Genetic counseling principles US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice US Medical PG questions for Genetic counseling principles. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Genetic counseling principles US Medical PG Question 1: A 28-year-old woman comes to the physician for genetic counseling prior to conception. For the past year, she has had intermittent episodes of headache, nausea, abdominal pain, and tingling of her fingers. She also complains of dark urine during the episodes. Her mother and maternal uncle have similar symptoms and her father is healthy. Her husband is healthy and there is no history of serious illness in his family. Serum studies show elevated concentrations of porphobilinogen and δ-aminolevulinic acid. What is the probability of this patient having a child with the same disease as her?
- A. 25%
- B. 67%
- C. 50% (Correct Answer)
- D. 100%
Genetic counseling principles Explanation: ***50%***
- This patient's symptoms (headache, nausea, abdominal pain, tingling, dark urine) and elevated **porphobilinogen** and **δ-aminolevulinic acid** are highly suggestive of **Acute Intermittent Porphyria** (AIP).
- AIP is an **autosomal dominant** disorder. Therefore, there is a **50% chance** that any child of an affected parent will inherit the disease-causing allele.
- Since her husband is healthy with no family history, he does not carry the mutation, making this a straightforward autosomal dominant inheritance calculation.
*25%*
- This probability would be expected in an **autosomal recessive** inheritance pattern when two carrier parents have a child, which is not the case here.
- It would also be the probability for an X-linked recessive disorder if the mother is a carrier and the father is unaffected, and they are discussing a son's inheritance.
- The clinical presentation and family history (mother and maternal uncle affected, consistent with autosomal dominant pattern) rule out this probability.
*67%*
- This probability is seen in specific genetic scenarios, such as the chance of a phenotypically normal sibling of an individual with an autosomal recessive disease being a carrier.
- It's not a standard probability for direct offspring of an affected individual with an autosomal dominant condition.
- This does not apply to the straightforward inheritance question being asked here.
*100%*
- This probability would occur if the disease were inherited in an **autosomal dominant** manner and the affected parent was **homozygous dominant** for the mutation.
- However, this is extremely rare in AIP, as most affected individuals are **heterozygous**.
- The family history pattern (affected mother with unaffected father having an affected child) is consistent with heterozygosity, not homozygosity.
Genetic counseling principles US Medical PG Question 2: An 83-year-old man presents to the gastroenterologist to follow-up on results from a biopsy of a pancreatic head mass, which the clinician was concerned could be pancreatic cancer. After welcoming the patient and his wife to the clinic, the physician begins to discuss the testing and leads into delivering the results, which showed metastatic pancreatic adenocarcinoma. Before she is able to disclose these findings, the patient stops her and exclaims, "Whatever it is, I don't want to know. Please just make me comfortable in my last months alive. I have made up my mind about this." Which of the following is the most appropriate response on the part of the physician?
- A. "If that is your definite wish, then I must honor it" (Correct Answer)
- B. "The cancer has spread to your liver"
- C. "As a physician, I am obligated to disclose these results to you"
- D. "If you don't know what condition you have, I will be unable to be your physician going forward"
- E. "Please, sir, I strongly urge you to reconsider your decision"
Genetic counseling principles Explanation: ***"If that is your definite wish, then I must honor it"***
- This response respects the patient's **autonomy** and right to refuse information, aligning with ethical principles of patient-centered care.
- The patient has clearly and articulately stated his desire not to know and wishes for **palliative care**, which the physician should respect.
- The patient appears to have **decision-making capacity** based on his clear communication of wishes.
*"The cancer has spread to your liver"*
- This statement violates the patient's explicit request not to be informed of his diagnosis, potentially causing distress and undermining trust.
- Disclosure of information against a patient's wishes is unethical when the patient has **decision-making capacity** and has clearly refused information.
*"As a physician, I am obligated to disclose these results to you"*
- While physicians have a general duty to inform, this is superseded by a **competent patient's right to refuse information**.
- No absolute obligation exists to force information upon a patient who explicitly states a desire not to know, especially when it concerns their own health information.
*"If you don't know what condition you have, I will be unable to be your physician going forward"*
- This response is coercive and threatening, attempting to strong-arm the patient into accepting information he has refused.
- A physician's role includes managing symptoms and providing comfort, even if the patient chooses not to know the full diagnostic details of their condition, particularly in a **palliative care** context.
