Pulmonary infections US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice US Medical PG questions for Pulmonary infections. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Pulmonary infections US Medical PG Question 1: A 45-year-old male alcoholic presents with fever, productive cough, and foul-smelling sputum for the past two weeks. Vital signs are T 38.3 C, HR 106, BP 118/64 and RR 16. Oxygen saturation on room air is 90%. Given a diagnosis of aspiration pneumonia, initial chest radiograph findings would most likely include:
- A. Mediastinal abscess located between vertebral levels T1-T3
- B. Left lung abscess due to increased ventilation-perfusion ratio of the left lung
- C. Right lung abscess due to the right main bronchus being wider and more vertically oriented (Correct Answer)
- D. Right lung abscess due to increased anterior-posterior diameter of the right lung
- E. Left lung abscess due to the left main bronchus being located superior to the right main bronchus
Pulmonary infections Explanation: ***Right lung abscess due to the right main bronchus being wider and more vertically oriented***
- Aspiration pneumonia most commonly affects the **right lower lobe** because the **right main bronchus** is wider, shorter, and more vertically oriented than the left, making it a straighter path for aspirated material.
- Alcoholism is a significant risk factor for aspiration, and the clinical presentation of fever, productive cough, and foul-smelling sputum is classic for **post-aspiration bacterial infection** leading to an abscess.
*Mediastinal abscess located between vertebral levels T1-T3*
- A mediastinal abscess is a collection of pus in the **mediastinum**, usually resulting from esophageal perforation, infection spread from neck/pharynx, or surgery.
- While serious, it is not the typical initial radiographic finding in aspiration pneumonia, which primarily affects lung parenchyma.
*Left lung abscess due to increased ventilation-perfusion ratio of the left lung*
- While a lung abscess can occur in any lobe, aspiration preferentially affects the **right lung** due to anatomical differences in the bronchi, not primarily due to ventilation-perfusion ratios.
- An increased ventilation-perfusion ratio (V/Q) typically indicates areas of the lung are well-ventilated but poorly perfused (e.g., pulmonary embolism), which is not the primary mechanism leading to an aspiration abscess.
*Right lung abscess due to increased anterior-posterior diameter of the right lung*
- The anterior-posterior (AP) diameter of the lung is not a significant anatomical factor determining the preferential aspiration into the right lung.
- The key anatomical features are the **width and vertical orientation** of the bronchi.
*Left lung abscess due to the left main bronchus being located superior to the right main bronchus*
- This statement is anatomically incorrect; both main bronchi originate at the carina at approximately the same level, but the **right main bronchus** is wider, shorter, and more vertical in its orientation.
- The left main bronchus is actually longer and more horizontally oriented, making aspiration into it less common.
Pulmonary infections US Medical PG Question 2: A 50-year-old man with a remote history of intravenous drug use and a past medical history of AIDS presents to his primary care provider with several weeks of productive cough and a mild fever. He was in his normal state of health and slowly started to develop these symptoms. He is hoping to be prescribed an antibiotic so he can get back to “normal”. Family history is significant for cardiovascular disease and diabetes. He takes antiviral medication and a multivitamin daily. His heart rate is 90/min, respiratory rate is 19/min, blood pressure is 135/85 mm Hg, and temperature is 38.3°C (100.9°F). On physical examination, he looks uncomfortable. A chest examination reveals consolidation in the right lower lung. Chest radiography confirms right lower lobe pneumonia. Of the following options, which is the most likely cause of the patient’s pneumonia?
- A. Pulmonary sequestration
- B. Pneumocystis pneumonia
- C. Aspiration pneumonia
- D. Community-acquired pneumonia (Correct Answer)
- E. Disseminated cutaneous infection
Pulmonary infections Explanation: ***Community-acquired pneumonia***
- This patient, despite having AIDS, presents with typical symptoms of **community-acquired pneumonia (CAP)**, including productive cough, fever, and classic consolidation on chest examination and radiography.
- While HIV/AIDS patients are at higher risk for opportunistic infections, CAP caused by common bacterial pathogens like *Streptococcus pneumoniae* is still a frequent cause of pneumonia and should be considered, especially with a **lobar consolidation pattern**.
*Pulmonary sequestration*
- **Pulmonary sequestration** is a rare congenital malformation where a segment of lung tissue is not connected to the tracheobronchial tree and receives systemic blood supply. It typically presents with recurrent infections in the same location or as an asymptomatic mass.
