Immune-related adverse events US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice US Medical PG questions for Immune-related adverse events. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Immune-related adverse events US Medical PG Question 1: A 56-year-old African American presents to the emergency department due to abdominal pain, fatigue, and weight loss over the past 3 months. He has a long-standing history of chronic hepatitis B virus infection complicated by cirrhosis. On examination, he has jaundice, leg edema, and a palpable mass in the right upper abdominal quadrant. Abdominal ultrasound shows a 3-cm liver mass with poorly defined margins and coarse, irregular internal echoes. Blood investigations are shown:
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 90 U/L
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 50 U/L
Total bilirubin 2 mg/dL
Albumin 3 g/dL
Alkaline phosphatase 100 U/L
Alpha fetoprotein 600 micrograms/L
Which of the following targeted agents is approved for advanced-stage hepatoma?
- A. Ustekinumab
- B. Daclizumab
- C. Sorafenib (Correct Answer)
- D. Abciximab
- E. Palivizumab
Immune-related adverse events Explanation: ***Sorafenib***
- This patient's presentation with chronic hepatitis B, cirrhosis, a liver mass, and an **elevated alpha-fetoprotein** is highly suggestive of **hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC)**, also known as hepatoma.
- **Sorafenib** is a **multi-targeted tyrosine kinase inhibitor** that inhibits tumor cell proliferation and angiogenesis by targeting VEGFR, PDGFR, Raf kinases, and other kinases involved in tumor progression.
- It was the **first systemic therapy approved for advanced-stage HCC** and remains an important first-line treatment option for patients with advanced disease who are not candidates for surgical or locoregional therapies.
*Ustekinumab*
- **Ustekinumab** is a monoclonal antibody that targets the **p40 subunit of IL-12 and IL-23**, primarily used in the treatment of **psoriasis** and psoriatic arthritis, not HCC.
- It works by blocking inflammatory pathways involved in autoimmune conditions.
*Daclizumab*
- **Daclizumab** is a humanized monoclonal antibody that targets the **CD25 subunit of the IL-2 receptor**; it was previously used for treating **multiple sclerosis** but has been largely discontinued due to safety concerns.
- It is not indicated for the treatment of any form of cancer.
*Abciximab*
- **Abciximab** is a monoclonal antibody that targets the **glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor** on platelets, used as an **antiplatelet agent** in patients undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention.
- Its mechanism of action is related to inhibition of platelet aggregation and thrombosis, not cancer therapy.
*Palivizumab*
- **Palivizumab** is a monoclonal antibody used for the **prevention of serious lower respiratory tract disease** caused by **respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)** in high-risk infants.
- It provides passive immunity against RSV and has no role in cancer treatment.
Immune-related adverse events US Medical PG Question 2: A 49-year-old man presents to a new primary care provider complaining of fatigue and occasional fever over the last month. These symptoms are starting to affect his job and he would like treatment. The physician runs a standard metabolic panel that shows elevated AST and ALT. The patient is then tested for hepatitis viruses. He is hepatitis C positive. The patient and his doctor discuss treatment options and agree upon pegylated interferon and oral ribavirin. Which side-effect is most likely while taking the ribavirin?
- A. Hemolytic anemia (Correct Answer)
- B. Leukopenia
- C. Rash
- D. Drug-associated lupus
- E. Hyperthyroidism
Immune-related adverse events Explanation: ***Hemolytic anemia***
- **Ribavirin** is a guanosine analog that causes **hemolytic anemia** by accumulating in red blood cells and disrupting their metabolism.
- This side effect is common and often dose-limiting, requiring close monitoring of hemoglobin levels.
*Leukopenia*
- **Leukopenia** (low white blood cell count) is a known side effect of **interferon therapy**, not primarily ribavirin.
- While patients on combination therapy may experience this, it's more directly attributable to the interferon component.
*Rash*
- **Rash** can occur with various medications, including combination hepatitis C therapy, but it is not a hallmark or most likely side effect specifically associated with **ribavirin**.
- It's generally less clinically significant than hemolytic anemia.
*Drug-associated lupus*
- **Drug-associated lupus** is a rare and severe reaction, sometimes linked to certain drugs like **hydralazine** or **procainamide**, but not typically associated with **ribavirin** or hepatitis C treatment.
- Its occurrence probability is much lower than hemolytic anemia.
*Hyperthyroidism*
- **Thyroid dysfunction**, including **hyperthyroidism** and hypothyroidism, is a known side effect of **interferon therapy**, due to its immunomodulatory effects.