- This statement could constitute **patient abandonment**, which is unethical.
*"Please, sir, I strongly urge you to reconsider your decision"*
- While it's acceptable to ensure the patient fully understands the implications of their decision, a forceful "urge to reconsider" after a clear refusal can be seen as undermining their **autonomy**.
- The physician should confirm the patient's understanding and offer an opportunity to discuss it later if desired, rather than immediately pressuring them.
Genetic counseling principles US Medical PG Question 3: A 52-year-old man with stage IV melanoma comes to the physician with his wife for a routine follow-up examination. He was recently diagnosed with new bone and brain metastases despite receiving aggressive chemotherapy but has not disclosed this to his wife. He has given verbal consent to discuss his prognosis with his wife and asks the doctor to inform her of his condition because he does not wish to do so himself. She is tearful and has many questions about his condition. Which of the following would be the most appropriate statement by the physician to begin the interview with the patient's wife?
- A. Have you discussed a living will or goals of care together?
- B. We should talk about how we can manage his symptoms with additional chemotherapy.
- C. Why do you think your husband has not discussed his medical condition with you?
- D. What is your understanding of your husband's current condition? (Correct Answer)
- E. Your husband has end-stage cancer, and his prognosis is poor.
Genetic counseling principles Explanation: ***What is your understanding of your husband's current condition?***
- This statement initiates the conversation by **assessing the wife's current knowledge** and emotional state, which is crucial for delivering sensitive and appropriate information.
- It allows the physician to tailor the discussion to her specific understanding and concerns, ensuring that information is delivered compassionately and effectively.
*Have you discussed a living will or goals of care together?*
- This question is too abrupt and **premature** as an opening, as the wife is clearly distressed and unaware of the full severity of her husband's condition.
- Discussions about end-of-life planning should only occur after the patient's wife has a clear understanding of the diagnosis and prognosis, and has processed this information.
*Your husband has end-stage cancer, and his prognosis is poor.*
- While factual, this statement is **too blunt and lacks empathy** for an opening, especially given the wife's emotional state and lack of prior knowledge.
- Delivering such devastating news directly without first assessing her understanding or providing context can be traumatic and impede effective communication.
*We should talk about how we can manage his symptoms with additional chemotherapy.*
- This statement implies a focus on further aggressive treatment which may not be appropriate given the **new bone and brain metastases** and aggressive prior chemotherapy, suggesting a limited benefit of more chemotherapy.
- It also **diverts from the primary need to discuss the overall prognosis** and the patient's rapidly declining condition, which the doctor has been asked to convey.
*Why do you think your husband has not discussed his medical condition with you?*
- This question is **accusatory** and places blame on either the patient or the wife, which is inappropriate and unhelpful in a sensitive medical discussion.
- It shifts the focus away from providing medical information and empathy towards a speculative and potentially confrontational topic.
Genetic counseling principles US Medical PG Question 4: A 36-year old pregnant woman (gravida 4, para 1) presents at week 11 of pregnancy. Currently, she has no complaints. She had an uncomplicated 1st pregnancy that ended in an uncomplicated vaginal delivery at the age of 28 years. Her male child was born healthy, with normal physical and psychological development over the years. Two of her previous pregnancies were spontaneously terminated in the 1st trimester. Her elder sister has a child born with Down syndrome. The patient denies smoking and alcohol consumption. Her blood analysis reveals the following findings:
Measured values
Beta human chorionic gonadotropin (beta-hCG) High
Pregnancy-associated plasma protein-A (PAPP-A) Low
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- A. Perform an ultrasound examination with nuchal translucency and crown-rump length measurement
- B. Recommend chorionic villus sampling with subsequent cell culturing and karyotyping (Correct Answer)
- C. Offer a blood test for rubella virus, cytomegalovirus, and toxoplasma IgG
- D. Recommend amniocentesis with subsequent cell culturing and karyotyping
- E. Schedule a quadruple test at the 15th week of pregnancy
Genetic counseling principles Explanation: ***Recommend chorionic villus sampling with subsequent cell culturing and karyotyping***
- The patient's **advanced maternal age** (36 years), history of **recurrent first-trimester miscarriages**, and a **family history of Down syndrome** in her sister's child are significant risk factors for **chromosomal abnormalities**.
