Disaster preparedness for pediatric patients US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice US Medical PG questions for Disaster preparedness for pediatric patients. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Disaster preparedness for pediatric patients US Medical PG Question 1: A 7-day-old male infant presents to the pediatrician for weight loss. There is no history of excessive crying, irritability, lethargy, or feeding difficulty. The parents deny any history of fast breathing, bluish discoloration of lips/nails, fever, vomiting, diarrhea, or seizures. He was born at full term by vaginal delivery without any perinatal complications and his birth weight was 3.6 kg (8 lb). Since birth he has been exclusively breastfed and passes urine six to eight times a day. His physical examination, including vital signs, is completely normal. His weight is 3.3 kg (7.3 lb); length and head circumference are normal for his age and sex. Which of the following is the next best step in the management of the infant?
- A. Reassurance of parents (Correct Answer)
- B. Evaluation of the mother for malnutrition
- C. Admission of the infant in the NICU to treat with empiric intravenous antibiotics
- D. Emphasize the need to clothe the infant warmly to prevent hypothermia
- E. Supplementation of breastfeeding with an appropriate infant formula
Disaster preparedness for pediatric patients Explanation: ***Reassurance of parents***
- A **weight loss of 8.3%** (300g from 3.6kg) is within the expected range for a 7-day-old exclusively breastfed infant, which can be up to 7-10% in the first week.
- The infant's normal physical exam, good urine output, and lack of other symptoms suggest **adequate feeding** and overall well-being.
*Evaluation of the mother for malnutrition*
- The mother's nutritional status is not directly indicative of the infant's weight loss within the normal physiological range in this scenario.
- There is no information to suggest the mother is malnourished or that it would directly impact the quality or quantity of breast milk to cause pathological weight loss.
*Admission of the infant in the NICU to treat with empiric intravenous antibiotics*
- This is an overly aggressive intervention as there are **no signs or symptoms of infection** (e.g., fever, lethargy, poor feeding) and the infant appears well.
- Empiric antibiotics are not warranted in an otherwise healthy, full-term infant with normal physiological weight loss.
*Emphasize the need to clothe the infant warmly to prevent hypothermia*
- The infant's **vital signs are normal**, indicating no hypothermia, and there is no clinical evidence to support this as a primary concern.
- While maintaining warmth is important, it is not the next best step for addressing this specific presentation of physiological weight loss.
*Supplementation of breastfeeding with an appropriate infant formula*
- Supplementation is typically not needed for physiological weight loss in an otherwise healthy, exclusively breastfed infant with **adequate urine output** and no signs of dehydration.
- Encouraging continued exclusive breastfeeding and providing support for proper latch and feeding techniques would be more appropriate if there were concerns about inadequate milk intake.
Disaster preparedness for pediatric patients US Medical PG Question 2: A first time mother of a healthy, full term, newborn girl is anxious about sudden infant death syndrome. Which of the following pieces of advice can reduce the risk of SIDS?
- A. Sleep supine in a crib with bumpers, head propped up on a pillow, and wrapped in a warm blanket
- B. Sleep supine in a crib with bumpers, head propped up on a pillow, and wrapped in an infant sleeper
- C. Sleep supine in the parent's bed and use a pacifier after 1 month of age
- D. Sleep supine in a crib without bumpers, use a pacifier after 1 month of age, and use a home apnea monitor
- E. Sleep supine in a crib without bumpers, use a pacifier after 1 month of age, and avoid smoking (Correct Answer)
Disaster preparedness for pediatric patients Explanation: ***Sleep supine in a crib without bumpers, use a pacifier after 1 month of age, and avoiding smoking***
- **Sleeping supine** (on the back) is the most critical recommendation to reduce SIDS risk, and a **crib without bumpers** and other soft bedding reduces smothering hazards.
- **Pacifier use** after the first month of age has been shown to be protective, and **avoiding smoking** around the infant is crucial as exposure to tobacco smoke significantly increases SIDS risk.
*Sleep supine in a crib with bumpers, head propped up on a pillow, and wrapped in a warm blanket*
- While **sleeping supine** is correct, **bumpers, pillows, and loose blankets** in the crib are significant risk factors for SIDS, as they can cause accidental suffocation.
- The use of **pillows** is not recommended for infants due to the risk of airway obstruction and suffocation.