- It would not explain the acute onset of symptoms like fever and productive cough, nor the classic signs of pneumonia like consolidation in an otherwise healthy adult (aside from AIDS).
*Pneumocystis pneumonia*
- **Pneumocystis pneumonia (PJP)**, caused by *Pneumocystis jirovecii*, is a classic opportunistic infection in patients with AIDS, especially those with low CD4 counts.
- However, PJP typically presents with a **subacute onset** of dyspnea, non-productive cough, and diffuse interstitial infiltrates on chest radiography, not focal consolidation.
*Aspiration pneumonia*
- **Aspiration pneumonia** occurs when foreign material, often gastric contents or oral flora, is inhaled into the lungs, leading to inflammation and infection.
- There is no clinical indication of aspiration in this patient (e.g., dysphagia, impaired consciousness, reflux), and the history does not suggest risk factors for aspiration.
*Disseminated cutaneous infection*
- A **disseminated cutaneous infection** involves widespread skin lesions caused by an infection.
- This patient's symptoms are localized to the respiratory system (productive cough, lung consolidation) and do not suggest a primary cutaneous infection.
Pulmonary infections US Medical PG Question 3: A 32-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 3-week history of cough, weight loss, and night sweats. He migrated from Sri Lanka 6 months ago. He appears emaciated. His temperature is 38.1°C (100.5°F). Physical examination shows enlargement of the right supraclavicular lymph node. Chest and abdominal examination show no abnormalities. An interferon-gamma assay is positive. A biopsy specimen of the cervical lymph node is most likely to show the causal organism in which of the following locations?
- A. Mantle zone
- B. Medullary sinus
- C. Germinal center
- D. Subcapsular sinus
- E. Paracortex (Correct Answer)
Pulmonary infections Explanation: ***Paracortex***
- The patient's symptoms (cough, weight loss, night sweats, fever), recent migration from an endemic area (Sri Lanka), **supraclavicular lymphadenopathy**, and positive **interferon-gamma release assay (IGRA)** strongly suggest **tuberculosis**.
- In tuberculous lymphadenitis, **caseating granulomas** containing *Mycobacterium tuberculosis* organisms characteristically form in the **paracortex** (T-cell zone).
- The **paracortex** is where **cell-mediated immunity** occurs, with T cells interacting with infected macrophages and dendritic cells to form the **epithelioid granulomas** with **Langhans giant cells** that are pathognomonic for TB.
- The organisms are found within these **granulomas**, which predominantly occur in the paracortical (interfollicular) region.
*Mantle zone*
- The **mantle zone** primarily contains **naïve B cells** surrounding germinal centers.
- This is a B-cell area not typically involved in granuloma formation or mycobacterial infection.
*Germinal center*
- **Germinal centers** are sites of B cell proliferation, somatic hypermutation, and antibody class switching.
- TB is a disease of **cell-mediated immunity** (T cells and macrophages), not humoral immunity, so granulomas do not form in germinal centers.
*Medullary sinus*
- The **medullary sinuses** are channels in the medulla of the lymph node through which lymph flows toward the efferent lymphatic vessels.
- While macrophages line these sinuses and may contain some organisms in acute infections, the characteristic **caseating granulomas** of chronic tuberculous lymphadenitis form in the **paracortex**, not in the sinuses.
*Subcapsular sinus*
- The **subcapsular sinus** is the initial entry point for afferent lymph into the lymph node.
- While this is where pathogens first enter, chronic granulomatous infections like TB develop their characteristic pathology deeper in the node, specifically in the **paracortex** where T-cell-mediated granuloma formation occurs.
Pulmonary infections US Medical PG Question 4: A 40-year-old man presents to the office complaining of chills, fever, and productive cough for the past 24 hours. He has a history of smoking since he was 18 years old. His vitals are: heart rate of 85/min, respiratory rate of 20/min, temperature 39.0°C (102.2°F), blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg. On physical examination, there is dullness on percussion on the upper right lobe, as well as bronchial breath sounds and egophony. The plain radiograph reveals an increase in density with an alveolar pattern in the upper right lobe. Which one is the most common etiologic agent of the suspected disease?
- A. Legionella pneumophila
- B. Chlamydia pneumoniae
- C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
- D. Streptococcus pneumoniae (Correct Answer)
- E. Haemophilus influenzae
Pulmonary infections Explanation: ***Streptococcus pneumoniae***
- This patient presents with classic symptoms of **community-acquired pneumonia (CAP)**, including fever, chills, productive cough, and specific findings on physical exam (dullness, bronchial breath sounds, egophony) and chest X-ray (**lobar consolidation**).