- The abnormal first-trimester screening results (**high beta-hCG, low PAPP-A**) are highly suggestive of **aneuploidies**, particularly **Down syndrome (Trisomy 21)**. **Chorionic villus sampling (CVS)** is the most appropriate next step for definitive diagnosis as it can be performed earlier (10-13 weeks) than amniocentesis for definitive diagnosis via karyotyping.
*Perform an ultrasound examination with nuchal translucency and crown-rump length measurement*
- While a **nuchal translucency (NT) measurement** is part of the first-trimester screening and would confirm an increased risk, it is a screening, not a diagnostic, test.
- Given the patient's strong risk factors and abnormal biochemical markers, a definitive diagnostic test is warranted rather than another screening measure.
*Offer a blood test for rubella virus, cytomegalovirus, and toxoplasma IgG*
- This patient has a history of recurrent miscarriages and a family history suggestive of chromosomal abnormalities, along with abnormal first-trimester biochemical markers.
- While infections can cause miscarriage, the clinical picture strongly points towards a **chromosomal etiology**, making infection screening less urgent as a primary next step.
*Recommend amniocentesis with subsequent cell culturing and karyotyping*
- **Amniocentesis** is a diagnostic test for chromosomal abnormalities but is typically performed later in pregnancy, usually between **15 and 20 weeks**.
- Given the patient is at 11 weeks, **CVS** is the more appropriate and earlier diagnostic option for definitive diagnosis of potential aneuploidies.
*Schedule a quadruple test at the 15th week of pregnancy*
- The **quadruple test** is a second-trimester screening test and would provide more risk assessment rather than a definitive diagnosis.
- The patient already has strong indications for a chromosomal abnormality based on age, history, and first-trimester screening, necessitating an **earlier definitive diagnostic test**.
Genetic counseling principles US Medical PG Question 5: A 35-year-old woman gravida 2, para 1, comes to the physician for her first prenatal visit. Pregnancy and delivery of her first child were uncomplicated. She is not sure about the date of her last menstrual period. Pelvic examination shows a uterus consistent in size with a 10-week gestation. An ultrasound examination confirms the gestational age and shows one fetus with no indication of multiple gestations. During counseling on pregnancy risks and possible screening and diagnostic tests, the patient states she would like to undergo screening for Down syndrome. She would prefer immediate and secure screening with a low risk to herself and the fetus. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management at this time?
- A. Nuchal translucency, pregnancy-associated plasma protein-A, human chorionic gonadotropin
- B. Maternal serum α-fetoprotein, human chorionic gonadotropin, unconjugated estriol, and inhibin A
- C. Chorionic villus sampling
- D. Amniocentesis
- E. Cell-free fetal DNA testing (Correct Answer)
Genetic counseling principles Explanation: ***Cell-free fetal DNA testing***
- This is the most appropriate choice given the patient's desire for **immediate and secure screening with low risk** because it is a **non-invasive prenatal screening (NIPS)** method offering high sensitivity and specificity for Down syndrome, particularly in higher-risk pregnancies.
- It involves a simple maternal blood draw and can be performed as early as **10 weeks of gestation**, perfectly aligning with the patient's current gestational age and desire for early screening.
*Nuchal translucency, pregnancy-associated plasma protein-A, human chorionic gonadotropin*
- This combination represents the **first-trimester combined screen**, which is typically performed between 11 and 14 weeks of gestation. While suitable for early screening, **cell-free DNA testing offers higher detection rates and lower false-positive rates** for Down syndrome.
- The patient specifically asked for the most **secure and least risky** screening, and NIPS outperforms the combined screen in terms of diagnostic accuracy for aneuploidies.
*Maternal serum α-fetoprotein, human chorionic gonadotropin, unconjugated estriol, and inhibin A*
- This refers to the **quad screen**, which is typically performed in the **second trimester (15-20 weeks)**, making it too late for the patient's desire for immediate screening at 10 weeks gestational age.
- While a widely used screening tool, the quad screen has a **lower detection rate** for Down syndrome compared to cell-free DNA testing.
*Chorionic villus sampling*
- **Chorionic villus sampling (CVS)** is a **diagnostic, invasive procedure** that carries a small risk of miscarriage (approximately 1 in 455 or 0.22%) and is not a screening test.
