Status epilepticus management US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice US Medical PG questions for Status epilepticus management. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Status epilepticus management US Medical PG Question 1: A 10-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her mother 30 minutes after having had a seizure. When her mother woke her up that morning, the girl's entire body stiffened and she started shaking vigorously for several minutes. Her mother also reports that over the past few months, her daughter has had multiple episodes of being unresponsive for less than a minute, during which her eyelids were fluttering. The girl did not recall these episodes afterwards. Upon arrival, she appears drowsy. Neurologic examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy to prevent recurrence of this patient's symptoms?
- A. Valproate (Correct Answer)
- B. Topiramate
- C. Lorazepam
- D. Ethosuximide
- E. Phenytoin
Status epilepticus management Explanation: ***Valproate***
- The patient's presentation with **tonic-clonic seizures** and brief unresponsiveness with **eyelid fluttering** (absence seizures) indicates a generalized epilepsy syndrome, likely **juvenile myoclonic epilepsy**.
- **Valproate** is a broad-spectrum antiepileptic drug effective against both generalized tonic-clonic and absence seizures, making it the most appropriate choice for this combination.
*Topiramate*
- While **topiramate** is a broad-spectrum antiepileptic, it is not considered first-line for combined absence and generalized tonic-clonic seizures due to its side effect profile, which includes **cognitive impairment** and **kidney stones**.
- It can also **exacerbate absence seizures** in some patients.
*Lorazepam*
- **Lorazepam** is a benzodiazepine primarily used for the acute management of **status epilepticus** and acute seizure termination due to its rapid onset of action.
- It is not suitable for long-term seizure prevention or maintenance therapy due to its sedative effects and potential for **tolerance and dependence**.
*Ethosuximide*
- **Ethosuximide** is highly effective specifically for **absence seizures** and is considered first-line for childhood absence epilepsy.
- However, it has little to no efficacy against **generalized tonic-clonic seizures**, which this patient also experiences, making it an insufficient monotherapy.
*Phenytoin*
- **Phenytoin** is effective for **focal (partial) seizures** and **generalized tonic-clonic seizures** but is generally less effective for certain generalized epilepsies, such as juvenile myoclonic epilepsy.
- It is not effective for **absence seizures** and can sometimes worsen them.
Status epilepticus management US Medical PG Question 2: A 7-year-old boy is brought to the physician because of spells of unresponsiveness and upward rolling of the eyes for 2 months. The episodes start abruptly and last a few seconds. During that time he does not hear anyone’s voice or make any purposeful movements. When the episodes end, he continues what he was doing before the spell. He does not lose his posture or fall to the ground. Episodes occur multiple times during the day. Physical examination shows no abnormal findings. An EEG following hyperventilation shows 3 Hz spike-and-slow-wave discharges. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy at this time?
- A. No pharmacotherapy at this time
- B. Ethosuximide (Correct Answer)
- C. Sodium valproate
- D. Oxcarbazepine
- E. Lamotrigine
Status epilepticus management Explanation: ***Ethosuximide***
- The described clinical picture (brief unresponsiveness, eye-rolling, continuing activity afterward, frequent daily episodes, normal physical exam, and 3-Hz spike-and-slow-wave discharges on EEG during hyperventilation) is classic for **childhood absence epilepsy**.
- **Ethosuximide** is the first-line and most effective treatment specifically for absence seizures due to its selective action on T-type calcium channels in the thalamus, which are implicated in the generation of absence seizures.
*No pharmacotherapy at this time*
- Leaving childhood absence epilepsy untreated can lead to significant impairments in learning, attention, and cognitive development due to the frequent, brief interruptions in consciousness.
- Given the clear diagnostic criteria including characteristic EEG findings and frequent episodes, initiating appropriate pharmacotherapy is medically indicated and crucial for the child's well-being.
*Sodium valproate*
- While **sodium valproate** is effective against absence seizures and has a broader spectrum of action against other seizure types, it is often considered a second-line agent for absence epilepsy due to potential side effects.
- Its use may be preferred if there are co-occurring generalized tonic-clonic seizures or if ethosuximide is not tolerated or effective, but for isolated absence seizures, ethosuximide has a better side effect profile.
