General Pathology

General Pathology US Medical PG Question 1: A 52-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after a motor vehicle accident. He was an unrestrained passenger who was ejected from the vehicle. On presentation, he is found to be actively bleeding from numerous wounds. His blood pressure is 76/42 mmHg and pulse is 152/min. Attempts at resuscitation fail, and he dies 25 minutes later. Autopsy shows blood in the peritoneal cavity, and histology of the kidney reveals swelling of the proximal convoluted tubule epithelial cells. Which of the following is most likely the mechanism underlying the renal cell findings?

• A. Decreased activity of caspase 7
• B. Increased activity of caspase 9
• C. Increased function of the Na+/K+-ATPase
• D. Increased activity of caspase 8
• E. Decreased function of the Na+/K+-ATPase (Correct Answer)

General Pathology Explanation: ***Decreased function of the Na+/K+-ATPase*** - The patient experienced **hypovolemic shock** due to severe blood loss, leading to a significant drop in blood pressure and organ perfusion. This results in **ischemia** of the renal cells. - **Ischemic injury** impairs ATP production, which is essential for the function of the **Na+/K+-ATPase pump**. Failure of this pump leads to intracellular accumulation of sodium and water, causing **cellular swelling**, particularly noticeable in the proximal convoluted tubules. *Decreased activity of caspase 7* - **Caspases**, including caspase 7, are involved in **apoptosis** (programmed cell death), which involves cell shrinkage and fragmentation, not the swelling observed here. - Decreased caspase activity would generally *reduce* apoptosis, which is not the primary mechanism of acute cell injury in shock. *Increased activity of caspase 9* - Increased activity of **caspase 9** is indicative of the **intrinsic apoptotic pathway**, typically initiated by mitochondrial damage. - While prolonged ischemia can eventually lead to apoptotic changes, the acute finding of **cellular swelling** points more directly to immediate membrane pump dysfunction due to ATP depletion. *Increased function of the Na+/K+-ATPase* - **Increased function** of the Na+/K+-ATPase would actively pump sodium out of the cell and potassium in, *preventing* intracellular swelling. - This option contradicts the observed finding of proximal convoluted tubule epithelial cell swelling, which is characteristic of acute cellular injury due to pump failure. *Increased activity of caspase 8* - **Caspase 8** is a key initiator caspase in the **extrinsic apoptotic pathway**, often triggered by death receptor signaling. - Similar to caspase 9, increased caspase 8 activity would lead to apoptosis, characterized by cell shrinkage, not the **cellular swelling** seen in acute ischemic injury.

General Pathology US Medical PG Question 2: A 78-year-old man with a history of myocardial infarction status post coronary artery bypass grafting and a 60-pack-year history of smoking is found deceased in his apartment after not returning calls to his family for the last 2 days. The man was last known to be alive 3 days ago, when his neighbor saw him getting his mail. The family requests an autopsy. On autopsy, the man is found to have a 100% blockage of his left anterior descending artery of his heart and likely passed from sudden cardiac death 2 days prior. Which of the following findings is expected to be found on histologic examination of his damaged myocardium?

• A. Fat saponification
• B. Cellular debris and lymphocytes
• C. Cystic cavitation
• D. Cellular debris and macrophages
• E. Uniform binding of acidophilic dyes (Correct Answer)

General Pathology Explanation: ***Uniform binding of acidophilic dyes*** - This finding, often described as **coagulative necrosis**, is characteristic of myocardial infarction 1-3 days after onset, as enzymes denature and bind to eosin more uniformly. - The patient was found deceased 2 days after his suspected death, placing the myocardial changes within this timeframe. *Fat saponification* - **Fat saponification** is a type of fat necrosis, typically seen in the pancreas or breast, resulting from the enzymatic destruction of fat cells. - It does not occur in the myocardium following an ischemic event. *Cellular debris and lymphocytes* - **Lymphocytes** are generally not the predominant inflammatory cells in the initial stages of a myocardial infarction. - While cellular debris would be present, the primary inflammatory infiltrate in the first 3 days after an MI is typically **neutrophils**, not lymphocytes. *Cystic cavitation* - **Cystic cavitation** is a characteristic feature of liquefactive necrosis, which occurs in the brain following an ischemic stroke, but not in the heart. - The heart undergoes **coagulative necrosis** after an MI. *Cellular debris and macrophages* - **Macrophages** become prominent later in the healing process of a myocardial infarction, typically starting around **3-7 days** after the event. - At the 2-day mark, the dominant cells would still be neutrophils and necrotic myocytes.