- Although it can be performed earlier (typically between 10 and 13 weeks), the patient specifically requested a **low-risk screening** option, which CVS is not.
*Amniocentesis*
- **Amniocentesis** is also an **invasive diagnostic procedure** with a risk of miscarriage (approximately 1 in 900 or 0.11%) and is typically performed in the **second trimester (15-20 weeks)**.
- This option is unsuitable because the patient is at 10 weeks gestation and desires **immediate and low-risk screening**, not a diagnostic procedure with procedural risks a few weeks later.
Genetic counseling principles US Medical PG Question 6: A 37-year-old primigravid woman comes to the physician at 13 weeks' gestation for a prenatal visit. She feels well. Her only medication is folic acid. Vital signs are within normal limits. Pelvic examination shows a uterus consistent in size with a 13-week gestation. Ultrasonography shows a nuchal translucency above the 99th percentile. Maternal serum pregnancy-associated plasma protein A is decreased and human chorionic gonadotropin concentrations are elevated to 2 times the median level. Which of the following is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?
- A. Chorionic villus sampling (Correct Answer)
- B. Cell-free DNA testing
- C. Triple screening test
- D. Amniocentesis
- E. Quadruple marker test
Genetic counseling principles Explanation: ***Chorionic villus sampling***
- This procedure can be performed between **10 to 13 weeks of gestation** to obtain fetal cells for genetic analysis, which is within the patient's gestational age.
- It provides a definitive diagnosis of **chromosomal abnormalities** by directly sampling placental tissue, which shares the same genetic material as the fetus.
*Cell-free DNA testing*
- While it has high sensitivity and specificity for various **aneuploidies**, it is a **screening test**, not a diagnostic one.
- An abnormal result from cell-free DNA testing still requires **confirmatory diagnostic testing** such as CVS or amniocentesis.
*Triple screening test*
- This test is typically performed between **15 and 20 weeks of gestation**, which is too late to confirm the findings presented at 13 weeks gestation.
- It measures **AFP, hCG, and unconjugated estriol**, and an abnormal result would indicate a need for further diagnostic testing.
*Amniocentesis*
- This procedure is generally performed later in pregnancy, typically between **15 and 20 weeks gestation**, so it would require waiting several more weeks.
- While it provides definitive genetic results, **chorionic villus sampling is preferred at 13 weeks** due to earlier diagnostic potential.
*Quadruple marker test*
- This test is also performed between **15 and 20 weeks of gestation** and measures **AFP, hCG, unconjugated estriol, and inhibin A**.
- It is a **screening test**, similar to the triple screen, and does not provide a definitive diagnosis, requiring further confirmatory testing if abnormal.
Genetic counseling principles US Medical PG Question 7: A 16-year-old boy is brought to his primary care physician for evaluation of visual loss and is found to have lens subluxation. In addition, he is found to have mild scoliosis that is currently being monitored. Physical exam reveals a tall and thin boy with long extremities. Notably, his fingers and toes are extended and his thumb and little finger can easily encircle his wrist. On this visit, the boy asks his physician about a friend who has a very similar physical appearance because his friend was recently diagnosed with a pheochromocytoma. He is worried that he will also get a tumor but is reassured that he is not at increased risk for any endocrine tumors. Which of the following genetic principles most likely explains why this patient and his friend have a similar physical appearance and yet only one is at increased risk of tumors?
- A. Variable expression
- B. Locus heterogeneity (Correct Answer)
- C. Anticipation
- D. Incomplete penetrance
- E. Pleiotropy
Genetic counseling principles Explanation: ***Locus heterogeneity***
- This principle explains that **similar phenotypes** (like the Marfanoid habitus) can result from mutations at **different genetic loci**. In this case, two distinct genetic conditions (Marfan syndrome and MEN 2B for the friend) can both cause tall stature and long limbs, but only one is associated with pheochromocytoma.
- The patient's presentation of **lens subluxation**, **scoliosis**, and **Marfanoid habitus** strongly suggests Marfan syndrome, typically caused by *FBN1* mutations, which does not predispose to pheochromocytomas. The friend's similar appearance coupled with pheochromocytoma suggests a different genetic condition, such as **Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia Type 2B (MEN 2B)**, which involves *RET* gene mutations.
