series to protect against this life-threatening condition.
*At birth*
- While some vaccines like **Hepatitis B** are given at birth, the Hib vaccine is not typically administered at this age.
- Vaccinating at birth would not align with the standard immunization schedule for *Haemophilus influenzae type b*.
*Between 9- and 12-months-old*
- This age range typically corresponds to the **measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR)** and **varicella** vaccines, or a booster dose of other vaccines, not the initial primary series for Hib.
- Delaying the first Hib vaccination until this age would leave infants vulnerable during a critical period.
*At 6-months-old*
- By 6 months, a child should have already received at least **two doses** of the Hib vaccine if following the recommended schedule.
- Administering the first dose at 6 months would significantly delay protection against invasive Hib disease.
*Between 12- and 15-months-old*
- This age range is typically when the **final booster dose** of the Hib vaccine is given, not the initial vaccination.
- The primary series for Hib should have been completed much earlier to provide timely protection.
Global vaccination programs US Medical PG Question 10: An 11-year-old boy is brought to his pediatrician by his parents for the routine Tdap immunization booster dose that is given during adolescence. Upon reviewing the patient’s medical records, the pediatrician notes that he was immunized according to CDC recommendations, with the exception that he received a catch-up Tdap immunization at the age of 8 years. When the pediatrician asks the boy’s parents about this delay, they inform the doctor that they immigrated to this country 3 years ago from Southeast Asia, where the child had not been immunized against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis. Therefore, he received a catch-up series at 8 years of age, which included the first dose of the Tdap vaccine. Which of the following options should the pediatrician choose to continue the boy’s immunization schedule?
- A. A single dose of Td vaccine at 18 years of age
- B. A single dose of Td vaccine now
- C. No further vaccination needed
- D. A single dose of Tdap vaccine now
- E. A single dose of Tdap vaccine at 13 years of age (Correct Answer)
Global vaccination programs Explanation: ***A single dose of Tdap vaccine at 13 years of age***
- The CDC recommends a **minimum interval of 5 years** between Tdap doses when Tdap is given as part of a catch-up series.
- Since this patient received his first Tdap at age 8, the earliest he should receive the adolescent booster is at **age 13** (5 years later).
- This timing ensures adequate spacing while still providing the recommended adolescent booster for **pertussis, tetanus, and diphtheria** protection.
- The 5-year interval prevents excessive antigen exposure and optimizes immune response.
*A single dose of Tdap vaccine now*
- Giving Tdap now would result in only a **3-year interval** from the previous Tdap dose at age 8.
- This violates the CDC recommendation of a **minimum 5-year interval** between Tdap doses.
- Shorter intervals may increase local reactogenicity without improving protection.
*A single dose of Td vaccine now*
- While this would provide tetanus and diphtheria protection, it would **not protect against pertussis**, which is a critical component of adolescent vaccination.
- The Tdap vaccine is specifically recommended for adolescents to boost waning pertussis immunity.
- Additionally, giving it now would still be earlier than the recommended 5-year interval from the previous pertussis-containing vaccine.
*A single dose of Td vaccine at 18 years of age*
- This option would result in a **10-year gap** from the last pertussis-containing vaccine, leaving the adolescent vulnerable during high-risk years.
- The adolescent Tdap booster is specifically timed for ages 11-13 to protect during peak transmission periods in middle and high school.
- Waiting until 18 would miss the critical window for pertussis protection.
*No further vaccination needed*
- While the patient completed a catch-up series, the CDC still recommends an **adolescent Tdap booster** even for those who received Tdap in a catch-up series.
- The adolescent booster is important to maintain immunity against pertussis, which wanes significantly over time.
- The booster should be given at age 13 to maintain the 5-year minimum interval.
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