- It is not a primary side effect of **ribavirin**.
Immune-related adverse events US Medical PG Question 3: A 46-year-old male presents to his dermatologist for routine follow-up of his psoriasis. He was last seen in the office six months prior, at which time he started undergoing ultraviolet light therapy. He reports that he initially noticed an improvement in his symptoms but the effects were transient. He has also started noticing pain and stiffness in his fingers. His past medical history is notable for obesity and diabetes mellitus. He takes metformin. His temperature is 99°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg, pulse is 80/min, and respirations are 16/min. Multiple plaques with scaling are noted on the extensor surfaces of the upper and lower extremities. The patient’s physician suggests stopping the ultraviolet light therapy and starting an injectable medication that acts as a decoy receptor for a pro-inflammatory cytokine. Which of the following is an adverse effect associated with the use of this medication?
- A. Cushing’s syndrome
- B. Retinopathy
- C. Myelosuppression
- D. Reactivation of latent tuberculosis (Correct Answer)
- E. Nephrotoxicity
Immune-related adverse events Explanation: ***Reactivation of latent tuberculosis***
- The patient's symptoms (psoriasis with associated arthralgias) suggest **psoriatic arthritis**. The physician's recommendation for an injectable medication acting as a decoy receptor for a **pro-inflammatory cytokine** refers to a **TNF-α inhibitor** (e.g., etanercept, infliximab, adalimumab).
- TNF-α inhibitors suppress the immune system, making patients susceptible to **opportunistic infections**, including the **reactivation of latent tuberculosis** (TB). Screening for latent TB is crucial before initiating these medications.
*Cushing’s syndrome*
- **Cushing's syndrome** is caused by prolonged exposure to high levels of **glucocorticoids**, either endogenous (e.g., adrenal tumors) or exogenous (e.g., long-term steroid use).
- TNF-α inhibitors do not directly cause Cushing's syndrome; they are **biologic agents** that target specific inflammatory pathways.
*Retinopathy*
- **Retinopathy** is a condition affecting the retina, often associated with systemic diseases like **diabetes** or medications such as **hydroxychloroquine**.
- TNF-α inhibitors are not typically associated with retinopathy as a direct side effect.
*Myelosuppression*
- **Myelosuppression** (bone marrow suppression) is a common adverse effect of **chemotherapeutic agents** and some immunosuppressants (e.g., methotrexate, azathioprine).
- While TNF-α inhibitors can rarely cause hematologic abnormalities, significant myelosuppression is not a characteristic or common adverse effect compared to traditional cytotoxic drugs.
*Nephrotoxicity*
- **Nephrotoxicity** refers to kidney damage caused by drugs, such as **NSAIDs**, aminoglycosides, or certain chemotherapeutic agents.
- TNF-α inhibitors are not primarily associated with nephrotoxicity as a significant adverse effect.
Immune-related adverse events US Medical PG Question 4: A 38-year-old woman comes to the physician for a follow-up examination. Two years ago, she was diagnosed with multiple sclerosis. Three weeks ago, she was admitted and treated for right lower leg weakness with high-dose methylprednisone for 5 days. She has had 4 exacerbations over the past 6 months. Current medications include interferon beta and a multivitamin. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 90/min, and blood pressure is 116/74 mm Hg. Examination shows pallor of the right optic disk. Neurologic examination shows no focal findings. She is anxious about the number of exacerbations and repeated hospitalizations. She is counseled about the second-line treatment options available to her. She consents to treatment with natalizumab. However, she has read online about its adverse effects and is concerned. This patient is at increased risk for which of the following complications?
- A. Tuberculosis
- B. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone
- C. Parkinsonism
- D. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (Correct Answer)
- E. Aplastic anemia
Immune-related adverse events Explanation: ***Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy***
- **Natalizumab** is a monoclonal antibody that blocks the binding of leukocytes to endothelial cells, preventing their entry into the central nervous system. This immunosuppressive effect increases the risk of **progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML)**, especially in patients who are positive for the **JC virus**.
- PML is a serious and often fatal opportunistic infection of the brain caused by the **JC virus**, which demyelinates axons and leads to severe neurological deficits.
*Tuberculosis*
- While some immunosuppressants can reactivate **latent tuberculosis**, natalizumab is not typically associated with an increased risk of TB compared to other immunomodulatory drugs like TNF-alpha inhibitors.