*Sleep supine in a crib with bumpers, head propped up on a pillow, and wrapped in an infant sleeper*
- Similar to the previous option, **bumpers and a pillow** are unsafe as they pose a suffocation risk and should be avoided in an infant's sleep environment.
- While an **infant sleeper** (or sleep sack) is generally safer than a loose blanket, the presence of bumpers and a pillow negates this benefit.
*Sleep supine in the parent's bed and use a pacifier after 1 month of age*
- **Co-sleeping (sharing a bed with parents)** significantly increases the risk of SIDS and accidental suffocation, especially if parents smoke, are impaired, or if heavy bedding is present.
- Although **pacifier use** is recommended, sleeping in the parent's bed is a major risk factor that outweighs any potential benefit here.
*Sleep supine in a crib without bumpers, use a pacifier after 1 month of age, and use a home apnea monitor*
- While **sleeping supine** in a **crib without bumpers** and **pacifier use** are correct recommendations, **home apnea monitors** are not recommended for routine SIDS prevention in healthy infants.
- Apnea monitors have not been shown to reduce the incidence of SIDS and can lead to false alarms and unnecessary anxiety without proven benefit.
Disaster preparedness for pediatric patients US Medical PG Question 3: An infant boy of unknown age and medical history is dropped off in the emergency department. The infant appears lethargic and has a large protruding tongue. Although the infant exhibits signs of neglect, he is in no apparent distress. The heart rate is 70/min, the respiratory rate is 30/min, and the temperature is 35.7°C (96.2°F). Which of the following is the most likely cause of the patient’s physical exam findings?
- A. Autosomal dominant mutation in the SERPING1 gene
- B. Genetic imprinting disorder affecting chromosome 11p15.5
- C. Type I hypersensitivity reaction
- D. Excess growth hormone secondary to pituitary gland tumor
- E. Congenital agenesis of an endocrine gland in the anterior neck (Correct Answer)
Disaster preparedness for pediatric patients Explanation: ***Congenital agenesis of an endocrine gland in the anterior neck***
- This description is highly suggestive of **congenital hypothyroidism**, caused by **thyroid dysgenesis** (agenesis or hypoplasia of the thyroid gland).
- Symptoms include **lethargy**, **macroglossia** (large protruding tongue), **hypotonia**, **feeding difficulties**, **umbilical hernia**, and **hypothermia**, all consistent with the clinical picture.
*Autosomal dominant mutation in the SERPING1 gene*
- A mutation in the **SERPING1 gene** causes **hereditary angioedema**, characterized by recurrent episodes of unpredictable swelling in various body parts.
- While swelling can affect the tongue, it is typically episodic, painful, and often triggered, which is not suggested by the chronic lethargy and physical signs described.
*Genetic imprinting disorder affecting chromosome 11p15.5*
- This describes **Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome**, an overgrowth disorder caused by imprinting defects involving genes like **IGF2**, **H19**, and **CDKN1C** on chromosome 11p15.5.
- Features include **macroglossia**, **macrosomia**, **umbilical hernia**, **hemihyperplasia**, and increased risk of embryonal tumors like **Wilms tumor**.
- However, Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome does not typically present with profound **lethargy** and **hypothermia** as seen in congenital hypothyroidism.
*Type I hypersensitivity reaction*
- A **Type I hypersensitivity reaction** (e.g., anaphylaxis) could cause acute **angioedema** of the tongue, but this would be an acute, rapidly progressing, and life-threatening event.
- The infant's description of being "in no apparent distress" and exhibiting chronic signs like lethargy and hypothermia makes an acute allergic reaction unlikely.
*Excess growth hormone secondary to pituitary gland tumor*
- **Excess growth hormone** (gigantism in children, acromegaly in adults) can cause **macroglossia** and coarse facial features in the long term.
- However, it does not explain the associated **lethargia**, **hypothermia**, and profound developmental delay seen in congenital hypothyroidism in an infant.
Disaster preparedness for pediatric patients US Medical PG Question 4: A 7-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his mother 1 hour after falling off his bike and landing head-first on the pavement. His mother says that he did not lose consciousness but has been agitated and complaining about a headache since the event. He has no history of serious illness and takes no medications. His temperature is 37.1°C (98.7°F), pulse is 115/min, respirations are 20/min, and blood pressure is 100/65 mm Hg. There is a large bruise on the anterior scalp. Examination, including neurologic examination, shows no other abnormalities. A noncontrast CT scan of the head shows a non-depressed linear skull fracture with a 2-mm separation. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- A. Inpatient observation (Correct Answer)
- B. Contact child protective services
- C. CT angiography
- D. Discharge home
- E. MRI of the brain
Disaster preparedness for pediatric patients Explanation: ***Inpatient observation***
- A **nondepressed linear skull fracture** with mild separation and persistent symptoms (headache, agitation) after head trauma warrants **inpatient observation**.