General Pathology US Medical PG Question 3: A 68-year-old man presents to his primary care provider after noticing that his urine has been pink for the last week. He does not have any pain with urination, nor has he had any associated fevers or infections. On his review of systems, the patient notes that he thinks he has lost some weight since his belt is looser, and he has also had occasional dull pressure in his back for the past two months. His temperature is 98.8°F (37.1°C), blood pressure is 132/90 mmHg, pulse is 64/min, and respirations are 12/min. The patient weighs 210 lbs (95.3 kg, BMI 31.9 kg/m²), compared to his weight of 228 lbs (103.4 kg, BMI 34.7 kg/m²) at his last visit 2 years prior. On exam, the patient does not have any back or costovertebral angle tenderness. On abdominal palpation, a firm mass can be appreciated deep in the left abdomen. Given the suspected diagnosis, the clinical workup should also assess for which of the following paraneoplastic syndromes?

• A. Hypercalcemia (Correct Answer)
• B. Polycythemia
• C. Anemia
• D. Stauffer syndrome
• E. Hypercortisolism

General Pathology Explanation: ***Hypercalcemia*** - The patient's presentation with **painless hematuria**, unexplained weight loss, flank pain, and a palpable abdominal mass is highly suggestive of **renal cell carcinoma (RCC)**. - **Hypercalcemia** is the **most common paraneoplastic syndrome** associated with RCC, occurring in 10-20% of cases, often due to the tumor secreting **parathyroid hormone-related protein (PTHrP)**. - This is the most important metabolic abnormality to screen for in the initial workup. *Polycythemia* - While **polycythemia** can be a paraneoplastic syndrome in RCC due to **erythropoietin (EPO) production**, it occurs in only 3-10% of cases, making it less common than hypercalcemia. - The patient's symptoms do not specifically point to an excess red blood cell count. *Anemia* - **Anemia** is actually the most common hematologic finding in RCC (20-40% of cases), more common than polycythemia. - It represents a paraneoplastic effect related to chronic disease and inflammatory cytokines. - However, **hypercalcemia is the more critical paraneoplastic syndrome to assess** given its prognostic significance and need for intervention. *Stauffer syndrome* - **Stauffer syndrome** is a paraneoplastic syndrome associated with RCC characterized by **non-metastatic hepatic dysfunction** with elevated alkaline phosphatase and prolonged prothrombin time. - While it occurs in 3-20% of cases, **hypercalcemia is more common** and typically assessed first in the metabolic workup. *Hypercortisolism* - **Hypercortisolism (Cushing's syndrome)** is rarely associated with RCC; it is more typically seen with **small cell lung carcinoma** or **adrenal tumors** producing ectopic ACTH. - There are no symptoms mentioned in the patient's presentation to suggest excess cortisol production.

General Pathology US Medical PG Question 4: Researchers are investigating the mechanism of cell apoptosis and host defense in mice. They have observed that mice with certain gene deletions are not able to fight the induced viral infection. They identify a cell that is able to destroy target cells infected with viruses by exocytosis of granule contents, which induces the activation of caspases. Which type of cell is responsible for this process?

• A. CD8+ lymphocytes (Correct Answer)
• B. CD4+ lymphocytes
• C. Macrophages
• D. Neutrophils
• E. Eosinophils

General Pathology Explanation: ***CD8+ lymphocytes*** - **CD8+ lymphocytes**, or **cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTLs)**, are specialized to recognize and kill **virus-infected cells** and cancer cells. - They achieve this by releasing cytotoxic granules containing **perforin** and **granzymes**, which enter the target cell and activate **caspases**, leading to **apoptosis**. - Note: **Natural killer (NK) cells** also use a similar granule-mediated mechanism, but CD8+ T cells provide **antigen-specific** recognition via MHC class I. *CD4+ lymphocytes* - **CD4+ lymphocytes**, or **helper T cells**, primarily coordinate immune responses by secreting **cytokines** and activating other immune cells, rather than directly killing infected cells. - They are crucial for both humoral and cell-mediated immunity but do not typically induce apoptosis via granule exocytosis. *Macrophages* - **Macrophages** are phagocytic cells that engulf and digest pathogens, cellular debris, and foreign substances. - While they can present antigens and participate in immune responses, their primary role in antiviral defense is **phagocytosing infected cells** and presenting antigens, not inducing apoptosis via granule exocytosis. *Neutrophils* - **Neutrophils** are key components of the innate immune system, primarily involved in fighting bacterial infections through **phagocytosis**, degranulation, and formation of **neutrophil extracellular traps (NETs)**. - They are not specialized for detecting and inducing apoptosis in virus-infected cells. *Eosinophils* - **Eosinophils** are primarily involved in the immune response against **parasitic infections** and allergic reactions. - They release granules containing toxic proteins against parasites and contribute to inflammation, but they do not directly kill virus-infected cells via caspase activation.