- The mechanism of action of natalizumab (alpha-4 integrin blocker) does not directly impede the immune response responsible for containing mycobacterial infections to the same extent as other treatments.
*Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone*
- **SIADH** is not a known adverse effect of natalizumab.
- SIADH is characterized by excessive secretion of **antidiuretic hormone**, leading to hyponatremia, and is often associated with certain medications (e.g., SSRIs, carbamazepine) or underlying conditions like malignancy or pulmonary disease.
*Parkinsonism*
- Parkinsonism involves symptoms like **bradykinesia**, rigidity, and tremor, and is a neurodegenerative disorder.
- There is **no evidence** suggesting a causal link between natalizumab treatment and the development of Parkinsonism.
*Aplastic anemia*
- **Aplastic anemia** is a rare but severe condition where the bone marrow fails to produce blood cells.
- This adverse effect is not associated with natalizumab; it is more commonly linked to certain **chemotherapeutic agents**, radiation, or specific antimicrobial drugs like chloramphenicol.
Immune-related adverse events US Medical PG Question 5: A 35-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 6-month history of fatigue and increased sweating at night. He says that he feels “constantly tired” and needs more rest than usual although he sleeps well. In the morning, his sheets are often wet and his skin is clammy. He has not had any sore throat, runny nose, or cough recently. He has not traveled anywhere. Over the past 4 months, he has had a 6.8-kg (15-lb) weight loss, despite having a normal appetite. He does not drink or urinate more than usual. He is 181 cm (5 ft 11 in) tall and weighs 72 kg (159 lb); BMI is 22 kg/m2. His temperature is 37.9°C (100.2°F), pulse is 65/min, and blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. An HIV screening test and confirmatory test are both positive. The CD4 count is 600 cells/μl and the viral load is 104 copies/mL. Treatment with lamivudine, zidovudine, and indinavir is begun. The patient is at greatest risk for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Urolithiasis (Correct Answer)
- B. Stevens-Johnson syndrome
- C. Hypersensitivity reaction
- D. Chronic kidney disease
- E. Pancreatitis
Immune-related adverse events Explanation: ***Urolithiasis***
- The patient is receiving **indinavir**, a protease inhibitor known to cause **nephrolithiasis** (kidney stones) due to the drug's poor solubility.
- Patients on indinavir should be well-hydrated to reduce the risk of stone formation.
*Stevens-Johnson syndrome*
- This severe skin reaction is more commonly associated with non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs) like **nevirapine** and **efavirenz**, or with sulfonamide antibiotics, rather than indinavir.
- While possible with many drugs, it is not the *greatest risk* among the options for this specific regimen.
*Hypersensitivity reaction*
- While hypersensitivity can occur with many drugs, particularly abacavir (an NRTI not included in this regimen), it is not the most prominent or specific adverse effect for the given combination, especially indinavir.
- Symptoms usually include fever, rash, and multi-organ involvement, which can be acute.
*Chronic kidney disease*
- While some antiretrovirals, particularly **tenofovir disoproxil fumarate (TDF)**, can cause renal tubular dysfunction and lead to chronic kidney disease, TDF is not part of this patient's regimen.
- Indinavir's primary renal complication is acute stone formation, not typically chronic kidney disease in the absence of pre-existing conditions or other nephrotoxic drugs.
*Pancreatitis*
- Pancreatitis is a known adverse effect of some NRTIs, particularly **didanosine** and **stavudine**, neither of which are in this patient's treatment plan.
- Lamivudine and zidovudine have a lower risk of pancreatitis compared to other NRTIs.
Immune-related adverse events US Medical PG Question 6: A 51-year-old woman with hyperlipidemia comes to the physician because of weakness for one month. At the end of the day, she feels too fatigued to cook dinner or carry a laundry basket up the stairs. She also complains of double vision after she reads for long periods of time. All of her symptoms improve with rest. Her only medication is pravastatin. Physical examination shows drooping of the upper eyelids. Strength is initially 5/5 in the upper and lower extremities but decreases to 4/5 after a few minutes of sustained resistance. Sensation to light touch is intact and deep tendon reflexes are normal. Which of the following best describes the pathogenesis of this patient's condition?
- A. Type II hypersensitivity reaction (Correct Answer)
- B. Anterior horn cell destruction
- C. Impaired acetylcholine release
- D. Peripheral nerve demyelination
- E. Adverse drug effect
Immune-related adverse events Explanation: ***Type II hypersensitivity reaction***
- This patient's symptoms of **fatigue** and **muscle weakness** that worsen with activity and improve with rest (**fatigable weakness**), along with **ptosis** (drooping eyelids) and **diplopia** (double vision), are classic for **myasthenia gravis**.