- **_Streptococcus pneumoniae_** is the most common bacterial cause of CAP worldwide, accounting for a significant percentage of cases, especially in adults.
*Legionella pneumophila*
- While _Legionella_ can cause severe pneumonia, it often presents with **GI symptoms** (diarrhea, nausea) and **neurological symptoms** (confusion) in addition to respiratory symptoms, which are not described here.
- Risk factors typically include exposure to **contaminated water sources**, and the pneumonia can be rapidly progressive.
*Chlamydia pneumoniae*
- _Chlamydia pneumoniae_ typically causes a more **atypical pneumonia**, often with a more insidious onset, prolonged cough, and less severe systemic symptoms.
- It usually presents as a **walking pneumonia** with milder findings on chest X-ray, unlike the clear lobar consolidation described.
*Mycoplasma pneumoniae*
- Like _Chlamydia pneumoniae_, _Mycoplasma pneumoniae_ is a common cause of **atypical pneumonia**, often with a gradual onset, hacking cough, and less pronounced fever.
- It rarely causes the classic lobar consolidation seen in this patient and is often referred to as "walking pneumonia."
*Haemophilus influenzae*
- _Haemophilus influenzae_ is a significant cause of CAP, especially in patients with **underlying lung disease** (like COPD) or other comorbidities.
- While certainly a possibility given the patient's smoking history, **_Streptococcus pneumoniae_** remains the overall most common cause of bacterial CAP in otherwise healthy adults.
Pulmonary infections US Medical PG Question 5: A 34-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 6-week history of fever and productive cough with blood-tinged sputum. She has also had a 4-kg (8.8-lb) weight loss during the same time period. Examination shows enlarged cervical lymph nodes. An x-ray of the chest shows a 2.5-cm pulmonary nodule in the right upper lobe. A biopsy specimen of the lung nodule shows caseating granulomas with surrounding multinucleated giant cells. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's pulmonary nodule?
- A. Combined type III/IV hypersensitivity reaction
- B. IgE-mediated mast cell activation
- C. Immune complex deposition
- D. Antibody-mediated cytotoxic reaction
- E. Delayed T cell-mediated reaction (Correct Answer)
Pulmonary infections Explanation: ***Delayed T cell-mediated reaction***
- The presence of **caseating granulomas** with **multinucleated giant cells** is characteristic of tuberculosis, which is mediated by a **Type IV hypersensitivity reaction**.
- This reaction involves **T cells** and **macrophages** forming granulomas to wall off persistent intracellular pathogens.
*Combined type III/IV hypersensitivity reaction*
- While granulomas can sometimes involve aspects of **Type III hypersensitivity** (immune complex deposition), **caseating granulomas** are primarily a feature of **Type IV (delayed T cell-mediated) hypersensitivity**.
- **Type III reactions** are more typically associated with vasculitis or glomerulonephritis, which are not the primary features here.
*IgE-mediated mast cell activation*
- This describes a **Type I hypersensitivity reaction**, responsible for immediate allergic reactions like asthma or anaphylaxis.
- The patient's symptoms (fever, weight loss, productive cough, granulomas) are not consistent with an **IgE-mediated response**.
*Immune complex deposition*
- This is characteristic of a **Type III hypersensitivity reaction**, where antigen-antibody complexes deposit in tissues, leading to inflammation and damage.
- While Type III reactions can cause inflammation, they typically don't manifest as **caseating granulomas** and the chronic, progressive symptoms described.
*Antibody-mediated cytotoxic reaction*
- This describes a **Type II hypersensitivity reaction**, where antibodies directly bind to antigens on cell surfaces, leading to cell lysis (e.g., autoimmune hemolytic anemia).
- The clinical picture of **granulomatous inflammation** is not consistent with a direct **antibody-mediated cytotoxic reaction**.
Pulmonary infections US Medical PG Question 6: A 35-year-old male presents to the emergency room with difficulty breathing. He is accompanied by his wife who reports that they were eating peanuts while lying in bed on their backs when he suddenly started coughing profusely. He has a significant cough and has some trouble breathing. His past medical history is notable for obesity, obstructive sleep apnea, seasonal allergies, and alcohol abuse. He uses a continuous positive airway pressure machine nightly. His medications include cetirizine and fish oil. He has a 10 pack-year smoking history. His temperature is 98.6°F (37°C), blood pressure is 125/30 mmHg, pulse is 110/min, and respirations are 23/min. Which of the following lung segments is most likely affected in this patient?