- This allows for close neurological monitoring for potential complications like **intracranial hemorrhage** or worsening of symptoms.
*Contact child protective services*
- The history of falling off a bike, a visible bruise, and a fracture consistent with trauma does not suggest **child abuse**.
- There are no other suspicious signs or inconsistencies in the mother's account to raise immediate concerns about neglect or abuse.
*CT angiography*
- **CT angiography** is used to evaluate the cerebral vasculature and is not indicated in this case, as there is no evidence of vascular injury or dissection.
- The primary concern here is the potential for **intracranial bleeding** or evolving neurological compromise, which is best monitored with serial neurological exams and potentially repeat noncontrast CT scans.
*Discharge home*
- The presence of a **skull fracture**, even if linear and nondepressed, combined with persistent symptoms like headache and agitation makes immediate discharge home unsafe.
- There is an increased risk of **epidural hematoma** or other delayed complications that require professional medical monitoring.
*MRI of the brain*
- **MRI** is more sensitive for detecting subtle brain parenchymal injuries but is not the initial or primary imaging modality for acute head trauma, especially in a child who may require sedation.
- An **MRI** would be considered if there were persistent or evolving neurological deficits despite a normal or stable CT scan, or if there is concern for specific soft tissue or white matter injuries that CT cannot adequately assess.
Disaster preparedness for pediatric patients US Medical PG Question 5: A 12-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department after a motor vehicle collision. He was being carpooled to school by an intoxicated driver and was involved in a high velocity head-on collision. The patient is otherwise healthy and has no past medical history. His temperature is 99.2°F (37.3°C), blood pressure is 80/45 mmHg, pulse is 172/min, respirations are 36/min, and oxygen saturation is 100% on room air. A FAST exam demonstrates free fluid in Morrison pouch. The patient’s parents arrive and state that they are Jehovah’s witnesses. They state they will not accept blood products for their son but will allow him to go to the operating room to stop the bleeding. Due to poor understanding and a language barrier, the parents are also refusing IV fluids as they are concerned that this may violate their religion. The child is able to verbalize that he agrees with his parents and does not want any treatment. Which of the following is the best next treatment for this patient?
- A. Observation and monitoring and obtain a translator
- B. IV fluids alone as surgery is too dangerous without blood product stabilization
- C. IV fluids and emergency surgery
- D. IV fluids and vasopressors followed by emergency surgery
- E. Blood products and emergency surgery (Correct Answer)
Disaster preparedness for pediatric patients Explanation: ***Blood products and emergency surgery***
- The patient is a **minor** with a **life-threatening injury** (hypotension, tachycardia, free fluid in Morrison's pouch indicating internal bleeding) and requires immediate intervention. In such cases, the state's interest in protecting the life of a child generally **overrides parental religious objections** to life-saving treatment, including blood transfusions.
- **Emergency surgery** is necessary to stop the bleeding, and **blood products** are crucial for stabilizing the patient's hemodynamic status and preventing irreversible shock and death, especially given his severe hypotension and tachycardia.
- Note: **IV fluids would also be administered** as part of standard trauma resuscitation protocol alongside blood products. The key ethical and medical issue here is the authorization to give **blood products** despite parental refusal, which is legally and ethically justified in life-threatening situations involving minors.
*Observation and monitoring and obtain a translator*
- This option is inappropriate as the patient is **hemodynamically unstable** and showing signs of severe hemorrhage, requiring immediate, not delayed, intervention.
- While a translator is important for communication, obtaining one should happen concurrently with life-saving treatment, not as an initial, sole intervention for an unstable patient.
*IV fluids alone as surgery is too dangerous without blood product stabilization*
- The patient requires both **IV fluids for resuscitation** and **surgery to definitively stop internal bleeding**; focusing on fluids alone without addressing the source of hemorrhage will not resolve the critical condition.
- Delaying surgery because of concerns about blood products is dangerous, as the patient might continue to bleed internally and decompensate further, highlighting the need for both interventions simultaneously.