- Myasthenia gravis is an **autoimmune disease** characterized by autoantibodies that target and destroy **acetylcholine receptors** at the neuromuscular junction, leading to impaired signal transmission. This is a classic example of a **Type II hypersensitivity reaction**, where antibodies directly mediate cellular destruction or dysfunction.
*Anterior horn cell destruction*
- **Anterior horn cell destruction**, as seen in **amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)**, typically presents with both upper and lower motor neuron signs, such as **spasticity**, **hyperreflexia**, **fasciculations**, and **muscle atrophy**.
- In ALS, there is progressive weakness but typically **without fatigability** and oculomotor symptoms (ptosis, diplopia) are less common or occur late in the disease.
*Impaired acetylcholine release*
- **Impaired acetylcholine release** is characteristic of **Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome (LEMS)**, which is often associated with small cell lung cancer.
- Unlike myasthenia gravis, LEMS typically shows **improvement in muscle strength with sustained activity** (due to increased presynaptic acetylcholine release), rather than worsening.
*Peripheral nerve demyelination*
- **Peripheral nerve demyelination** is the hallmark of conditions like **Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS)** or **chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (CIDP)**.
- These conditions usually present with **sensory deficits**, **areflexia**, and **ascending paralysis/weakness**, which are absent in this patient.
*Adverse drug effect*
- While **statins** can cause **myopathy** (muscle pain and weakness), this typically involves diffuse muscle aches and elevated **creatine kinase** levels, and does not typically present with the classic fatigable weakness, ptosis, and diplopia seen here.
- The specific pattern of fatigable weakness improving with rest and affecting specific muscle groups (e.g., ocular muscles) points away from a simple statin-induced myopathy.
Immune-related adverse events US Medical PG Question 7: A 62-year-old man comes to the physician because of fatigue and decreased urine output for 2 weeks. He has not been to the physician for many years and takes no medications. Serum studies show a urea nitrogen concentration of 42 mg/dL and a creatinine concentration of 2.3 mg/dL. Urinalysis shows heavy proteinuria. A photomicrograph of a section of a kidney biopsy specimen is shown. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's symptoms?
- A. Amyloidosis
- B. Diabetes mellitus (Correct Answer)
- C. Dyslipidemia
- D. Fibromuscular dysplasia
- E. Severe hypertension
Immune-related adverse events Explanation: ***Diabetes mellitus***
- The kidney biopsy shows **diffuse glomerulosclerosis** with **Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules** (nodular mesangial sclerosis), which are pathognomonic for **diabetic nephropathy**.
- **Heavy proteinuria**, elevated BUN (42 mg/dL) and creatinine (2.3 mg/dL), along with the patient's age, are consistent with long-standing diabetes mellitus, even if previously undiagnosed.
- Diabetic nephropathy is the leading cause of end-stage renal disease in the United States.
*Amyloidosis*
- While amyloidosis can cause nephrotic syndrome and renal failure, the characteristic histology shows **extracellular amorphous deposits** that stain with **Congo red** and demonstrate apple-green birefringence under polarized light.
- The mesangial nodular pattern seen in diabetic nephropathy is distinct from the amyloid deposits seen in amyloidosis.
- Systemic amyloidosis typically presents with other organ involvement such as **cardiomyopathy**, **hepatosplenomegaly**, or **macroglossia**.
*Dyslipidemia*
- **Dyslipidemia** is a common comorbidity of nephrotic syndrome and diabetic nephropathy, but it is not a direct cause of the structural glomerular damage.
- It represents a metabolic consequence rather than the underlying etiology of the renal pathology.
*Fibromuscular dysplasia*
- **Fibromuscular dysplasia** affects the **renal arteries**, causing **renovascular hypertension** and renal ischemia.
- It typically presents with hypertension in young to middle-aged women and an abdominal bruit, not with heavy proteinuria and glomerular nodular sclerosis.
- The histology would show arterial wall changes, not glomerular pathology.
*Severe hypertension*
- **Severe hypertension** causes hypertensive nephrosclerosis with arteriolosclerosis and global glomerulosclerosis, but not the characteristic **nodular mesangial expansion** (Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules) seen in diabetic nephropathy.