General Pathology US Medical PG Question 5: A 19-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician because she has been feeling increasingly lethargic over the last 6 months. Specifically, she says that she feels tired easily and has been cold even though she is wearing lots of layers. Her medical history is significant for seasonal allergies but is otherwise unremarkable. When prompted, she also says that she has a hard time swallowing food though she has no difficulty drinking liquids. Physical exam reveals a midline mass in her neck. Which of the following structures would most likely be seen if this patient's mass was biopsied?

• A. Lymphatic ducts
• B. Neutrophilic invasion
• C. Blood vessels
• D. Follicles with colloid (Correct Answer)
• E. Hollow epithelial duct

General Pathology Explanation: ***Follicles with colloid*** - The patient's symptoms (lethargy, cold intolerance, difficulty swallowing solids, midline neck mass) are highly suggestive of **hypothyroidism** due to a **goiter**, which often arises from an enlarged thyroid gland. - The **thyroid gland** is composed of follicles filled with **colloid**, which is the storage form of thyroid hormones. A biopsy of an enlarged thyroid gland would therefore show these structures. *Lymphatic ducts* - **Lymphatic ducts** are part of the lymphatic system, which is involved in immune function and fluid balance, not typically found in a thyroid biopsy under these circumstances. - While neck masses can sometimes be enlarged lymph nodes, the symptoms point specifically to thyroid dysfunction rather than a lymphatic issue. *Neutrophilic invasion* - **Neutrophilic invasion** indicates an acute inflammatory or infectious process, which is not suggested by the chronic and systemic symptoms presented here. - This finding would be more typical of an abscess or acute thyroiditis, which usually presents with pain and fever. *Blood vessels* - While **blood vessels** are present in all tissues, including the thyroid, they are not the *most characteristic* or defining structure seen during a biopsy of a mass suspected to be an enlarged thyroid gland. - The question asks for the structure *most likely* to be seen, implying a unique and diagnostic histological feature. *Hollow epithelial duct* - **Hollow epithelial ducts** are characteristic of structures like salivary glands or cysts formed from developmental remnants (e.g., thyroglossal duct cyst), but less likely to be the primary finding in an enlarged thyroid gland causing systemic symptoms of hypothyroidism. - A thyroglossal duct cyst would typically present as a midline neck mass that moves with tongue protrusion, and while it could cause dysphagia, it typically doesn't cause symptoms of hypothyroidism.

General Pathology US Medical PG Question 6: A 27-year-old woman presents to the emergency department complaining of a left-sided headache and right-sided blurry vision. She states that 2 weeks ago she developed dark urine and abdominal pain. She thought it was a urinary tract infection so she took trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole that she had left over. She planned on going to her primary care physician today but then she developed headache and blurry vision so she came to the emergency department. The patient states she is otherwise healthy. Her family history is significant for a brother with sickle cell trait. On physical examination, there is mild abdominal tenderness, and the liver edge is felt 4 cm below the right costal margin. Labs are drawn as below: Hemoglobin: 7.0 g/dL Platelets: 149,000/mm^3 Reticulocyte count: 5.4% Lactate dehydrogenase: 3128 U/L Total bilirubin: 2.1 mg/dL Indirect bilirubin: 1.4 mg/dL Aspartate aminotransferase: 78 U/L Alanine aminotransferase: 64 U/L A peripheral smear shows polychromasia. A Doppler ultrasound of the liver shows decreased flow in the right hepatic vein. Magnetic resonance imaging of the brain is pending. Which of the following tests, if performed, would most likely identify the patient’s diagnosis?