- A. Posterior segment of right superior lobe
- B. Inferior segment of right inferior lobe
- C. Anterior segment of right superior lobe
- D. Inferior segment of left inferior lobe
- E. Superior segment of right inferior lobe (Correct Answer)
Pulmonary infections Explanation: ***Superior segment of right inferior lobe***
- The patient was found to be lying on his back while eating peanuts, which is a position that predisposes to aspiration into the **superior segment of the right inferior lobe**.
- Aspiration during supine positioning typically leads to foreign body entry into the most posterior-inferiorly directed airways.
*Posterior segment of right superior lobe*
- Aspiration into the **posterior segment of the right superior lobe** is less common in a supine position unless the patient is positioned slightly to the side.
- While the right lung is generally more prone to aspiration due to the straighter main bronchus, the specific segment depends on body position.
*Inferior segment of right inferior lobe*
- The **inferior segment of the right inferior lobe** would be more likely affected if the patient were in an upright position (e.g., sitting or standing) when aspiration occurred.
- In a supine position, gravity directs aspirated material more towards the superior segment of the inferior lobe.
*Anterior segment of right superior lobe*
- Aspiration into the **anterior segment of the right superior lobe** is rare regardless of body position during aspiration.
- This segment is anatomically less susceptible to gravitational flow of aspirated material compared to more posterior or inferior segments.
*Inferior segment of left inferior lobe*
- The **left main bronchus** branches at a sharper angle than the right, making aspiration into the left lung in general less common than into the right lung.
- If aspiration were to occur in the left lung, the specific segment would still largely depend on the patient's body position.
Pulmonary infections US Medical PG Question 7: A 31-year-old female undergoing treatment for leukemia is found to have a frontal lobe abscess accompanied by paranasal swelling. She additionally complains of headache, facial pain, and nasal discharge. Biopsy of the infected tissue would most likely reveal which of the following?
- A. Yeast with pseudohyphae
- B. Septate hyphae
- C. Irregular non-septate hyphae (Correct Answer)
- D. Spherules containing endospores
- E. Budding yeast with a narrow base
Pulmonary infections Explanation: ***Irregular non-septate hyphae***
- The clinical presentation of a **leukemic patient** with a **frontal lobe abscess** and **paranasal swelling**, along with headache, facial pain, and nasal discharge, strongly suggests **mucormycosis**.
- Mucormycosis is characterized by **broad, ribbon-like, irregular non-septate hyphae** with **right-angle branching** on tissue biopsy, making this the most likely finding.
*Yeast with pseudohyphae*
- This morphology is characteristic of **Candida species**, which can cause opportunistic infections but typically manifest as candidemia, esophagitis, or vulvovaginitis in immunocompromised patients, not usually a frontal lobe abscess with paranasal involvement.
- While Candida can cause severe systemic infections, the specific combination of a frontal lobe abscess and paranasal swelling points away from Candida as the primary cause in this context.
*Septate hyphae*
- **Septate hyphae** are typical of **Aspergillus species**, which can cause invasive aspergillosis, including sinopulmonary infections and CNS involvement in immunocompromised hosts.
- However, Aspergillus hyphae are typically **narrow (3-6 µm)** with **acute-angle (45-degree) branching**, differentiating them from the broad, irregular hyphae seen in mucormycosis.
*Spherules containing endospores*
- This morphology is characteristic of **Coccidioides immitis**, the causative agent of coccidioidomycosis.
- Coccidioidomycosis is geographically restricted to endemic areas (e.g., southwestern US) and typically presents with pulmonary symptoms, disseminated disease, or meningitis, which does not fit the described paranasal and frontal lobe presentation.
*Budding yeast with a narrow base*
- This morphology is characteristic of **Cryptococcus neoformans**, an encapsulated yeast that commonly causes **meningitis** and **pneumonia** in immunocompromised individuals.
- While Cryptococcus can cause CNS infections, the presence of paranasal swelling and the specific description of a frontal lobe abscess make mucormycosis a more fitting diagnosis.
