Tumor immunology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice US Medical PG questions for Tumor immunology. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Tumor immunology US Medical PG Question 1: A research team develops a new monoclonal antibody checkpoint inhibitor for advanced melanoma that has shown promise in animal studies as well as high efficacy and low toxicity in early phase human clinical trials. The research team would now like to compare this drug to existing standard of care immunotherapy for advanced melanoma. The research team decides to conduct a non-randomized study where the novel drug will be offered to patients who are deemed to be at risk for toxicity with the current standard of care immunotherapy, while patients without such risk factors will receive the standard treatment. Which of the following best describes the level of evidence that this study can offer?
- A. Level 1
- B. Level 3 (Correct Answer)
- C. Level 5
- D. Level 4
- E. Level 2
Tumor immunology Explanation: ***Level 3***
- A **non-randomized controlled trial** like the one described, where patient assignment to treatment groups is based on specific characteristics (risk of toxicity), falls into Level 3 evidence.
- This level typically includes **non-randomized controlled trials** and **well-designed cohort studies** with comparison groups, which are prone to selection bias and confounding.
- The study compares two treatments but lacks randomization, making it Level 3 evidence.
*Level 1*
- Level 1 evidence is the **highest level of evidence**, derived from **systematic reviews and meta-analyses** of multiple well-designed randomized controlled trials or large, high-quality randomized controlled trials.
- The described study is explicitly stated as non-randomized, ruling out Level 1.
*Level 2*
- Level 2 evidence involves at least one **well-designed randomized controlled trial** (RCT) or **systematic reviews** of randomized trials.
- The current study is *non-randomized*, which means it cannot be classified as Level 2 evidence, as randomization is a key criterion for this level.
*Level 4*
- Level 4 evidence includes **case series**, **case-control studies**, and **poorly designed cohort or case-control studies**.
- While the study is non-randomized, it is a controlled comparative trial rather than a case series or retrospective case-control study, placing it at Level 3.
*Level 5*
- Level 5 evidence is the **lowest level of evidence**, typically consisting of **expert opinion** without explicit critical appraisal, or based on physiology, bench research, or animal studies.
- While the drug was initially tested in animal studies, the current human comparative study offers a higher level of evidence than expert opinion or preclinical data.
Tumor immunology US Medical PG Question 2: A researcher is studying the interactions between foreign antigens and human immune cells. She has isolated a line of lymphocytes that is known to bind antigen-presenting cells. From this cell line, she has isolated a cell surface protein that binds to class I major histocompatibility complex molecules. The continued activation, proliferation and survival of this specific cell line requires which of the following signaling molecules?
- A. Interleukin 1
- B. Interleukin 4
- C. Interleukin 2 (Correct Answer)
- D. Interleukin 8
- E. Interleukin 6
Tumor immunology Explanation: ***Interleukin 2***
- The description of the lymphocyte binding the **constant portion of MHC class I** and requiring a signaling molecule for activation, proliferation, and survival points to a **T cell**.
- **Interleukin-2 (IL-2)** is a crucial cytokine for the proliferation, differentiation, and survival of T lymphocytes, acting in an autocrine or paracrine fashion after T cell activation.
*Interleukin 1*
- **Interleukin-1 (IL-1)** is primarily involved in inflammation and fever, produced by macrophages and other innate immune cells.
- While it can act as a costimulator for T cells, it is not the primary cytokine required for their sustained proliferation and survival after initial activation.
*Interleukin 4*
- **Interleukin-4 (IL-4)** is a key cytokine in humoral immunity, promoting B cell proliferation and differentiation, and inducing IgE class switching.
- It also plays a role in the differentiation of naive T cells into **Th2 cells**, but it is not the main cytokine for general T cell proliferation and survival.
*Interleukin 8*
- **Interleukin-8 (IL-8)**, also known as CXCL8, is a chemokine primarily responsible for attracting and activating neutrophils to sites of infection or inflammation.
- It does not have a direct role in the sustained proliferation and survival of activated lymphocytes.
*Interleukin 6*
- **Interleukin-6 (IL-6)** is a pleiotropic cytokine involved in acute phase reactions, hematopoiesis, and the immune response, particularly B cell differentiation and antibody production.
- Although it can influence T cell responses, it is not the primary growth factor for activated T lymphocytes as IL-2 is.