*Oxcarbazepine*
- **Oxcarbazepine** is a sodium channel blocker primarily used for focal (partial onset) seizures and secondarily generalized tonic-clonic seizures.
- It is generally ineffective and can sometimes *worsen* absence seizures, making it an inappropriate choice for this diagnosis.
*Lamotrigine*
- **Lamotrigine** is a broad-spectrum antiepileptic drug effective for various seizure types, including focal, generalized tonic-clonic, and some forms of atypical absence seizures.
- While it can be used for absence seizures, it is generally considered a second-line or add-on therapy, especially when ethosuximide or valproate are ineffective or not tolerated, or if there are co-existing seizure types. It is not the most appropriate first-line choice for classic childhood absence epilepsy.
Status epilepticus management US Medical PG Question 3: A 16-year-old girl who recently immigrated to the United States from Bolivia presents to her primary care physician with a chief complaint of inattentiveness in school. The patient's teacher describes her as occasionally "day-dreaming" for periods of time during which the patient does not respond or participate in school activities. Nothing has helped the patient change her behavior, including parent-teacher conferences or punishment. The patient has no other complaints herself. The only other concern that the patient's mother has is that upon awakening she notices that sometimes the patient's arm will jerk back and forth. The patient states she is not doing this intentionally. The patient has an unknown past medical history and is currently not on any medications. On physical exam you note a young, healthy girl whose neurological exam is within normal limits. Which of the following is the best initial treatment?
- A. Ethosuximide
- B. Valproic acid (Correct Answer)
- C. Carbamazepine
- D. Cognitive behavioral therapy
- E. Lamotrigine
Status epilepticus management Explanation: ***Valproic acid***
- This patient presents with symptoms highly suggestive of **juvenile myoclonic epilepsy (JME)**, characterized by **absence seizures** ("day-dreaming") and **myoclonic jerks**, particularly upon awakening. Valproic acid is considered a first-line agent for JME due to its broad spectrum of action against various seizure types.
- While ethosuximide is effective for absence seizures, valproic acid is preferred in JME because it also effectively controls the associated myoclonic jerks, addressing both seizure types seen in this patient.
*Ethosuximide*
- Ethosuximide is the drug of choice for **absence seizures** only, effectively preventing the "day-dreaming" spells.
- However, it is not effective against the **myoclonic jerks** described by the patient's mother, which are a characteristic feature of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy.
*Carbamazepine*
- Carbamazepine is primarily used for **focal (partial) seizures** and **tonic-clonic seizures**.
- It can actually **exacerbate absence and myoclonic seizures**, making it an inappropriate choice for this patient's presentation.
*Cognitive behavioral therapy*
- Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) is a **psychological intervention** primarily used for mental health conditions like anxiety, depression, or behavioral disorders.
- While helpful for addressing emotional or behavioral responses to a chronic illness, it does not treat the underlying **electrical abnormalities in the brain** that cause seizures.
*Lamotrigine*
- Lamotrigine is a broad-spectrum antiepileptic drug that can be effective for various seizure types, including **absence and myoclonic seizures**.
- However, it can sometimes **exacerbate myoclonic seizures** in some individuals with JME, and while sometimes used as an alternative, valproic acid is generally the first-line choice for its established efficacy in controlling all seizure types in JME.
Status epilepticus management US Medical PG Question 4: A 15-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department one hour after sustaining an injury during football practice. He collided head-on into another player while wearing a mouthguard and helmet. Immediately after the collision he was confused but able to use appropriate words. He opened his eyes spontaneously and followed commands. There was no loss of consciousness. He also had a headache with dizziness and nausea. He is no longer confused upon arrival. He feels well. Vital signs are within normal limits. He is fully alert and oriented. His speech is organized and he is able to perform tasks demonstrating full attention, memory, and balance. Neurological examination shows no abnormalities. There is mild tenderness to palpation over the crown of his head but no signs of skin break or fracture. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
- A. Discharge without activity restrictions
- B. Discharge and refrain from all physical activity for one week
- C. Observe for 6 hours in the ED and refrain from contact sports for one week (Correct Answer)
- D. Administer prophylactic levetiracetam and observe for 24 hours
- E. Administer prophylactic phenytoin and observe for 24 hours
Status epilepticus management Explanation: ***Observe for 6 hours in the ED and refrain from contact sports for one week***
- This patient experienced a brief period of **confusion, headache, dizziness**, and **nausea** immediately after a head injury, which are symptoms consistent with a **mild traumatic brain injury (mTBI)** or **concussion**.