*IV fluids and emergency surgery*
- Although IV fluids and emergency surgery are necessary, this patient is in **hemorrhagic shock** and will almost certainly require **blood products** to survive the surgery and subsequent recovery.
- This option fails to address the **central ethical dilemma**: whether to override parental religious objections to administer life-saving blood products to a minor. Proceeding with surgery without blood products in this scenario significantly increases the risk of mortality.
*IV fluids and vasopressors followed by emergency surgery*
- **Vasopressors** are generally used in distributive shock or when fluid resuscitation has failed, and they can worsen organ perfusion in severe hemorrhagic shock by increasing afterload without addressing the volume deficit.
- While **IV fluids** and **emergency surgery** are critical, the patient's severe bleeding likely warrants **blood products** in addition to fluids to adequately replace lost volume and improve oxygen-carrying capacity.
Disaster preparedness for pediatric patients US Medical PG Question 6: A trauma 'huddle' is called. Morphine is administered for pain. Low-flow oxygen is begun. A traumatic diaphragmatic rupture is suspected. Infusion of 0.9% saline is begun. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- A. Chest fluoroscopy
- B. Barium study
- C. CT of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis (Correct Answer)
- D. MRI chest and abdomen
- E. ICU admission and observation
Disaster preparedness for pediatric patients Explanation: ***CT of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis***
- A suspected **traumatic diaphragmatic rupture** requires a comprehensive imaging study to assess the diaphragm, surrounding organs, and potential associated injuries.
- **CT scan** of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis provides detailed anatomical information, can identify herniated abdominal contents, and is essential for surgical planning in trauma settings.
*Chest fluoroscopy*
- While fluoroscopy can detect diaphragmatic motion, it is **less sensitive** for identifying tears or herniated contents in the **acute trauma setting**.
- It does not provide the comprehensive view of surrounding organs and associated injuries often needed in trauma.
*Barium study*
- A barium study is primarily used to evaluate the **gastrointestinal tract**, but it is generally **not the initial imaging modality** for diaphragmatic rupture due to its limited ability to visualize the diaphragm itself or other solid organ injuries.
- It would be performed after suspicion is increased or for very specific indications, not as a primary diagnostic tool.
*MRI chest and abdomen*
- While MRI offers excellent soft tissue contrast, its use in **acute trauma** is limited by **longer acquisition times**, potential contraindications with metallic implants (though less common in acute trauma), and lower availability compared to CT.
- CT remains the **gold standard** for rapid, comprehensive imaging in unstable trauma patients.
*ICU admission and observation*
- While observation in the ICU is important for monitoring and supportive care, it is **not the next step for diagnosis** of a suspected diaphragmatic rupture.
- Definitive diagnosis through imaging (CT) is crucial before determining specific management strategies, including potential surgical intervention.
Disaster preparedness for pediatric patients US Medical PG Question 7: A parent presents to her pediatrician requesting information about immunizations for her newborn. The pediatrician explains about basic principles of immunization, types of vaccines, possible adverse effects, and the immunization schedule. Regarding how immunizations work, the pediatrician explains that there are mainly 2 types of vaccines. The first type of vaccine provides stronger and more lasting immunity as it induces both cellular and humoral immune responses. The second type of vaccine produces mainly a humoral response only, and its overall efficacy is less as compared to the first type. Which of the following vaccines belongs to the first type of vaccine that the pediatrician is talking about?
- A. Hepatitis A vaccine
- B. Polio vaccine (Salk)
- C. Yellow fever vaccine (Correct Answer)
- D. Rabies vaccine
- E. Hepatitis B vaccine
Disaster preparedness for pediatric patients Explanation: ***Yellow fever vaccine***
- The Yellow fever vaccine is a **live-attenuated vaccine**, which mimics natural infection and effectively stimulates both **cellular and humoral immune responses**, leading to strong and long-lasting immunity.
- Live-attenuated vaccines contain a weakened form of the pathogen, allowing for replication within the host and robust immune system activation.
*Hepatitis A vaccine*
- The Hepatitis A vaccine is an **inactivated vaccine**, which primarily induces a **humoral (antibody-mediated) immune response**.
- Inactivated vaccines generally do not stimulate a strong cellular immune response and often require booster doses to maintain protective immunity.
*Polio vaccine (Salk)*
- The Salk polio vaccine is an **inactivated polio vaccine (IPV)**, meaning it contains killed viral particles.
