Autophagy mechanisms US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice US Medical PG questions for Autophagy mechanisms. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Autophagy mechanisms US Medical PG Question 1: An investigator is studying the function of the endoplasmic reticulum in genetically modified lymphocytes. A gene is removed that facilitates the binding of ribosomes to the endoplasmic reticulum. Which of the following processes is most likely to be impaired as a result of this genetic modification?
- A. Production of secretory proteins (Correct Answer)
- B. Neutralization of toxins
- C. Ubiquitination of proteins
- D. α-Oxidation of fatty acids
- E. Synthesis of ketone bodies
Autophagy mechanisms Explanation: ***Production of secretory proteins***
- Ribosomes bound to the **rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER)** are responsible for synthesizing proteins destined for secretion, insertion into membranes, or delivery to organelles like lysosomes.
- If ribosomes cannot bind to the ER, these proteins will be synthesized in the **cytosol** and lack the proper signals and processing for their intended destination and function.
*Neutralization of toxins*
- The **smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER)**, not the RER, is primarily involved in **detoxification** processes, particularly drug metabolism and neutralization of toxins.
- This function relies on enzymes embedded within the SER membrane and is largely independent of ribosome binding.
*Ubiquitination of proteins*
- **Ubiquitination** is a post-translational modification that tags proteins for degradation by the **proteasome** or for trafficking to specific cellular compartments.
- This process occurs primarily in the **cytosol** and does not directly rely on ribosome binding to the ER for protein synthesis.
*α-Oxidation of fatty acids*
- **α-oxidation of fatty acids** is a metabolic pathway that occurs primarily in the **peroxisomes**.
- It is distinct from protein synthesis on the ER and would not be directly impacted by the inability of ribosomes to bind to the ER.
*Synthesis of ketone bodies*
- The **synthesis of ketone bodies** (ketogenesis) primarily occurs in the **mitochondria** of liver cells.
- This metabolic pathway is not directly dependent on ribosome binding to the endoplasmic reticulum for its function.
Autophagy mechanisms US Medical PG Question 2: A medical student is studying digestive enzymes at the brush border of the duodenum. He isolates and inactivates an enzyme in the brush border that has a high affinity for the pancreatic proenzyme trypsinogen. When the enzyme is inactivated, trypsinogen is no longer converted to its active form. Which of the following is the most likely underlying mechanism of this enzyme?
- A. Attachment of a carbohydrate to a side chain
- B. Phosphorylation of an amino acid side chain
- C. Carboxylation of a glutamate residue
- D. Cleavage of a propeptide from an N-terminus (Correct Answer)
- E. Conjugation of ubiquitin to lysine residue
Autophagy mechanisms Explanation: ***Cleavage of a propeptide from an N-terminus***
- The enzyme described is **enteropeptidase (also known as enterokinase)**, which is located in the **duodenal brush border**.
- Enteropeptidase's primary function is to activate **trypsinogen** by cleaving a small **N-terminal hexapeptide**, converting it into its active form, **trypsin**.
*Attachment of a carbohydrate to a side chain*
- This process is known as **glycosylation** and can affect protein folding, stability, and recognition, but it's not the primary mechanism by which brush border enzymes like enteropeptidase activate zymogens.
- While some enzymes are glycosylated, inactivation of this mechanism would not halt trypsinogen activation in this specific enzymatic pathway.
*Phosphorylation of an amino acid side chain*
- **Phosphorylation** is a common post-translational modification that regulates enzyme activity by adding a phosphate group, often to serine, threonine, or tyrosine residues.
- While important for many cellular signaling pathways and enzyme regulation, it is not the mechanism by which enteropeptidase activates trypsinogen.
*Carboxylation of a glutamate residue*
- **Carboxylation** typically involves the addition of a carboxyl group, notably important for blood clotting factors (e.g., vitamin K-dependent carboxylation).
- This modification is not involved in the activation of pancreatic proenzymes by brush border enzymes in the duodenum.
*Conjugation of ubiquitin to lysine residue*
- **Ubiquitination** is a process that tags proteins for degradation by the proteasome or can regulate protein function and localization.
- This is a mechanism for protein turnover and regulation, not for the activation of a proenzyme like trypsinogen.