- Although his symptoms have resolved at presentation, observation in the ED for a few hours is prudent to ensure no delayed onset of more severe symptoms, and he should **refrain from contact sports** for at least one week as part of concussion management.
*Discharge without activity restrictions*
- Discharging without activity restrictions is unsafe given the initial symptoms of **confusion** and the potential for delayed symptom presentation or complications from a concussion.
- Concussion management requires a period of **physical and cognitive rest** to allow the brain to heal and prevent **second impact syndrome**.
*Discharge and refrain from all physical activity for one week*
- While refraining from all physical activity for one week is part of concussion management, discharging immediately without any observation period after initial neurological symptoms could be risky.
- An observation period allows for monitoring of any **worsening neurological signs** or symptoms that might indicate a more serious injury.
*Administer prophylactic levetiracetam and observe for 24 hours*
- **Prophylactic anticonvulsants** like levetiracetam are typically not recommended for routine management of **mild traumatic brain injury** or concussion.
- Their use is generally reserved for patients with more severe injuries, evolving conditions, or those who have had **seizures post-trauma**.
*Administer prophylactic phenytoin and observe for 24 hours*
- Similar to levetiracetam, **phenytoin** is an anticonvulsant and its prophylactic use is not indicated for **mild head injuries** or concussions.
- Anticonvulsant prophylaxis is associated with potential side effects and is reserved for specific high-risk scenarios, such as **severe TBI** or **penetrating head trauma**.
Status epilepticus management US Medical PG Question 5: A 16-year-old boy with history of seizure disorder is rushed to the Emergency Department with multiple generalized tonic-clonic seizures that have spanned more than 30 minutes in duration. He has not regained consciousness between these episodes. In addition to taking measures to ensure that he maintains adequate respiration, which of the following is appropriate for initial pharmacological therapy?
- A. Carbamazepine
- B. Gabapentin
- C. Lorazepam (Correct Answer)
- D. Valproic acid
- E. Phenytoin
Status epilepticus management Explanation: ***Lorazepam***
- This patient is experiencing **status epilepticus**, defined by continuous seizures lasting over 5 minutes or recurrent seizures without regaining consciousness. **Intravenous benzodiazepines**, like lorazepam, are the first-line treatment due to their rapid onset of action on GABA receptors.
- **Lorazepam** is preferred over other benzodiazepines in this setting due to its relatively **longer duration of action** and availability as an intravenous formulation, effectively terminating the acute seizure.
*Carbamazepine*
- **Carbamazepine** is an oral **anti-epileptic drug** used for long-term control of focal seizures, but it is not suitable for acute management of status epilepticus due to its **slow onset of action** and lack of intravenous formulation for rapid effect.
- It works by blocking **voltage-gated sodium channels**, which is not the primary mechanism for immediate seizure termination in an emergency.
*Gabapentin*
- **Gabapentin** is an anti-epileptic medication primarily used for focal seizures and neuropathic pain, and is **not effective** in treating acute generalized tonic-clonic seizures or status epilepticus.
- Its mechanism of action involves modulation of **calcium channels** and GABA, but it has a **slow onset** and limited efficacy in acute seizure termination.
*Valproic acid*
- **Valproic acid** can be used in the long-term management of various seizure types, including generalized tonic-clonic seizures, and has an intravenous formulation, but it is **not the first-line choice for immediate termination** of status epilepticus.
- Benzodiazepines are typically administered first, and if they fail, valproic acid can be considered as a **second-line agent** along with other antiepileptics.
*Phenytoin*
- **Phenytoin** is a classic anti-epileptic drug that can be used intravenously as a **second-line agent** for status epilepticus if benzodiazepines are unsuccessful.
- It has a slower onset of action compared to benzodiazepines and carries risks such as **cardiac arrhythmias** and **hypotension** with rapid infusion, making it less ideal for initial therapy.