Tumor immunology US Medical PG Question 3: An investigator studying the molecular characteristics of various malignant cell lines collects tissue samples from several families with a known mutation in the TP53 tumor suppressor gene. Immunohistochemical testing performed on one of the cell samples stains positive for desmin. This sample was most likely obtained from which of the following neoplasms?
- A. Squamous cell carcinoma
- B. Rhabdomyosarcoma (Correct Answer)
- C. Prostate cancer
- D. Endometrial carcinoma
- E. Melanoma
Tumor immunology Explanation: ***Rhabdomyosarcoma***
- **Desmin** is an intermediate filament present in **muscle cells**, and its positive staining is a definitive marker for tumors of muscle origin
- A **rhabdomyosarcoma** is a malignant tumor of **skeletal muscle** differentiation, thus explaining the positive desmin staining.
*Squamous cell carcinoma*
- **Squamous cell carcinomas** are epithelial tumors that typically stain positive for **cytokeratin**, not desmin, as they originate from epithelial cells.
- They are characterized by features such as **intercellular bridges** and **keratinization**.
*Prostate cancer*
- **Prostate cancer** is an adenocarcinoma, meaning it's derived from glandular epithelial cells, and would stain positive for markers like **PSA (prostate-specific antigen)**, not desmin.
- This tumor type is characterized by glandular differentiation.
*Endometrial carcinoma*
- **Endometrial carcinomas** are adenocarcinomas of the uterine lining, derived from glandular epithelial cells, and would express **cytokeratins**, not desmin.
- Histologically, they show glandular structures and atypical endometrial cells.
*Melanoma*
- **Melanomas** are malignant tumors of melanocytes and would stain positive for markers such as **S-100**, **HMB-45**, and **Mart-1**, not desmin.
- These tumors originate from neural crest cells and are not muscle-derived.
Tumor immunology US Medical PG Question 4: A 28-year-old woman has a follow-up visit with her physician. She was diagnosed with allergic rhinitis and bronchial asthma at 11 years of age. Her regular controller medications include daily high-dose inhaled corticosteroids and montelukast, but she still needs to use a rescue inhaler 3–4 times a week following exercise. She also becomes breathless with moderate exertion. After a thorough evaluation, the physician explains that her medication dosages need to be increased. She declines taking oral corticosteroids daily due to concerns about side effects. The physician prescribes omalizumab, which is administered subcutaneously every 3 weeks. Which of the following best explains the mechanism of action of the new medication that has been added to the controller medications?
- A. Prevention of binding of IgE antibodies to mast cell receptors (Correct Answer)
- B. Inhibition of synthesis of interleukin-4 (IL-4)
- C. Inhibition of synthesis of IgE antibodies
- D. Selective binding to interleukin-3 (IL-3) and inhibition of its actions
- E. Prevention of binding of interleukin-5 (IL-5) to its receptors
Tumor immunology Explanation: ***Prevention of binding of IgE antibodies to mast cell receptors***
- **Omalizumab** is a **monoclonal antibody** that specifically targets and binds to **free IgE** in the bloodstream, preventing it from attaching to high-affinity IgE receptors on **mast cells** and **basophils**.
- By reducing surface IgE, omalizumab **downregulates IgE receptors** on these cells, thereby reducing the release of inflammatory mediators upon allergen exposure, which is beneficial in **allergic asthma** uncontrolled by standard therapies.
*Inhibition of synthesis of interleukin-4 (IL-4)*
- **IL-4** is a cytokine primarily involved in **Th2 differentiation** and **IgE class switching**, but omalizumab's action is not directly blocking its synthesis.
- While *omalizumab* indirectly reduces IgE levels, its primary mechanism isn't to inhibit the production of IL-4 itself, but rather to prevent the effects of existing IgE.
*Inhibition of synthesis of IgE antibodies*
- **Omalizumab** does not inhibit the *synthesis* of IgE antibodies; instead, it binds to already synthesized **free IgE** circulating in the blood.
- This binding effectively neutralizes IgE, preventing it from contributing to the allergic cascade, but it doesn't stop B cells from producing more IgE.
*Selective binding to interleukin-3 (IL-3) and inhibition of its actions*
- **IL-3** is a cytokine involved in the growth and differentiation of various **hematopoietic cells**, including mast cells and basophils, but it is not the target of omalizumab.