Pulmonary infections US Medical PG Question 8: A 50-year-old man presents to the urgent care clinic for 3 hours of worsening cough, shortness of breath, and dyspnea. He works as a long-haul truck driver, and he informs you that he recently returned to the west coast from a trip to Arkansas. His medical history is significant for gout, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, diabetes mellitus type 2, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and mild intellectual disability. He currently smokes 1 pack of cigarettes/day, drinks a 6-pack of beer/day, and he endorses a past history of injection drug use but currently denies any illicit drug use. The vital signs include: temperature 36.7°C (98.0°F), blood pressure 126/74 mm Hg, heart rate 87/min, and respiratory rate 23/min. His physical examination shows mild, bilateral, coarse rhonchi, but otherwise clear lungs on auscultation, grade 2/6 holosystolic murmur, and a benign abdominal physical examination. He states that he ran out of his albuterol inhaler 6 days ago and has been meaning to follow-up with his primary care physician (PCP) for a refill. Complete blood count (CBC) and complete metabolic panel are within normal limits. He also has a D-dimer result within normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in evaluation?
- A. Chest computed tomography (CT) with contrast
- B. Chest radiographs (Correct Answer)
- C. Pulmonary function tests
- D. Sputum gram stain and culture
- E. Arterial blood gas
Pulmonary infections Explanation: ***Chest radiographs***
- A **chest X-ray** is the most appropriate initial imaging study for evaluating acute respiratory symptoms in a patient with a history of COPD and recent exacerbating factors (running out of albuterol). It can help identify common causes like **pneumonia**, **pneumothorax**, or **acute exacerbation of COPD**.
- The patient's presentation with worsening cough, shortness of breath, and dyspnea, particularly in the context of running out of his albuterol inhaler, suggests a primary pulmonary issue that a chest X-ray can quickly assess.
*Chest computed tomography (CT) with contrast*
- A **chest CT with contrast** is more detailed but not the initial diagnostic study in this scenario, especially with a normal D-dimer ruling out pulmonary embolism as a high probability.
- It exposes the patient to **higher radiation** and risks associated with contrast, making it less suitable as a first-line investigation unless the chest X-ray is inconclusive or more specific findings are suspected.
*Pulmonary function tests*
- **Pulmonary function tests (PFTs)** are used to diagnose and monitor chronic lung conditions like COPD, but they are generally not performed in an acute urgent care setting for patients presenting with acute respiratory distress.
- PFTs require patient cooperation and are designed to assess baseline lung function, not to identify the **acute cause** of respiratory decompensation.
*Sputum gram stain and culture*
- A **sputum gram stain and culture** might be considered if there's strong suspicion of a bacterial infection (e.g., fever, purulent sputum), but the patient's current symptoms are more aligned with a COPD exacerbation or other acute pulmonary issue.
- Without clear signs of bacterial infection, this test is **not the most immediate or appropriate first step** in evaluating acute dyspnea, as it requires time for results and may delay more crucial diagnostic steps.
*Arterial blood gas*
- An **arterial blood gas (ABG)** can provide information on oxygenation, ventilation, and acid-base status, which is useful in assessing the severity of respiratory failure.
- However, it's typically ordered after an initial clinical and imaging assessment to quantify the physiological impact of the respiratory distress, rather than being the **very first diagnostic step** to identify the cause.
Pulmonary infections US Medical PG Question 9: A 27-year-old G2P1 female gives birth to a baby girl at 33 weeks gestation. The child is somnolent with notable difficulty breathing. Pulse pressure is widened. She is profusely cyanotic. Auscultation is notable for a loud single S2. An echocardiogram demonstrates an enlarged heart and further studies show blood from the left ventricle entering the pulmonary circulation as well as the systemic circulation. Which of the following processes was most likely abnormal in this patient?
- A. Formation of the interatrial septum
- B. Formation of the aorticopulmonary septum (Correct Answer)
- C. Closure of an aorticopulmonary shunt
- D. Formation of an atrioventricular valve
- E. Spiraling of the truncal and bulbar ridges
Pulmonary infections Explanation: ***Formation of the aorticopulmonary septum***
- The symptoms described, such as **cyanosis**, widened pulse pressure, and a loud single S2, are classic signs of **truncus arteriosus**, a congenital heart defect.
- Truncus arteriosus results from the **failure of the aorticopulmonary septum to form**, leading to a single great artery overriding a ventricular septal defect, allowing blood to shunt from the left ventricle into both pulmonary and systemic circulations.
*Formation of the interatrial septum*
- Defects in the formation of the interatrial septum lead to **atrial septal defects (ASDs)**, which typically cause a left-to-right shunt and are associated with a fixed split S2 and potential for pulmonary hypertension, but not the severe cyanosis and single S2 seen here.