Status epilepticus management US Medical PG Question 6: A previously healthy 5-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department because of a 1-day history of high fever. His temperature prior to arrival was 40.0°C (104°F). There is no family history of serious illness. Development has been appropriate for his age. He is administered rectal acetaminophen. While in the waiting room, he becomes unresponsive and starts jerking his arms and legs back and forth. A fingerstick blood glucose concentration is 86 mg/dL. After 5 minutes, he continues having jerky movements and is unresponsive to verbal and painful stimuli. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- A. Intravenous administration of lorazepam (Correct Answer)
- B. Intravenous administration of phenobarbital
- C. Obtain blood cultures
- D. Intravenous administration of valproate
- E. Intravenous administration of fosphenytoin
Status epilepticus management Explanation: ***Intravenous administration of lorazepam***
- The child is experiencing a **prolonged seizure** (greater than 5 minutes) following a high fever, which is concerning for **status epilepticus** secondary to a febrile seizure.
- **Lorazepam** is a first-line benzodiazepine for status epilepticus due to its rapid onset of action and prolonged anticonvulsant effect.
*Intravenous administration of phenobarbital*
- **Phenobarbital** is a long-acting anticonvulsant often used for **refractory status epilepticus** or as a long-term maintenance therapy.
- It is not the preferred initial treatment for an acute, prolonged seizure due to its slower onset compared to benzodiazepines.
*Obtain blood cultures*
- While obtaining blood cultures is important for identifying potential sources of infection causing the fever, it is **not the immediate priority** when a child is actively seizing and unresponsive.
- **Seizure termination** takes precedence to prevent potential neurological injury.
*Intravenous administration of valproate*
- **Valproate** is an anticonvulsant that can be used for various seizure types, but it is typically reserved for **refractory status epilepticus** or as a long-term maintenance drug.
- It does not have the rapid onset of action required for initial management of an acute, prolonged seizure.
*Intravenous administration of fosphenytoin*
- **Fosphenytoin** is an antiepileptic drug often used for **refractory status epilepticus** after benzodiazepines have failed.
- It is not the first-line medication for the initial management of an acute seizure of this duration.
Status epilepticus management US Medical PG Question 7: A female presents with a 1 × 1 cm thyroid swelling. What is the next best step in management?
- A. I-131
- B. TSH (Correct Answer)
- C. TSH & T4
- D. T3 & T4
- E. FNAC
Status epilepticus management Explanation: ***Correct Option: TSH***
- **Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)** is the most sensitive initial test to assess thyroid function when a thyroid nodule is discovered.
- An abnormal TSH level (either high or low) can guide further investigation into whether the nodule is associated with a functional thyroid disorder.
- **TSH should be the first test** according to American Thyroid Association guidelines for thyroid nodule evaluation.
*Incorrect Option: I-131*
- **I-131 (radioactive iodine therapy)** is a treatment modality for hyperthyroidism or thyroid cancer, not a diagnostic step for initial thyroid swelling evaluation.
- Administering I-131 before assessing thyroid function would be inappropriate and could lead to unnecessary or harmful intervention.
*Incorrect Option: TSH & T4*
- While TSH is crucial, adding **T4 (thyroxine)** as an initial step is often not necessary if TSH is normal, as TSH alone effectively screens for primary thyroid dysfunction.
- Measuring both TSH and T4 is typically reserved for situations where TSH is abnormal or when central hypothyroidism is suspected.
*Incorrect Option: T3 & T4*
- Measuring **T3 (triiodothyronine)** along with T4 as an initial screening for a thyroid nodule is generally not recommended.
- T3 levels are primarily used to diagnose **hyperthyroidism** or to evaluate the severity of thyrotoxicosis after an abnormal TSH and T4 have been identified.
*Incorrect Option: FNAC*
- While **Fine Needle Aspiration Cytology (FNAC)** is an essential diagnostic tool for thyroid nodules, it is typically performed after TSH assessment.
- FNAC is indicated for nodules >1 cm with suspicious ultrasound features, but **functional assessment with TSH comes first** to rule out hyperfunctioning nodules.