Autophagy mechanisms US Medical PG Question 3: DNA replication is a highly complex process where replication occurs on both strands of DNA. On the leading strand of DNA, replication occurs uninterrupted, but on the lagging strand, replication is interrupted and occurs in fragments called Okazaki fragments. These fragments need to be joined, which of the following enzymes is involved in the penultimate step before ligation can occur?
- A. DNA gyrase
- B. DNA ligase
- C. DNA helicase
- D. DNA polymerase I (Correct Answer)
- E. DNA polymerase III
Autophagy mechanisms Explanation: **DNA polymerase I**
- **DNA polymerase I** plays a crucial role in removing the **RNA primers** from the Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand.
- After primer removal, it fills the resulting gaps with **deoxyribonucleotides** before DNA ligase seals the nicks.
*DNA gyrase*
- **DNA gyrase** (a type of **topoisomerase**) is involved in relieving **supercoiling** ahead of the replication fork.
- It does not directly participate in the joining of Okazaki fragments, but rather in maintaining DNA topology during replication.
*DNA ligase*
- **DNA ligase** is responsible for the **final sealing** of the nicks between adjacent Okazaki fragments.
- It forms a **phosphodiester bond** between the 3'-hydroxyl end of one fragment and the 5'-phosphate end of the next, following primer removal and gap filling.
*DNA helicase*
- **DNA helicase** unwinds the double-stranded DNA helix, separating the two strands at the **replication fork**.
- This enzyme is essential for initiating replication but does not participate in processing Okazaki fragments.
*DNA polymerase III*
- **DNA polymerase III** is the primary enzyme responsible for the **elongation of new DNA strands** in both leading and lagging strand synthesis.
- It synthesizes the actual Okazaki fragments but does not directly remove primers or fill the gaps.
Autophagy mechanisms US Medical PG Question 4: A 59-year-old man is brought to the physician by his wife for a psychiatric evaluation. Over the past 12 months, his behavior has become increasingly disruptive. His wife no longer brings him along shopping because he has attempted to grope a female cashier on 2 occasions. He has begun to address the mail carrier using a racial epithet. Three years later, the patient dies. Light microscopy of sections of the frontal and temporal lobes shows intracellular inclusions of transactive response DNA binding protein (TDP-43). These proteins are bound to a regulatory molecule that usually marks them for degradation. The regulatory molecule in question is most likely which of the following?
- A. Kinesin
- B. Chaperone
- C. Cyclin
- D. Ubiquitin (Correct Answer)
- E. Clathrin
Autophagy mechanisms Explanation: ***Ubiquitin***
- **Ubiquitin** is a small regulatory protein that marks other proteins for degradation, typically by the **proteasome**. In neurodegenerative diseases like **frontotemporal dementia (FTD)**, aggregates of misfolded proteins, such as **TDP-43**, can accumulate when the ubiquitin-proteasome system is overwhelmed or dysfunctional.
- The patient's clinical presentation of **behavioral changes** (disruptive, inappropriate, racial epithets) and the pathological finding of **TDP-43 inclusions** in the frontal and temporal lobes are highly characteristic of **FTD**. The accumulation of TDP-43, despite being marked for degradation, points to a failure of the normal ubiquitin-mediated protein disposal pathway.
*Kinesin*
- **Kinesin** is a motor protein that facilitates **anterograde axonal transport**, moving cargo away from the cell body along microtubules.
- While important for neuronal function, kinesin is not directly involved in marking proteins for degradation.
*Chaperone*
- **Chaperones** are proteins that assist in the proper **folding of other proteins** and can help refold misfolded proteins, preventing aggregation.
- While chaperones play a role in protein quality control, they do not directly mark proteins for degradation in the same way as ubiquitin.
*Cyclin*
- **Cyclins** are a family of proteins that regulate the progression of cells through the **cell cycle** by activating cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs).
- They are primarily involved in cell division and growth, not protein degradation pathways.
*Clathrin*
- **Clathrin** is a protein that plays a key role in the formation of **coated vesicles** involved in endocytosis and intracellular trafficking.
- It is crucial for forming vesicles that transport cargo, but it is not directly involved in marking proteins for degradation.