- Omalizumab specifically targets **IgE** and has no known direct action on IL-3 signaling pathways.
*Prevention of binding of interleukin-5 (IL-5) to its receptors*
- **IL-5** is a key cytokine in the **eosinophilic inflammatory pathway** and is targeted by other therapies (e.g., mepolizumab, reslizumab) used for severe eosinophilic asthma.
- Omalizumab's mechanism is distinct, focusing on **IgE-mediated inflammation** rather than direct eosinophil control.
Tumor immunology US Medical PG Question 5: A 62-year-old man seeks evaluation at a local walk-in clinic for mid-low back pain of several weeks. He has tried different rehabilitation therapies and medications with no improvement. He was prescribed some pain medications and sent home last week, but the patient presents today with difficulty walking and worsening of his back pain. He was referred to the ER, where he was examined and found to have hypoesthesia from T12 to S4–S5, significant muscle weakness in both lower limbs, and reduced knee and ankle deep tendon reflexes. A hypotonic anal sphincter with conserved deep anal pressure was demonstrated on digital rectal examination, as well as a multinodular, asymmetric prostate. Imaging studies showed multiple sclerotic bone lesions along the spine. Subsequently, a prostate core biopsy was obtained which confirmed the diagnosis of prostate cancer. Which of the following characteristics would you expect in the specimen?
- A. Well-formed glands with an increase in interglandular stroma
- B. Fat invasion
- C. Prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia
- D. Small, closely-packed, well-formed glands
- E. Perineural invasion (Correct Answer)
Tumor immunology Explanation: ***Perineural invasion***
- **Perineural invasion** is a common finding in prostate adenocarcinoma, indicating that cancer cells have invaded the nerves surrounding the prostatic glands. This feature is often associated with a higher Gleason score and increased likelihood of extraprostatic extension and metastasis.
- While not visible on gross examination, its presence on biopsy can influence staging and treatment decisions for prostate cancer, particularly regarding the risk of recurrence and spread to other tissues.
*Well-formed glands with an increase in interglandular stroma*
- This description is more indicative of **benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)**, a non-cancerous enlargement of the prostate, characterized by an increase in both glandular and stromal components.
- In BPH, the glands typically remain well-formed, and the stroma often proliferates, but these features do not represent malignancy.
*Fat invasion*
- **Fat invasion** is not a typical characteristic of prostate cancer within the prostate gland itself, as the prostate is not primarily composed of fat.
- While prostate cancer can invade periprostatic fatty tissue if it extends beyond the prostatic capsule, fat invasion within the biopsy specimen from the prostate proper is not a diagnostic feature of adenocarcinoma.
*Prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia*
- **Prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia (PIN)** is a pre-malignant lesion where the prostatic ductal and acinar cells show cytologic atypia but remain confined within the basement membrane.
- While PIN (especially high-grade PIN) can be associated with prostate cancer and may precede its development, it is not cancer itself and is not the definitive diagnosis in this case where prostate cancer has been confirmed.
*Small, closely-packed, well-formed glands*
- This description could represent a **low-grade prostate adenocarcinoma** (Gleason pattern 3), where the glands are still relatively well-formed but are more numerous and crowded than in benign tissue.
- However, compared to perineural invasion, which is a more definitive sign of aggressive behavior and advanced disease in a patient presenting with metastatic features (sclerotic bone lesions, neurologic symptoms), this histological finding alone is less specific for the advanced cancer described.
Tumor immunology US Medical PG Question 6: A 6-year-old girl is brought to the physician for pain and increasing swelling over her scalp for 1 month. She has not had any trauma to the area. There is no family or personal history of serious illness. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows a 3-cm solitary, tender mass over the right parietal bone. X-ray of the skull shows a solitary osteolytic lesion. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 10.9 g/dL
Leukocyte count 7300/mm3
Serum
Na+ 136 mEq/L
K+ 3.7 mEq/L
Cl- 103 mEq/L
Ca2+ 9.1 mg/dL
Glucose 71 mg/dL
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Giant-cell tumor of bone
- B. Langerhans cell histiocytosis (Correct Answer)
- C. Ewing sarcoma
- D. Multiple myeloma
- E. Aneurysmal bone cyst
Tumor immunology Explanation: ***Langerhans cell histiocytosis***
- The presentation of a **solitary osteolytic skull lesion** in a child, especially with pain and swelling, is highly suggestive of **Langerhans cell histiocytosis (LCH)**.