- As an inactivated vaccine, it mainly elicits a **humoral immune response** producing circulating antibodies but less mucosal or cellular immunity.
*Rabies vaccine*
- The Rabies vaccine is an **inactivated vaccine** given after exposure or for pre-exposure prophylaxis.
- It primarily induces a **humoral antibody response** rather than a strong cellular immune response.
*Hepatitis B vaccine*
- The Hepatitis B vaccine is a **recombinant vaccine**, containing only a portion of the viral antigen (HBsAg).
- This type of vaccine primarily stimulates a **humoral immune response** leading to antibody production, which is effective but does not typically induce a strong cellular response like live vaccines.
Disaster preparedness for pediatric patients US Medical PG Question 8: An inconsolable mother brings her 2-year-old son to the emergency room after finding a large amount of bright red blood in his diaper, an hour ago. She states that for the past week her son has been having crying fits while curling his legs towards his chest in a fetal position. His crying resolves either after vomiting or passing fecal material. Currently, the child is in no apparent distress. Physical examination with palpation in the gastric region demonstrates no acute findings. X-ray of the abdominal area demonstrates no acute findings. His current temperature is 36.5°C (97.8°F), heart rate is 93/min, blood pressure is 100/64 mm Hg, and respiratory rate is 26/min. His weight is 10.8 kg (24.0 lb), and height is 88.9 cm (35.0 in). Laboratory tests show the following:
RBC count 5 million/mm3
Hematocrit 36%
Hemoglobin 12 g/dL
WBC count 6,000/mm3
Mean corpuscular volume 78 fL
What is the most likely underlying embryological cause predisposing to this condition?
- A. Failure of the vitelline duct to close (Correct Answer)
- B. Failure of the vitelline duct to open
- C. Elevated anti-mitochondrial antibodies
- D. Problem with bilirubin conjugation
- E. Problem with bilirubin uptake
Disaster preparedness for pediatric patients Explanation: ***Failure of the vitelline duct to close***
- The clinical presentation of a 2-year-old with recurrent episodes of abdominal pain, crying spells (curling legs to chest), and the passage of bright red blood in the diaper is highly suggestive of **intussusception**. This can be transiently relieved when the "curled" bowel straightens itself out, or gas/fecal matter is passed. The presence of **bright red blood** (often referred to as **currant jelly stools** when mixed with mucus) further supports this diagnosis, indicating ischemic bowel.
- In children, intussusception is often idiopathic, but in a small percentage of cases, especially in older infants and children, an **anatomical lead point** can cause it. The most common anatomical lead point is a **Meckel's diverticulum**, which results from the **incomplete obliteration of the vitelline duct** (also known as the omphalomesenteric duct) during embryological development. The diverticulum can act as a foreign body that then telescopes into the adjacent bowel, causing intussusception.
*Failure of the vitelline duct to open*
- The vitelline duct should normally regress and disappear. Therefore, a "failure to open" is not a recognized embryological anomaly or pathology.
- Problems related to the vitelline duct involve either its **incomplete closure** (leading to Meckel's diverticulum, vitelline cysts, or fistulas) or other abnormal remnants, not a failure to open.
*Elevated anti-mitochondrial uptake*
- This option refers to **anti-mitochondrial antibodies (AMAs)**, which are characteristic markers for **primary biliary cholangitis (PBC)**, an autoimmune disease primarily affecting the liver.
- PBC is an adult-onset condition and is not associated with intussusception or the gastrointestinal symptoms described in the child.
*Problem with bilirubin conjugation*
- Issues with **bilirubin conjugation** primarily manifest as different types of **jaundice** (e.g., Crigler-Najjar syndrome, Gilbert's syndrome) due to the accumulation of unconjugated bilirubin.
- These conditions do not cause abdominal pain, intussusception, or bloody stools.
*Problem with bilirubin uptake*
- Problems with **bilirubin uptake** by hepatocytes also lead to **unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia** and jaundice.
- This condition is unrelated to acute abdominal emergencies like intussusception or gastrointestinal bleeding.
Disaster preparedness for pediatric patients US Medical PG Question 9: A 3-year-old girl with no significant past medical history presents to the clinic with a 4-day history of acute onset cough. Her parents have recently started to introduce several new foods into her diet. Her vital signs are all within normal limits. Physical exam is significant for decreased breath sounds on the right. What is the most appropriate definitive management in this patient?