- While hypertension commonly accompanies diabetic nephropathy, the specific histological findings of nodular glomerulosclerosis are pathognomonic for diabetes mellitus.
- Hypertensive nephrosclerosis shows arteriolar hyalinosis and ischemic changes, which differ from diabetic glomerular changes.
Immune-related adverse events US Medical PG Question 8: A 40-year-old woman with myasthenia gravis on pyridostigmine develops worsening weakness, diplopia, and dysphagia. She recently had URI and received azithromycin. Exam shows bilateral ptosis, ophthalmoplegia, and proximal muscle weakness with preserved reflexes. Her acetylcholinesterase inhibitor dose was increased 3 days ago. Edrophonium test shows no improvement. ABG shows hypercapnia. Evaluate the synthesis of clinical findings and determine the life-threatening complication requiring immediate intervention.
- A. Botulism from contaminated food requiring antitoxin administration
- B. Lambert-Eaton syndrome from paraneoplastic antibodies requiring immunosuppression
- C. Myasthenic crisis from insufficient acetylcholinesterase inhibition requiring increased pyridostigmine
- D. Cholinergic crisis from excessive acetylcholinesterase inhibition requiring drug cessation and atropine (Correct Answer)
- E. Guillain-Barré syndrome from post-infectious autoimmunity requiring plasmapheresis
Immune-related adverse events Explanation: ***Cholinergic crisis from excessive acetylcholinesterase inhibition requiring drug cessation and atropine***
- A **negative edrophonium test** and recent increase in **pyridostigmine** dose indicates that nicotinic receptors are overstimulated and desensitized, preventing clinical improvement with further drug administration.
- The presence of life-threatening **respiratory failure (hypercapnia)** due to excessive **cholinergic stimulation** necessitates the cessation of the offending drug and the use of **atropine** to manage muscarinic side effects.
*Botulism from contaminated food requiring antitoxin administration*
- While it causes **descending paralysis**, its onset is typically associated with ingestion of C. botulinum toxin and involves **fixed dilated pupils**, unlike the pinpoint pupils often seen in cholinergic excess.
- It would not explain why a patient already on therapy for **myasthenia gravis** is experiencing a crisis immediately following a medication dose increase.
*Lambert-Eaton syndrome from paraneoplastic antibodies requiring immunosuppression*
- This condition involves **presynaptic** calcium channel antibodies and typically shows **improvement with muscle use**, the opposite of this patient's presentation.
- It is generally associated with **small cell lung cancer** and would not cause an acute respiratory failure triggered by a recent change in pyridostigmine dosing.
*Myasthenic crisis from insufficient acetylcholinesterase inhibition requiring increased pyridostigmine*
- A **myasthenic crisis** would typically show clinical improvement during an **edrophonium (Tensilon) test** as it addresses the lack of acetylcholine at the junction.
- Although triggered by infections or drugs like **azithromycin**, the lack of response to edrophonium after a recent dose increase strongly points toward over-medication rather than under-medication.
*Guillain-Barré syndrome from post-infectious autoimmunity requiring plasmapheresis*
- **Guillain-Barré syndrome** typically presents with **ascending paralysis** and a hallmark feature of **absent deep tendon reflexes**, whereas this patient has preserved reflexes.
- It does not present with **ophthalmoplegia** or ptosis as early or prominent signs compared to the sudden clinical worsening seen in established myasthenia cases.
Immune-related adverse events US Medical PG Question 9: A 32-year-old pregnant woman at 20 weeks gestation with known anti-Rh(D) antibodies from previous pregnancy presents for routine prenatal care. Her current fetus is Rh(D)-positive by cell-free DNA testing. Middle cerebral artery Doppler shows increased peak systolic velocity. Fetal ultrasound reveals polyhydramnios and ascites. Amniocentesis shows elevated bilirubin. Synthesize the pathophysiology and evaluate the therapeutic intervention that addresses the underlying immune mechanism.
- A. Immediate delivery and phototherapy to prevent kernicterus
- B. Administration of anti-Rh(D) immunoglobulin to mother to neutralize antibodies
- C. Intrauterine transfusion to replace hemolyzed fetal erythrocytes
- D. Maternal high-dose IVIG to competitively inhibit FcRn-mediated antibody transport (Correct Answer)
- E. Maternal plasmapheresis to remove anti-Rh(D) antibodies
Immune-related adverse events Explanation: ***Maternal high-dose IVIG to competitively inhibit FcRn-mediated antibody transport***
- This therapy directly addresses the underlying **immune mechanism** by blocking the **neonatal Fc receptor (FcRn)** in the placenta, which is responsible for transporting maternal IgG to the fetus.