- LCH can manifest as **eosinophilic granuloma**, which is a localized form primarily affecting bone, often the skull, and commonly presents in children.
*Giant-cell tumor of bone*
- This tumor typically occurs in **young adults (20s-40s)**, not children, and most commonly affects the **epiphysis of long bones**, such as the distal femur or proximal tibia.
- While it can be lytic, its demographic and usual location are inconsistent with this case.
*Ewing sarcoma*
- Ewing sarcoma also presents in children and young adults with bone pain and swelling, but it often involves the **diaphysis of long bones** or the pelvis.
- Radiographically, it is classically described as an **"onion-skin" periosteal reaction** or a permeative lesion, which is not indicated here.
*Multiple myeloma*
- This is a malignancy of **plasma cells** almost exclusively seen in **older adults**, typically over 60 years of age.
- It presents with widespread **punched-out lytic lesions** in the skull, vertebrae, and other bones, along with systemic symptoms like anemia and renal dysfunction.
*Aneurysmal bone cyst*
- An aneurysmal bone cyst is a benign, expansile, lytic bone lesion that can occur in children and often causes pain and swelling.
- However, it typically presents as an **eccentric, expansile lesion** with a thin rim of periosteal new bone formation, and more often affects the metaphysis of long bones or vertebrae, rather than a purely lytic lesion in the parietal bone without trauma.
Tumor immunology US Medical PG Question 7: A 32-year-old man presents to the emergency room for a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. After stabilizing the patient, a full radiologic evaluation reveals multiple contrast-enhancing lesions in the brain, lungs, and liver. According to his wife, he lost several pounds in the last few months. The medical history is relevant for cryptorchidism, with abdominal testes that were surgically transferred to the scrotum just before he turned 1-year old. His lab investigation reveals:
α-fetoprotein:
9 ng/mL (normal values < 10 ng/mL)
Human chorionic gonadotropin:
1,895 IU/L (normal values < 0.5 IU/L)
Which of the following microscopic features best describes the lesions seen in this patient's imaging study?
- A. Germ cells with well-defined borders, central nuclei, prominent nucleoli, and clear cytoplasm
- B. Mixture of primitive neuroectoderm, loose mesenchyme, and primitive glandular structures
- C. Intimate association of syncytiotrophoblast and cytotrophoblast cells (Correct Answer)
- D. Glomerulus-like structure with a mesoderm core, a central capillary, and lined with germ cells
- E. Cells with hyaline-like globules
Tumor immunology Explanation: ***Intimate association of syncytiotrophoblast and cytotrophoblast cells***
- The combination of a **generalized tonic-clonic seizure** (suggesting brain metastasis), **multiple contrast-enhancing lesions** in brain, lungs, and liver, weight loss, history of **cryptorchidism**, and significantly **elevated human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)** (1,895 IU/L, normal < 0.5 IU/L) despite normal AFP, is highly indicative of a **choriocarcinoma**.
- **Choriocarcinomas** are characterized microscopically by an intimate admixture of **syncytiotrophoblast** and **cytotrophoblast cells** lacking chorionic villi. These tumors are highly aggressive and prone to widespread metastasis, particularly to the lungs, brain, and liver.
*Germ cells with well-defined borders, central nuclei, prominent nucleoli, and clear cytoplasm*
- This description is characteristic of **seminoma**, the most common germ cell tumor.
- While seminomas can spread, the extremely high hCG levels without elevated AFP and the rapid, widespread metastasis depicted are more typical of choriocarcinoma.
*Mixture of primitive neuroectoderm, loose mesenchyme, and primitive glandular structures*
- This description refers to the microscopic features of an **immature teratoma**.
- While immature teratomas can arise from germ cells, they typically do not produce such high levels of hCG, and their metastatic pattern is often different.
*Glomerulus-like structure with a mesoderm core, a central capillary, and lined with germ cells*
- This is the classic description of a **Schiller-Duval body**, which is pathognomonic for a **yolk sac tumor** (also known as endodermal sinus tumor).