- While an enlarged heart can occur, the primary problem in ASDs is not the mixing of ventricular blood into both circulations in the manner described.
*Closure of an aorticopulmonary shunt*
- An aorticopulmonary shunt refers to a **patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)**, where the ductus arteriosus fails to close after birth. This typically causes a continuous "machine-like" murmur and pulmonary overcirculation, but not severe cyanosis unless associated with other complex lesions.
- The described findings of a single S2, widened pulse pressure, and severe cyanosis point away from an isolated PDA.
*Formation of an atrioventricular valve*
- Abnormalities in atrioventricular valve formation can lead to conditions like **tricuspid or mitral atresia** or **Ebstein's anomaly**. These often present with cyanosis and heart failure, but the specific description of blood from the left ventricle entering both pulmonary and systemic circulations, along with a single great artery and single S2, does not fit isolated AV valve malformations.
- The characteristic presentation strongly points to a truncal anomaly rather than an isolated AV valve issue.
*Spiraling of the truncal and bulbar ridges*
- Failure of the truncal and bulbar ridges to spiral correctly leads to **transposition of the great arteries (TGA)** or **tetralogy of Fallot**. TGA results in two separate circulations and severe cyanosis, while Tetralogy presents with a VSD, pulmonary stenosis, overriding aorta, and right ventricular hypertrophy.
- While spiraling is part of early septation, the specific findings in the case (single S2, widened pulse pressure, and blood shunting from left ventricle to both circulations) are more specifically indicative of truncus arteriosus (failure of septum formation rather than spiraling) than TGA or Tetralogy.
Pulmonary infections US Medical PG Question 10: A 55-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her husband because of chest pain and a cough productive of blood-tinged sputum that started 1 hour ago. Two days ago, she returned from a trip to China. She has smoked 1 pack of cigarettes daily for 35 years. Her only home medication is oral hormone replacement therapy for postmenopausal hot flashes. Her pulse is 123/min and blood pressure is 91/55 mm Hg. Physical examination shows distended neck veins. An ECG shows sinus tachycardia, a right bundle branch block, and T-wave inversion in leads V5–V6. Despite appropriate lifesaving measures, the patient dies. Examination of the lung on autopsy shows a large, acute thrombus in the right pulmonary artery. Based on the autopsy findings, which of the following is the most likely origin of the thrombus?
- A. Iliac vein (Correct Answer)
- B. Subclavian vein
- C. Renal vein
- D. Great saphenous vein
- E. Posterior tibial vein
Pulmonary infections Explanation: ***Iliac vein***
- The iliac vein is a common source of **deep vein thrombosis (DVT)**, which can embolize to the pulmonary arteries, especially with risk factors like prolonged travel and hormone replacement therapy. This type of thrombus is often large enough to cause significant hemodynamic instability and death, as seen clinically.
- The patient's presentation with **chest pain**, **blood-tinged sputum**, **hypotension**, **tachycardia**, **distended neck veins**, and ECG changes (right bundle branch block, T-wave inversion in V5-V6 suggesting **right heart strain**) is classic for a massive pulmonary embolism (PE) originating from a large venous thrombosis, most commonly from the iliofemoral system.
*Subclavian vein*
- While subclavian vein thrombosis can occur, it's typically associated with **central venous catheters** or **thoracic outlet syndrome**. These risk factors are not mentioned in the patient's history.
- Thrombi from this location are a less common cause of **massive pulmonary embolism** compared to lower extremity deep vein thrombosis.
*Renal vein*
- **Renal vein thrombosis** is usually associated with conditions like nephrotic syndrome, malignancy, or hypercoagulable states, and often presents with flank pain or hematuria.
- While it can lead to PE, it's a less common source for a **massive clot** causing acute cardiopulmonary collapse than lower extremity veins.
*Great saphenous vein*
- The great saphenous vein is part of the **superficial venous system**. Superficial thrombophlebitis is generally a benign condition with a low risk of pulmonary embolism.
- When superficial clots do extend into the deep system, they can cause PE, but the primary origin of a massive, fatal PE is typically from the **deep veins**.
*Posterior tibial vein*
- The posterior tibial vein is a **deep vein**, and thrombosis here can certainly lead to PE. However, it is a smaller vein compared to the iliac veins.
- While a posterior tibial vein clot *could* embolize, a **massive pulmonary embolism** resulting in acute death is more frequently caused by larger thrombi from the more proximal, wider deep veins like the iliac or femoral veins.
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