Autophagy mechanisms US Medical PG Question 5: An investigator is studying a hereditary defect in the mitochondrial enzyme succinyl-CoA synthetase. In addition to succinate, the reaction catalyzed by this enzyme produces a molecule that is utilized as an energy source for protein translation. This molecule is also required for which of the following conversion reactions?
- A. Oxaloacetate to phosphoenolpyruvate (Correct Answer)
- B. Pyruvate to acetyl-CoA
- C. Acetaldehyde to acetate
- D. Glucose-6-phosphate to 6-phosphogluconolactone
- E. Fructose-6-phosphate to fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
Autophagy mechanisms Explanation: ***Oxaloacetate to phosphoenolpyruvate***
- The reaction catalyzed by **succinyl-CoA synthetase** (also known as succinate thiokinase) produces **GTP** (guanosine triphosphate) from GDP and Pi, in addition to succinate.
- **GTP** is required for the conversion of **oxaloacetate** to **phosphoenolpyruvate** in gluconeogenesis, catalyzed by **PEP carboxykinase**.
*Pyruvate to acetyl-CoA*
- This reaction is catalyzed by the **pyruvate dehydrogenase complex** and produces NADH, not GTP.
- It is an irreversible step linking glycolysis to the citric acid cycle.
*Acetaldehyde to acetate*
- This reaction is catalyzed by **aldehyde dehydrogenase** and uses **NAD+** as a cofactor, producing NADH.
- It is involved in alcohol metabolism.
*Glucose-6-phosphate to 6-phosphogluconolactone*
- This is the first committed step of the **pentose phosphate pathway**, catalyzed by **glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase**.
- It uses **NADP+** as a cofactor, producing NADPH.
*Fructose-6-phosphate to fructose-1,6-bisphosphate*
- This reaction is a key regulatory step in **glycolysis**, catalyzed by **phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK-1)**.
- It consumes **ATP**, rather than producing GTP or utilizing it as a cofactor in the context of this question.
Autophagy mechanisms US Medical PG Question 6: A group of scientists is studying the mechanism of action of various pancreatic hormones in rats. The scientists studied hormone A, which is secreted by the β-cells of the pancreas, and found that hormone A binds to a complex dimeric receptor on the cell membrane and exerts its effects via phosphorylation and subsequent downstream signaling that includes dephosphorylation of different intracellular proteins. Now they are studying hormone B, which is secreted by the α-cells and antagonizes the actions of hormone A. Which 2nd messenger system would hormone B utilize to exert its cellular effects?
- A. Direct cytoplasmic receptor binding
- B. Phospholipase C
- C. Tyrosine kinase
- D. Direct nuclear receptor binding
- E. Adenylyl cyclase-cyclic AMP (Correct Answer)
Autophagy mechanisms Explanation: ***Adenylyl cyclase-cyclic AMP***
- Hormone B is **glucagon**, secreted by pancreatic α-cells, which antagonizes the effects of insulin (hormone A). Glucagon primarily acts through a **G protein-coupled receptor** that activates **adenylyl cyclase**, leading to an increase in intracellular **cyclic AMP (cAMP)**.
- Increased cAMP then activates **protein kinase A (PKA)**, which phosphorylates various intracellular proteins to promote **glycogenolysis** and **gluconeogenesis**, thereby raising blood glucose levels.
*Direct cytoplasmic receptor binding*
- This mechanism is characteristic of **steroid hormones**, which are lipid-soluble and can diffuse across the cell membrane to bind to receptors in the cytoplasm.
- Pancreatic hormones like glucagon are **peptide hormones**, which are water-soluble and typically bind to cell surface receptors.
*Phospholipase C*
- Activation of **phospholipase C (PLC)** leads to the production of **inositol triphosphate (IP3)** and **diacylglycerol (DAG)**, which mobilize intracellular calcium and activate protein kinase C, respectively.
- While some G protein-coupled receptors activate PLC, **glucagon's primary signaling pathway** involves adenylyl cyclase.
*Tyrosine kinase*
- **Tyrosine kinase receptors** are often associated with growth factors and insulin (hormone A) signaling, leading to phosphorylation of tyrosine residues on target proteins.