- Yolk sac tumors are associated with elevated **alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)**, which is normal in this patient.
*Cells with hyaline-like globules*
- The presence of **hyaline-like globules** (containing AFP and/or alpha-1-antitrypsin) is also a feature seen in **yolk sac tumors**.
- As mentioned, the normal AFP level in this patient makes a yolk sac tumor less likely.
Tumor immunology US Medical PG Question 8: A 70-year-old man comes to the physician because of right-sided back pain, red urine, and weight loss for the last 4 months. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 40 years. A CT scan of the abdomen shows a large right-sided renal mass. Biopsy of the mass shows polygonal clear cells filled with lipids. Which of the following features is necessary to determine the tumor grade in this patient?
- A. Invasion of surrounding structures
- B. Response to chemotherapy
- C. Nuclear pleomorphism and nucleolar prominence (Correct Answer)
- D. Involvement of regional lymph nodes
- E. Size of malignant proliferation
Tumor immunology Explanation: ***Nuclear pleomorphism and nucleolar prominence***
- The **Fuhrman nuclear grading system** (and newer WHO/ISUP grading system) for renal cell carcinoma is based on **nuclear morphologic features**: nuclear size, nuclear contour irregularity, and most importantly, **nucleolar prominence**.
- **Grade 1**: Small uniform nuclei with inconspicuous nucleoli
- **Grade 2**: Slightly irregular nuclei with small nucleoli visible at 400× magnification
- **Grade 3**: Moderately irregular nuclei with prominent nucleoli visible at 100× magnification
- **Grade 4**: Marked nuclear pleomorphism, multilobated nuclei, and prominent nucleoli
- Higher nuclear grades correlate with more aggressive tumor behavior and worse prognosis.
*Invasion of surrounding structures*
- This feature is crucial for **tumor staging (T stage)**, specifically T3 disease when perinephric fat, renal vein, or IVC is invaded, and T4 when beyond Gerota's fascia.
- **Invasion** determines surgical approach and prognosis related to local spread but does not define histological grade.
*Response to chemotherapy*
- **Response to chemotherapy** is evaluated after treatment and is not a feature used for grading at diagnosis.
- Clear cell RCC is **chemoresistant**; treatment typically involves targeted therapy (VEGF inhibitors, mTOR inhibitors) or immunotherapy, not traditional chemotherapy.
*Involvement of regional lymph nodes*
- **Lymph node involvement** is a component of **tumor staging (N stage)**: N0 (no nodes), N1 (regional nodes positive).
- It indicates metastatic spread and significantly worsens prognosis but does not contribute to **histological grade**, which assesses cellular differentiation.
*Size of malignant proliferation*
- **Tumor size** is the primary criterion for **T staging**: T1a (≤4 cm), T1b (>4-7 cm), T2a (>7-10 cm), T2b (>10 cm), all confined to kidney.
- Size is a prognostic factor but does not determine **histological grade**, which is based exclusively on nuclear microscopic features.
Tumor immunology US Medical PG Question 9: A 5-year-old male is brought to his pediatrician after recurrent, prolonged upper respiratory infections over a period of several months. Physical exam reveals petechiae on the patient's legs and arms. Laboratory studies show hemoglobin: 10 g/dL, platelet count: 35,000/mm^3, leukocyte count: 6,600/mm^3. A bone marrow aspiration shows an abundance of lymphoblasts indicative of acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL). Positive immunostaining for which of the following would support a diagnosis of precursor B-cell leukemia?
- A. CD2, CD8
- B. TdT, HER-2
- C. CD4, CD5
- D. CD19, CD10 (Correct Answer)
- E. CD30, CD15
Tumor immunology Explanation: ***CD19, CD10***
- **CD19** is a pan B-cell marker, expressed on almost all B-lymphocytes from early pre-B-cells through mature B-cells. Its presence, along with **CD10**, is highly characteristic of **precursor B-cell ALL (B-ALL)**.
- **CD10**, also known as common acute lymphoblastic leukemia antigen (CALLA), is typically expressed on **early B-cell progenitors** and is a reliable marker for differentiating B-ALL from other leukemias.