- By inhibiting this transport, it reduces the quantity of **anti-Rh(D) antibodies** reaching the fetal circulation, thereby mitigating **Type II hypersensitivity** destruction of fetal RBCs.
*Immediate delivery and phototherapy to prevent kernicterus*
- Immediate delivery at **20 weeks gestation** is inappropriate as the fetus is pre-viable and suffers from extreme **prematurity**.
- Phototherapy is a neonatal treatment for **hyperbilirubinemia** and does not address the active **in utero hemolysis** or immune transport mechanism.
*Administration of anti-Rh(D) immunoglobulin to mother to neutralize antibodies*
- **Rho(D) immune globulin** is used for **prophylaxis** in unsensitized Rh-negative women to prevent the initial immune response.
- It is ineffective once a mother is already **alloimmunized** (sensitized), as it cannot neutralize a high titer of pre-existing memory B-cell mediated antibody production.
*Intrauterine transfusion to replace hemolyzed fetal erythrocytes*
- While **intrauterine transfusion (IUT)** is the standard treatment for fetal anemia, it addresses the **consequence** (anemia) rather than the underlying immune transport mechanism.
- It is often performed when **Middle Cerebral Artery (MCA) Doppler** shows high peak systolic velocity, signaling severe anemia, but does not stop the maternal antibodies from entering fetal blood.
*Maternal plasmapheresis to remove anti-Rh(D) antibodies*
- **Plasmapheresis** can acutely lower maternal antibody titers but its effects are temporary due to rapid **rebound antibody production**.
- It is generally reserved for very early, severe cases and is less effective at targeting the specific **placental transport** mechanism than IVIG.
Immune-related adverse events US Medical PG Question 10: A 25-year-old man with HIV (CD4 count 450 cells/μL) on antiretroviral therapy for 6 months develops fever, lymphadenopathy, and worsening respiratory symptoms. Chest CT shows new mediastinal lymphadenopathy and pulmonary infiltrates. Sputum is positive for Mycobacterium tuberculosis. His viral load is undetectable. Evaluate the immunologic phenomenon responsible for his clinical deterioration despite virologic control.
- A. Opportunistic infection from progressive immunosuppression
- B. Development of antiretroviral drug resistance causing treatment failure
- C. Paradoxical reaction from inadequate tuberculosis treatment
- D. Immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome from restored pathogen-specific responses (Correct Answer)
- E. Drug-induced hypersensitivity pneumonitis from antiretroviral therapy
Immune-related adverse events Explanation: ***Immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome from restored pathogen-specific responses***
- **Immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome (IRIS)** occurs when antiretroviral therapy (ART) leads to a rapid recovery of **CD4+ T cells**, which then mount an exaggerated inflammatory response against a pre-existing pathogen.
- This patient demonstrates **unmasking IRIS**, where an underlying subclinical **Mycobacterium tuberculosis** infection becomes symptomatic due to the restoration of **pathogen-specific immune responses** despite a low viral load.
*Opportunistic infection from progressive immunosuppression*
- This is unlikely because the patient's **viral load is undetectable** and the **CD4 count is 450**, indicating successful immune recovery rather than failure.
- True **opportunistic infections** typically occur when the immune system is severely depleted, not when it is reconstituting under ART.
*Development of antiretroviral drug resistance causing treatment failure*
- **Resistance** would typically present with a **rising viral load** and a dropping CD4 count, which is the opposite of this patient's laboratory findings.
- Clinical deterioration due to resistance is a slow process of **viral escape**, not an acute inflammatory presentation with new lymphadenopathy.
*Paradoxical reaction from inadequate tuberculosis treatment*
- While **paradoxical reactions** occur during TB therapy, this patient was not previously treated for TB; the symptoms developed after starting **ART** for HIV.
- This scenario specifically describes an **unmasking IRIS** event rather than a reaction to existing anti-tubercular chemotherapy.
*Drug-induced hypersensitivity pneumonitis from antiretroviral therapy*
- While ART drugs can have side effects, **hypersensitivity pneumonitis** would not explain the presence of **Mycobacterium tuberculosis** in the sputum.
- The focal **mediastinal lymphadenopathy** and positive sputum cultures point towards an infection-driven inflammatory process rather than a drug allergy.
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