Status epilepticus management US Medical PG Question 8: An 8-year old boy is brought to the emergency department because he has been lethargic and has had several episodes of nausea and vomiting for the past day. He has also had increased thirst over the past two months. He has lost 5.4 kg (11.9 lbs) during this time. He is otherwise healthy and has no history of serious illness. His temperature is 37.5 °C (99.5 °F), blood pressure is 95/68 mm Hg, pulse is 110/min, and respirations are 30/min. He is somnolent and slightly confused. His mucous membranes are dry. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 16.2 g/dL
Leukocyte count 9,500/mm3
Platelet count 380,000/mm3
Serum
Na+ 130 mEq/L
K+ 5.5 mEq/L
Cl- 99 mEq/L
HCO3- 16 mEq/L
Creatinine 1.2 mg/dL
Glucose 570 mg/dL
Ketones positive
Blood gases, arterial
pH 7.25
pCO2 21 mm Hg
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- A. Intravenous hydration with 0.45% normal saline and insulin
- B. Intravenous hydration with 5% dextrose solution and 0.45% normal saline
- C. Intravenous sodium bicarbonate
- D. Intravenous hydration with 0.9% normal saline and insulin (Correct Answer)
- E. Intravenous hydration with 0.9% normal saline and potassium chloride
Status epilepticus management Explanation: ***Intravenous hydration with 0.9% normal saline and insulin***
- This patient presents with **diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)**, characterized by hyperglycemia (glucose 570 mg/dL), metabolic acidosis (pH 7.25, HCO3- 16 mEq/L, ketones positive), and dehydration (dry mucous membranes, increased thirst, weight loss).
- Initial management of DKA involves aggressive **volume expansion** with **0.9% normal saline** to restore perfusion and reduce hyperglycemia; subsequently, **insulin infusion** is started to correct hyperglycemia and halt ketogenesis.
*Intravenous hydration with 0.45% normal saline and insulin*
- While insulin is crucial, **0.45% normal saline (hypotonic saline)** is generally not the initial fluid of choice for DKA due to the risk of exacerbating cerebral edema, especially in children.
- **Isotonic saline (0.9% normal saline)** is preferred for initial resuscitation to rapidly restore extracellular fluid volume.
*Intravenous hydration with 5% dextrose solution and 0.45% normal saline*
- **5% dextrose solution** should only be added to intravenous fluids when the blood glucose level falls to around 200-250 mg/dL, to prevent hypoglycemia while continuing insulin to resolve ketosis.
- Administering dextrose initially would worsen the existing severe hyperglycemia.
*Intravenous sodium bicarbonate*
- **Sodium bicarbonate** is generally not recommended for mild to moderate DKA due to potential risks like cerebral edema and metabolic alkalosis, and potential paradoxical worsening of CNS acidosis.
- Bicarbonate therapy is reserved for **severe acidosis (pH < 6.9 or 7.0)** with hemodynamic instability or impaired cardiac contractility, which is not the case here.
*Intravenous hydration with 0.9% normal saline and potassium chloride*
- While **0.9% normal saline** is appropriate, this option lacks **insulin therapy**, which is essential for treating DKA by halting ketogenesis and correcting hyperglycemia.
- Although potassium supplementation will be necessary during DKA treatment (as insulin drives K+ into cells and can cause hypokalemia), the most appropriate **next step** is to initiate both fluid resuscitation and insulin therapy together.
- The patient's current potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L is at the upper limit of normal, but reflects total body potassium depletion; potassium should be added to maintenance fluids once adequate urine output is established.
Status epilepticus management US Medical PG Question 9: A 15-month-old girl is brought to the emergency department shortly after a 2-minute episode of rhythmic eye blinking and uncontrolled shaking of all limbs. She was unresponsive during the episode. For the past few days, the girl has had a fever and mild nasal congestion. Her immunizations are up-to-date. Her temperature is 39.2°C (102.6°F), pulse is 110/min, respirations are 28/min, and blood pressure is 88/45 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of 100%. She is sleepy but opens her eyes when her name is called. Examination shows moist mucous membranes. Neurologic examination shows no abnormalities. The neck is supple with normal range of motion. An oral dose of acetaminophen is administered. On re-evaluation, the girl is alert and playing with toys in the examination room. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- A. Observe the patient for 24 hours
- B. Perform a CT scan of the head
- C. Administer lorazepam
- D. Perform an EEG
- E. Discharge the patient (Correct Answer)
Status epilepticus management Explanation: ***Discharge the patient***
- The girl presented with a classic **febrile seizure**, characterized by a brief, generalized seizure associated with fever in the absence of an intracranial infection or other metabolic cause.