• A. Flow cytometry (Correct Answer)
• B. Glucose-6-phosphate-dehydrogenase levels
• C. Anti-histone antibodies
• D. Bone marrow biopsy
• E. Hemoglobin electrophoresis

General Pathology Explanation: ***Flow cytometry*** - The patient's symptoms (headache, blurry vision, dark urine, abdominal pain, hepatomegaly) along with laboratory findings of **hemolytic anemia** (low hemoglobin, elevated reticulocyte count, high LDH, elevated indirect bilirubin) and signs of **thrombosis** (decreased hepatic vein flow, neurological symptoms) are highly suggestive of **paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)**. - **Flow cytometry** is the gold standard for diagnosing PNH by detecting the absence of **CD55** and **CD59** on red blood cells, granulocytes, and monocytes, indicating a deficiency in the **GPI anchor protein**. *Glucose-6-phosphate-dehydrogenase levels* - **G6PD deficiency** typically presents with hemolytic anemia triggered by **oxidant stressors** (like trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole) but does not typically cause **thrombosis** or widespread organ involvement (e.g., hepatic vein thrombosis, neurological symptoms) as seen in this patient. - Measuring G6PD levels would be appropriate if G6PD deficiency was suspected, but the clinical picture points more strongly to PNH due to the thrombotic events. *Anti-histone antibodies* - **Anti-histone antibodies** are primarily associated with drug-induced **lupus erythematosus**, which can manifest with various systemic symptoms, but not typically with severe hemolytic anemia and thrombotic microangiopathy in this specific pattern. - While drug exposure is present (trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole), the overall clinical and lab findings (especially the severe hemolytic picture and thrombosis) are not characteristic of drug-induced lupus in this context. *Bone marrow biopsy* - A **bone marrow biopsy** might show findings consistent with increased erythropoiesis due to hemolysis but is not a primary diagnostic test for PNH or its associated thrombotic complications. - While it could be part of an evaluation for underlying bone marrow disorders, it would not directly confirm a diagnosis of PNH, which requires specific surface marker detection. *Hemoglobin electrophoresis* - **Hemoglobin electrophoresis** is used to diagnose **hemoglobinopathies** such as **sickle cell disease** or **thalassemia**. The patient's brother has sickle cell trait, but the patient's symptoms, particularly the prominent hemolytic anemia and thrombotic events, are not typical of a hemoglobinopathy in this acute presentation. - While it could rule out a hemoglobinopathy, it wouldn't explain the full spectrum of symptoms, especially the thrombosis and the specific pattern of hemolysis (e.g., elevated LDH, indirect bilirubin).

General Pathology US Medical PG Question 7: A 56-year-old man presents to the emergency room with severe substernal chest pain associated with a 2-hour history of breathlessness and sweating. An electrocardiogram shows an ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction. Cardiac enzyme levels confirm a diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction. The patient is rushed to the catheter lab for angioplasty with stenting. The patient complains of recurrent chest pain in the ICU 56 hours post-angioplasty. Which of the following enzymes facilitates the patient’s diagnosis based on his current symptoms?

• A. Creatine kinase (CK)-MB (Correct Answer)
• B. Creatine kinase – MM
• C. Troponin T
• D. Troponin I
• E. Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)

General Pathology Explanation: ***Creatine kinase (CK)-MB*** - **CK-MB** is elevated in myocardial infarction, rising within 4-6 hours, peaking at 24 hours, and **returning to baseline within 48-72 hours** after the initial event. - At **56 hours post-angioplasty**, CK-MB levels should have normalized from the initial MI, making a **new elevation highly specific** for reinfarction or new myocardial injury. - This makes CK-MB particularly useful for detecting **early reinfarction** when the timing allows it to have cleared from the initial event. - **Clinical pearl**: This represents classical teaching about cardiac enzyme kinetics, though modern practice increasingly uses serial troponin measurements with delta criteria. *Creatine kinase – MM* - **CK-MM** is the predominant isoform of creatine kinase found in **skeletal muscle**, not cardiac muscle. - While total CK (which includes CK-MM) increases in MI, CK-MM elevation is **not specific to cardiac injury** and can be elevated from skeletal muscle damage or other causes. - Its lack of cardiac specificity makes it a **poor indicator for myocardial reinfarction**. *Troponin T* - **Troponin T** is highly sensitive and specific for myocardial injury, but levels remain **elevated for 7-10 days** following an acute MI. - At 56 hours post-angioplasty, troponin T would **still be elevated from the initial MI**, making it difficult to distinguish baseline elevation from a new acute event. - While a **significant rise (>20%) from the previous value** can indicate reinfarction, the persistently elevated baseline makes interpretation more complex compared to CK-MB which should have normalized. *Troponin I* - **Troponin I** remains elevated for **5-7 days** following an acute MI, similar to troponin T. - At 56 hours post-initial MI, troponin I levels would **still be elevated**, making it challenging to clearly identify a new ischemic event without comparing to prior values. - Though troponins are the **gold standard for MI diagnosis**, their prolonged elevation window makes CK-MB more straightforward for detecting reinfarction at this specific timepoint (when CK-MB should have returned to baseline). *Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)* - **LDH** elevation occurs later in MI (24-48 hours after onset) and remains elevated for **10-14 days**. - Due to its **delayed rise and prolonged elevation**, LDH is not useful for diagnosing acute reinfarction in the early post-MI period. - LDH lacks the rapid kinetics and cardiac specificity needed for timely diagnosis of new myocardial injury.