- Glucagon's receptor is a **G protein-coupled receptor**, not a receptor tyrosine kinase, and its actions are mediated through serine/threonine phosphorylation via PKA.
*Direct nuclear receptor binding*
- This mechanism is typical for **steroid hormones** and **thyroid hormones**, which are lipid-soluble and bind to receptors in the nucleus to directly influence gene transcription.
- As a peptide hormone, glucagon binds to cell surface receptors and does not directly interact with nuclear receptors.
Autophagy mechanisms US Medical PG Question 7: In large neurons the nucleus can be found a large distance away from the terminal end of its axon. The body has a complex system of intracellular transporters that are able to carry essential proteins from the nucleus to the distal edge of the cell and back. Which of the following proteins are essential for this function?
- A. Kinesin, Troponin
- B. Myosin, Kinesin
- C. Actin, Dynein
- D. Dynein, Kinesin (Correct Answer)
- E. Glucose, Actin
Autophagy mechanisms Explanation: ***Dynein, Kinesin***
- **Kinesin** is primarily responsible for **anterograde transport** (from the cell body to the axon terminal) along microtubules, carrying vesicles and organelles.
- **Dynein** handles **retrograde transport** (from the axon terminal back to the cell body), essential for recycling components and signaling.
*Kinesin, Troponin*
- While **Kinesin** is involved in axonal transport, **Troponin** is a protein found in muscle tissue that regulates muscle contraction, not intracellular transport in neurons.
- Troponin binds **calcium ions** and influences the interaction between actin and myosin.
*Myosin, Kinesin*
- **Kinesin** is involved in microtubule-based transport, but **Myosin** is primarily associated with **actin filaments** for muscle contraction and intracellular movement, not long-distance axonal transport.
- Myosin functions as a **motor protein** that converts chemical energy in ATP into mechanical force.
*Actin, Dynein*
- **Dynein** is crucial for retrograde axonal transport, but **Actin** is a structural protein forming microfilaments that are involved in cell shape, motility, and some short-distance transport, not the major long-distance axonal transport mechanism.
- Actin filaments serve as tracks for **myosin motors**, primarily in the cell cortex.
*Glucose, Actin*
- **Glucose** is a sugar molecule, the primary energy source for cells, and not a transport protein.
- **Actin** forms microfilaments for cell structure and short-range movement, not long-distance axonal transport as described.
Autophagy mechanisms US Medical PG Question 8: A startup is working on a novel project in which they claim they can replicate the organelle that is defective in MELAS syndrome. Which of the following metabolic processes must they be able to replicate if their project is to mimic the metabolic processes of this organelle?
- A. Hexose monophosphate shunt
- B. Cholesterol synthesis
- C. Glycolysis
- D. Fatty acid (beta) oxidation (Correct Answer)
- E. Fatty acid synthesis
Autophagy mechanisms Explanation: ***Fatty acid (beta) oxidation***
- **MELAS syndrome** (Mitochondrial Encephalomyopathy, Lactic Acidosis, and Stroke-like episodes) is caused by defects in **mitochondrial function**.
- **Beta-oxidation of fatty acids** is a crucial metabolic process that occurs within the mitochondria, generating ATP.
*Hexose monophosphate shunt*
- The **hexose monophosphate shunt** (pentose phosphate pathway) occurs in the **cytosol** and is primarily involved in producing NADPH and synthesizing nucleotides, not a primary mitochondrial function.
- Its dysfunction is not directly linked to the core metabolic defects seen in MELAS syndrome.
*Cholesterol synthesis*
- **Cholesterol synthesis** primarily occurs in the **cytosol** and the **endoplasmic reticulum**, not within the mitochondria.
- While cholesterol metabolism can be indirectly affected by mitochondrial health, it is not a direct mitochondrial metabolic pathway.
*Glycolysis*
- **Glycolysis** is the metabolic pathway that converts glucose into pyruvate, occurring in the **cytosol**.
- Although it precedes mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation, glycolysis itself does not occur within the mitochondria.
*Fatty acid synthesis*
- **Fatty acid synthesis** primarily takes place in the **cytosol** and endoplasmic reticulum, utilizing NADPH from the hexose monophosphate shunt.