- A. Inhaled bronchodilators and oral corticosteroids
- B. Rigid bronchoscopy (Correct Answer)
- C. Chest x-ray (CXR)
- D. Empiric antibiotic therapy
- E. Flexible bronchoscopy
Disaster preparedness for pediatric patients Explanation: ***Rigid bronchoscopy***
- The sudden onset of cough in a 3-year-old following new food introductions, coupled with decreased breath sounds on the right, strongly suggests a **foreign body aspiration**.
- **Rigid bronchoscopy** is the definitive and preferred method for both diagnosing and removing airway foreign bodies, especially in children, due to its ability to provide better airway control and allow the use of larger instruments.
*Inhaled bronchodilators and oral corticosteroids*
- These therapies are indicated for conditions like **asthma** or **bronchiolitis**, which typically present with wheezing and diffuse airway obstruction, not localized decreased breath sounds.
- They would not resolve a mechanical obstruction caused by a **foreign body**.
*Chest x-ray (CXR)*
- A CXR is often the **initial imaging study** in suspected foreign body aspiration, but it is not definitive management.
- Many foreign bodies are **radiolucent** and may not be visible, and even if visible, the CXR does not remove the object.
*Empiric antibiotic therapy*
- This therapy would be considered for a presumed **bacterial infection** (e.g., pneumonia), which usually presents with fever, productive cough, and specific CXR findings, none of which are primarily indicated here.
- It would not address a **mechanical airway obstruction**.
*Flexible bronchoscopy*
- While flexible bronchoscopy can be used for foreign body removal in some cases, **rigid bronchoscopy** is generally preferred in children for its superior airway control, better visualization, and ability to remove larger or more firmly lodged objects with specialized tools.
- Flexible scopes are more often used for **diagnostic purposes** or in adults for less emergent situations.
Disaster preparedness for pediatric patients US Medical PG Question 10: A 15-month-old girl is brought to the pediatrician by her mother with a history of 3 episodes of breath-holding spells. The patient’s mother says that this is a new behavior and she is concerned. The patient was born at full term by spontaneous vaginal delivery with an uneventful perinatal period. She is also up to date on her vaccines. However, after the age of 6 months, the patient’s mother noticed that she was not as playful as other children of similar age. She is also not interested in interacting with others and her eye contact is poor. Her growth charts suggest that her weight, length, and head circumference were normal at birth, but there have been noticeable decelerations in weight and head circumference. On physical examination, her vital signs are normal. A neurologic examination reveals the presence of generalized mild hypotonia. She also makes repetitive hand wringing motions. Which of the following clinical features is most likely to develop in this patient during the next few years?
- A. Hemiparesis
- B. Intention tremor
- C. Absence seizures
- D. Sensorineural deafness
- E. Loss of purposeful use of her hands (Correct Answer)
Disaster preparedness for pediatric patients Explanation: ***Loss of purposeful use of her hands***
- The constellation of symptoms—**normal development up to 6 months**, followed by **developmental regression** (loss of playfulness, poor social interaction, poor eye contact), **deceleration in head circumference**, **hypotonia**, and **repetitive hand-wringing motions**—is highly suggestive of **Rett syndrome**.
- A hallmark feature of Rett syndrome is the **loss of purposeful hand skills**, which typically occurs between 1 to 4 years of age, replaced by characteristic hand stereotypies like wringing or clapping.
*Hemiparesis*
- **Hemiparesis** is characterized by weakness on one side of the body and is not a typical feature of Rett syndrome.
- While some neurological issues occur, unilateral weakness is more indicative of focal neurological injury rather than this diffuse neurodevelopmental disorder.
*Intention tremor*
- **Intention tremor** is a type of dyskinesia that worsens during voluntary movement and is often associated with cerebellar dysfunction.
- While motor difficulties are prominent in Rett syndrome, **ataxia** and **apraxia** are more characteristic than a predominant intention tremor.
*Absence seizures*
- **Absence seizures** involve brief, sudden lapses of consciousness and are a type of generalized epilepsy.
- Although seizures are common in Rett syndrome, **generalized tonic-clonic seizures** or **focal seizures** are more frequently observed than isolated absence seizures.
*Sensorineural deafness*
- **Sensorineural deafness** implies damage to the inner ear or auditory nerve, resulting in permanent hearing loss.
- While communication difficulties are significant in Rett syndrome, they are due to speech apraxia and cognitive impairment, not primary hearing loss.
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