General Pathology US Medical PG Question 8: A 26-year-old patient presents to your office with rhinorrhea that you believe to be viral in origin. He respectfully requests treatment with antibiotics, and he demonstrates an understanding of the risks, benefits, and alternatives to treatment. His mental status is intact, and you believe him to have full decision-making capacity. Which of the following is the best course of action?

• A. Refer the patient to an infectious disease specialist
• B. Prescribe ciprofloxacin
• C. Prescribe amoxicillin
• D. Deny the patient's request (Correct Answer)
• E. Prescribe zidovudine

General Pathology Explanation: ***Deny the patient's request*** - As a physician, you have a professional obligation to act in the patient's best interest, which includes avoiding **unnecessary treatments** that could cause harm. - Prescribing antibiotics for a **viral infection** contributes to **antibiotic resistance**, exposes the patient to potential side effects (e.g., *C. difficile* infection), and contradicts evidence-based medical practice. *Refer the patient to an infectious disease specialist* - This is an **unnecessary referral** as the diagnosis is clear (viral rhinorrhea) and does not require specialized infectious disease management. - Referral would incur **additional healthcare costs** and delays for a condition that does not warrant such specialized consultation. *Prescribe ciprofloxacin* - Ciprofloxacin is a **broad-spectrum antibiotic** that is completely ineffective against viral infections and carries a risk of significant side effects, including **tendon rupture** and *C. difficile* infection. - Misuse of powerful antibiotics like ciprofloxacin promotes **antibiotic resistance**, making future bacterial infections harder to treat. *Prescribe amoxicillin* - Amoxicillin is an antibiotic and, like other antibiotics, is **ineffective against viral infections** such as viral rhinorrhea. - Prescribing it would contribute to **antibiotic resistance** and expose the patient to potential drug side effects (e.g., rash, gastrointestinal upset) without any clinical benefit. *Prescribe zidovudine* - Zidovudine is an **antiretroviral medication** specifically used for the treatment of **HIV infection**. - It has absolutely **no role** in treating common viral rhinorrhea and would be an inappropriate and potentially harmful prescription.

General Pathology US Medical PG Question 9: A 28-year-old male presents to his primary care physician with complaints of intermittent abdominal pain and alternating bouts of constipation and diarrhea. His medical chart is not significant for any past medical problems or prior surgeries. He is not prescribed any current medications. Which of the following questions would be the most useful next question in eliciting further history from this patient?

• A. "Does the diarrhea typically precede the constipation, or vice-versa?"
• B. "Is the diarrhea foul-smelling?"
• C. "Please rate your abdominal pain on a scale of 1-10, with 10 being the worst pain of your life"
• D. "Are the symptoms worse in the morning or at night?"
• E. "Can you tell me more about the symptoms you have been experiencing?" (Correct Answer)

General Pathology Explanation: ***Can you tell me more about the symptoms you have been experiencing?*** - This **open-ended question** encourages the patient to provide a **comprehensive narrative** of their symptoms, including details about onset, frequency, duration, alleviating/aggravating factors, and associated symptoms, which is crucial for diagnosis. - In a patient presenting with vague, intermittent symptoms like alternating constipation and diarrhea, allowing them to elaborate freely can reveal important clues that might not be captured by more targeted questions. *Does the diarrhea typically precede the constipation, or vice-versa?* - While knowing the sequence of symptoms can be helpful in understanding the **pattern of bowel dysfunction**, it is a very specific question that might overlook other important aspects of the patient's experience. - It prematurely narrows the focus without first obtaining a broad understanding of the patient's overall symptomatic picture. *Is the diarrhea foul-smelling?* - Foul-smelling diarrhea can indicate **malabsorption** or **bacterial overgrowth**, which are important to consider in some gastrointestinal conditions. - However, this is a **specific symptom inquiry** that should follow a more general exploration of the patient's symptoms, as it may not be relevant if other crucial details are missed. *Please rate your abdominal pain on a scale of 1-10, with 10 being the worst pain of your life* - Quantifying pain intensity is useful for assessing the **severity of discomfort** and monitoring changes over time. - However, for a patient with intermittent rather than acute, severe pain, understanding the **character, location, and triggers** of the pain is often more diagnostically valuable than just a numerical rating initially. *Are the symptoms worse in the morning or at night?* - Diurnal variation can be relevant in certain conditions, such as inflammatory bowel diseases where nocturnal symptoms might be more concerning, or functional disorders whose symptoms might be stress-related. - This is another **specific question** that should come after gathering a more complete initial picture of the patient's symptoms to ensure no key information is overlooked.