- Given that she is now alert, afebrile (after acetaminophen), neurologically normal, and her vital signs are stable, the most appropriate next step is to discharge her with instructions for parental education regarding febrile seizures.
*Observe the patient for 24 hours*
- Prolonged observation for 24 hours is generally not required for a **simple febrile seizure** once the child has fully recovered and is neurologically intact, and serious causes have been ruled out.
- This would be more appropriate for a **complex febrile seizure** (e.g., prolonged duration >15 minutes, focal features, multiple seizures in 24 hours) or if the child had not returned to their baseline.
*Perform a CT scan of the head*
- A **head CT scan** is not indicated for a typical febrile seizure, as there is no suspicion of intracranial pathology, infection, or trauma.
- Neuroimaging is reserved for cases with **focal neurologic deficits**, signs of increased intracranial pressure, or a history of significant head trauma.
*Administer lorazepam*
- **Lorazepam** is a benzodiazepine used to terminate ongoing seizures.
- Since the seizure has already stopped and the patient has fully recovered and is alert and playing, administering lorazepam would be unnecessary and could cause excessive sedation.
*Perform an EEG*
- An **EEG** is generally not recommended after a simple febrile seizure because it rarely helps in predicting the recurrence of febrile seizures or the development of epilepsy.
- EEG may be considered in cases of **atypical febrile seizures** or if there is a strong suspicion of an underlying epileptic disorder.
Status epilepticus management US Medical PG Question 10: A 16-year-old boy is brought to the physician for a follow-up examination. He has a 6-year history of type 1 diabetes mellitus and his only medication is insulin. Seven months ago, he was treated for an episode of diabetic ketoacidosis. He has previously been compliant with his diet and insulin regimen. He wants to join the high school soccer team. Vital signs are within normal limits. His hemoglobin A1C is 6.3%. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation at this time?
- A. Limit activity to 20 minutes per day
- B. Lower insulin dosage on days of exercise (Correct Answer)
- C. Advise against physical activity
- D. Switch from insulin to metformin
- E. Increase insulin dosage on days of exercise
Status epilepticus management Explanation: ***Lower insulin dosage on days of exercise***
- Exercise increases **insulin sensitivity** and glucose uptake by muscle cells, which can lead to **hypoglycemia** if insulin dosing is not adjusted.
- Reducing insulin dosage on exercise days, along with appropriate monitoring, is a common strategy to prevent exercise-induced hypoglycemia in individuals with **type 1 diabetes**.
*Limit activity to 20 minutes per day*
- There is no medical justification to arbitrarily limit activity to 20 minutes for a well-controlled diabetic patient, especially one who wants to join a soccer team.
- **Regular physical activity** is beneficial for overall health and diabetes management, and arbitrary restrictions can be detrimental to a teenager's well-being.
*Advise against physical activity*
- **Physical activity** is generally encouraged for individuals with type 1 diabetes as it improves **cardiovascular health**, **insulin sensitivity**, and overall well-being.
- Advising against it would be counterproductive, especially with an **HbA1c of 6.3%**, indicating good glycemic control and proper management.
*Switch from insulin to metformin*
- **Metformin** is an oral hypoglycemic agent used primarily for type 2 diabetes by reducing hepatic glucose production and improving insulin sensitivity.
- It is **not effective** in type 1 diabetes, where the pancreas fails to produce insulin, making **exogenous insulin** essential for survival.
*Increase insulin dosage on days of exercise*
- Increasing insulin dosage on exercise days would significantly raise the risk of **hypoglycemia** due to enhanced glucose utilization by muscles.
- The standard approach is to **decrease** insulin or increase carbohydrate intake to prevent low blood sugar during and after exercise.
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