- It is an anabolic process, while MELAS typically involves defects in catabolic/energy-producing mitochondrial pathways.
Autophagy mechanisms US Medical PG Question 9: An 83-year-old woman with a history of atrial fibrillation, multiple ischemic strokes, and early dementia is found unresponsive in her apartment at her retirement community. She is believed to have not refilled any of her medications for a month, and it is determined that she passed away from a stroke nearly 2 weeks ago. The family is adamant that she receive an autopsy. Which of the following findings are most likely on brain histology?
- A. Cellular debris and lymphocytes
- B. Cystic cavitation (Correct Answer)
- C. Fat saponification
- D. Cellular debris and neutrophils
- E. Increased binding of acidophilic dyes
Autophagy mechanisms Explanation: **Cystic cavitation**
- A **stroke** that occurred two weeks prior would most likely show **cystic cavitation** as the brain tissue attempts to repair itself after the damage.
- Over time, the necrotic tissue is removed, and a fluid-filled cavity forms, which is the final stage of **infarction resolution**.
*Cellular debris and lymphocytes*
- While **cellular debris** would be present, **lymphocytes** are typically later responders in inflammation, and at two weeks, the most prominent feature would be cavitation.
- **Microglia** and **macrophages** would be the primary cells involved in clearing debris, leading to cavitation.
*Fat saponification*
- **Fat saponification** is a type of **fat necrosis** seen in areas like the pancreas or breast, not typically in the brain after an ischemic stroke.
- This process involves the hydrolysis of triglycerides into fatty acids that combine with calcium, forming a chalky substance.
*Cellular debris and neutrophils*
- **Neutrophils** are characteristic of the very **early stages of acute inflammation**, typically within the first 24-48 hours after an ischemic stroke.
- By two weeks, most neutrophils would have resolved, and mononuclear cells and macrophages would predominate.
*Increased binding of acidophilic dyes*
- **Increased binding of acidophilic dyes** (like eosin) is seen in **early ischemic changes** (e.g., within hours to days), indicating **cell necrosis** like **red neurons**.
- At two weeks, the tissue has progressed beyond this immediate necrotic stage to active removal and cavitation.
Autophagy mechanisms US Medical PG Question 10: A 64-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department 30 minutes after the onset of right-sided weakness and impaired speech. On admission, she is diagnosed with thrombotic stroke and treatment with alteplase is begun. Neurologic examination four weeks later shows residual right hemiparesis. A CT scan of the head shows hypoattenuation in the territory of the left middle cerebral artery. Which of the following processes best explains this finding?
- A. Liquefactive necrosis (Correct Answer)
- B. Caseous necrosis
- C. Gangrenous necrosis
- D. Coagulative necrosis
- E. Fat necrosis
Autophagy mechanisms Explanation: ***Liquefactive necrosis***
- This is the characteristic type of necrosis seen in the **central nervous system** following an ischemic insult like a stroke.
- The brain tissue is rapidly digested by hydrolytic enzymes, forming a **cyst-like cavity** filled with fluid (hence "hypoattenuation" on CT), reflecting the accumulation of necrotic cellular debris.
*Caseous necrosis*
- This is a form of cell death typically associated with **tuberculous infections** and some fungal infections.
- It results in the formation of a cheesy, friable material consisting of fragmented cells and granular debris, which is not characteristic of stroke.
*Gangrenous necrosis*
- This type of necrosis is typically seen in the **extremities** and is often associated with a loss of blood supply and subsequent bacterial infection.
- It involves tissue death due to ischemia, often accompanied by signs of putrefaction, making it distinct from a brain infarct.
*Coagulative necrosis*
- This is the most common type of necrosis and occurs in solid organs (e.g., heart, kidney) due to **ischemia**, preserving the architectural outlines of the dead cells for a period.
- Unlike the brain, where rapid liquefaction occurs, coagulative necrosis is not the primary form of cell death observed in the central nervous system after an ischemic stroke.
*Fat necrosis*
- This occurs in **adipose tissue**, usually due to trauma or enzymatic digestion (e.g., in pancreatitis).
- It involves the breakdown of fats into fatty acids, which then combine with calcium to form chalky white areas, which is not relevant to a cerebral infarct.
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