General Pathology US Medical PG Question 10: A 21-year-old medical student is studying different types of necrosis and tissue injuries. In the pathology laboratory, he observes different dead tissues under the microscope and notices the changes that are occurring as a function of time. After serial observations, he deduced that coagulation necrosis is...?

• A. The result of denaturation of glucose
• B. Characterized by the preservation of cellular shape (Correct Answer)
• C. Characteristic of brain ischemia
• D. Commonly associated with acute pancreatic necrosis
• E. The result of hydrolytic enzymes

General Pathology Explanation: ***Characterized by the preservation of cellular shape*** * **Coagulation necrosis** results from **protein denaturation**, which prevents the breakdown of the cell's structural proteins and enzymes. * This preserves the **outline of the cell** and tissue architecture for a period of time, even after cell death, giving it a ghost-like appearance. *The result of denaturation of glucose* * **Glucose** is a simple sugar and does not undergo denaturation in the context of necrosis; rather, **proteins** are denatured. * Denaturation refers to the disruption of the three-dimensional structure of proteins, not carbohydrates. *Characteristic of brain ischemia* * **Brain ischemia** typically results in **liquefactive necrosis**, not coagulation necrosis. * This is due to the brain's high lipid content and the abundance of hydrolytic enzymes that rapidly digest the tissue. *Commonly associated with acute pancreatic necrosis* * **Acute pancreatitis** is primarily associated with **fat necrosis** (due to lipase activity) and **hemorrhagic necrosis**, not classic coagulation necrosis. * The release of activated pancreatic enzymes leads to the digestion of local adipose tissue and blood vessels. *The result of hydrolytic enzymes* * While hydrolytic enzymes are involved in various forms of necrosis, **coagulation necrosis** is characterized by the **denaturation of structural proteins and enzymes**, which initially inhibits their proteolytic activity. * **Liquefactive necrosis**, conversely, is largely driven by the release of powerful hydrolytic enzymes.

General Pathology Flashcard 1 of 10

Question: What RBC pathology is characterized by the following Hb electrophoresis findings:55% HbA, 43% HbS, and 2% HbA2 _____

Answer: Sickle cell trait

General Pathology Flashcard 2 of 10

Question: Patients with infective endocarditis can develop a nephritic syndrome due to deposition of _____

Answer: circulating immune complexes

General Pathology Flashcard 3 of 10

Question: Chediak-Higashi syndrome is characterized by _____ circulating neutrophils

Answer: decreased

General Pathology Flashcard 4 of 10

Question: McCune-Albright syndrome is lethal if the mutation occurs before fertilization (affecting all cells), but survivable in patients with _____

Answer: mosaicism

General Pathology Flashcard 5 of 10

Question: The initial 'proliferative' phase of wound repair is characterized by deposition of _____ tissue

Answer: granulation

General Pathology Flashcard 6 of 10

Question: Gaucher disease is characterized by "Gaucher cells" which are lipid-laden macrophages resembling _____

Answer: crumpled tissue paper

General Pathology Flashcard 7 of 10

Question: Proliferation of the T cell compartment of lymph nodes causes _____ hyperplasia (e.g. viral infections)

Answer: paracortex

General Pathology Flashcard 8 of 10

Question: fat necrosis (breast)

Answer: fat necrosis and saponification following trauma (often mild or unremarkable trauma)

Extra Information: painless breast lump

General Pathology Flashcard 9 of 10

Question: The subtypes of fibrocystic disease of the breast are _____, _____, _____, and _____.

Answer: fibrosis

General Pathology Flashcard 10 of 10

Question: aplasia (organogenesis)

Answer: absent organ despite present primordial tissue