*CD2, CD8*
- **CD2** and **CD8** are markers primarily associated with **T-lymphocytes**. While CD2 is a pan T-cell marker, CD8 identifies cytotoxic T cells.
- Their positivity would suggest a **T-cell ALL (T-ALL)**, not the precursor B-cell type indicated by the clinical scenario.
*TdT, HER-2*
- **Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (TdT)** is an enzyme found in immature lymphocytes (both B and T cells) and is positive in most ALL cases, but it is not specific for B-cell lineage.
- **HER-2** is an oncogene and a growth factor receptor overexpressed in certain solid tumors (especially breast cancer) but is not a marker used for leukemia classification.
*CD4, CD5*
- **CD4** is a marker for helper T cells, while **CD5** is expressed on a subset of T cells and some B-cell malignancies (e.g., chronic lymphocytic leukemia/small lymphocytic lymphoma).
- These markers are primarily associated with **T-cell lineages** and would not support a diagnosis of precursor B-cell leukemia in this context.
*CD30, CD15*
- **CD30** and **CD15** are classical markers for **Hodgkin lymphoma** (specifically the classical type).
- Their presence would point towards a lymphoproliferative disorder different from acute lymphoblastic leukemia.
Tumor immunology US Medical PG Question 10: A 37-year-old woman presents to the occupational health clinic for a new employee health screening. She has limited medical records prior to her immigration to the United States several years ago. She denies any current illness or significant medical history. Purified protein derivative (PPD) is injected on the inside of her left forearm for tuberculosis (TB) screening. Approximately 36 hours later, the patient comes back to the occupational health clinic and has an indurated lesion with bordering erythema measuring 15 mm in diameter at the site of PPD injection. Of the following options, which is the mechanism of her reaction?
- A. Type III and IV–mixed immune complex and cell-mediated hypersensitivity reactions
- B. Type III–immune complex-mediated hypersensitivity reaction
- C. Type I–anaphylactic hypersensitivity reaction
- D. Type II–cytotoxic hypersensitivity reaction
- E. Type IV–cell-mediated (delayed) hypersensitivity reaction (Correct Answer)
Tumor immunology Explanation: ***Type IV–cell-mediated (delayed) hypersensitivity reaction***
- The **PPD test** for tuberculosis is a classic example of a **Type IV hypersensitivity reaction**, also known as **delayed-type hypersensitivity (DTH)**. This reaction is orchestrated by **T lymphocytes** (specifically CD4+ T cells) that recognize antigens presented by antigen-presenting cells
- The **induration** at 36 hours is a hallmark of this type of reaction, as it typically peaks between **24 to 72 hours** after antigen exposure, reflecting the time required for T cells to migrate to the site and initiate an inflammatory response. The immune response involves the release of **cytokines** leading to macrophage accumulation and localized tissue damage.
*Type III and IV–mixed immune complex and cell-mediated hypersensitivity reactions*
- While immune complexes (Type III) and cell-mediated reactions (Type IV) can both lead to tissue damage, a PPD test is primarily a **cell-mediated response** and is not characterized by significant immune complex deposition.
- Mixed reactions are less common and usually involve a sustained presence of antigen leading to both types of responses, which is not the typical mechanism for an acute PPD skin test.
*Type III–immune complex-mediated hypersensitivity reaction*
- **Type III hypersensitivity** is characterized by the formation of **antigen-antibody immune complexes** that deposit in tissues, leading to inflammation and tissue damage, often seen in conditions like serum sickness or lupus nephritis.
- The PPD reaction is based on T-cell recognition of mycobacterial antigens, not the deposition of soluble antigen-antibody complexes.
*Type I–anaphylactic hypersensitivity reaction*
- **Type I hypersensitivity** is an **immediate allergic reaction** mediated by **IgE antibodies** binding to mast cells and basophils, leading to histamine release upon re-exposure to an allergen.
- This type of reaction typically occurs within minutes of exposure, not 36 hours later, and presents with symptoms like hives, angioedema, or anaphylaxis.
*Type II–cytotoxic hypersensitivity reaction*
- **Type II hypersensitivity** involves **antibodies (IgG or IgM)** binding to antigens on the surface of **host cells**, leading to cell lysis or dysfunction, often seen in transfusion reactions or autoimmune hemolytic anemia.
- The PPD test does not involve direct antibody-mediated destruction of host cells.
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