*Variable expression*
- This describes the phenomenon where individuals with the **same genotype** exhibit **different degrees of severity** in their phenotype. It doesn't explain why two individuals with similar physical features have different underlying genetic causes and therefore different risks for specific complications like tumors.
- Variable expression would suggest that if both individuals had the same genetic mutation, they might show different levels of Marfanoid features or tumor development, but it wouldn't account for the complete absence of tumor risk in one.
*Anticipation*
- This refers to a genetic phenomenon where the **severity of a genetic disease increases** and/or the **age of onset decreases** in successive generations.
- Anticipation is typically seen in disorders caused by **trinucleotide repeat expansions** (e.g., Huntington's disease, myotonic dystrophy) and is not relevant to explaining different tumor risks with similar phenotypes across unrelated individuals.
*Incomplete penetrance*
- This occurs when individuals with a specific genotype **do not always express the associated phenotype**, meaning some individuals with the disease-causing mutation show no symptoms.
- Incomplete penetrance does not explain why two individuals with similar physical features have different genetic conditions leading to varied tumor risks; it focuses on whether a known mutation will manifest at all, not on different genetic causes for similar traits.
*Pleiotropy*
- This is when a **single gene mutation affects multiple seemingly unrelated phenotypic traits**. Marfan syndrome itself is an example of pleiotropy, as a mutation in *FBN1* affects the skeletal, ocular, and cardiovascular systems.
- While both conditions (Marfan syndrome and MEN 2B) exhibit pleiotropy, this principle doesn't explain why two different genetic conditions would cause similar Marfanoid features but distinct tumor risks. It describes the multiple effects of *one* mutation, not the possibility of *different* mutations leading to similar effects.
Genetic counseling principles US Medical PG Question 8: A 39-year-old G3P0 woman presents for preconception counseling and evaluation. The patient’s past medical history reveals hypertension and type 1 diabetes. She is currently on an insulin pump and medications for hypertension including labetalol. Her blood pressure is 130/85 mm Hg; pulse, 76/min; and BMI, 26 kg/m2. Her most recent HbA1c is 6.5%. Her previous pregnancies ended in spontaneous abortion during the 1st trimester despite adequate prenatal care. The patient intends to have a healthy pregnancy and desires to learn more about the risk factors that potentially trigger miscarriage. Which of the following maternal risk factors is most likely associated with early pregnancy loss?
- A. Infection
- B. Hypercoagulable state
- C. Diabetes
- D. Chronic hypertension
- E. Age (Correct Answer)
Genetic counseling principles Explanation: ***Age***
- **Maternal age** is a significant risk factor for aneuploidy, which is the leading cause of early pregnancy loss.
- As women age, the quality of their oocytes declines, increasing the risk of chromosomal abnormalities.
*Infection*
- While certain **infections** (e.g., toxoplasmosis, rubella, cytomegalovirus, herpes simplex) can cause miscarriage, they are less common causes of recurrent early pregnancy loss than chromosomal abnormalities.
- Infections would typically present with other systemic symptoms or specific laboratory findings, which are not mentioned here.
*Hypercoagulable state*
- **Hypercoagulable states** (e.g., antiphospholipid syndrome) are known causes of recurrent pregnancy loss, particularly in the second and third trimesters, but also in early pregnancy.
- However, for general early pregnancy loss, advanced maternal age leading to aneuploidy is a more common and direct risk factor.
*Diabetes*
- Poorly controlled **diabetes** (especially with HbA1c >8%) is a significant risk factor for miscarriage and congenital anomalies.
- This patient's HbA1c of 6.5% indicates reasonably good control, reducing the likelihood of diabetes being the primary sole cause for her recurrent losses.
*Chronic hypertension*
- **Chronic hypertension** is associated with an increased risk of preeclampsia, fetal growth restriction, and stillbirth, especially in later trimesters.
- While it can contribute to adverse pregnancy outcomes, it is not the most common direct cause of **early pregnancy loss,** particularly in the first trimester.
Genetic counseling principles US Medical PG Question 9: A 36-year-old G3P2002 presents to her obstetrician’s office for her first prenatal visit at ten weeks and two days gestation. She notes that she has felt nauseous the last several mornings and has been especially tired for a few weeks. Otherwise, she feels well. The patient has had two uncomplicated spontaneous vaginal deliveries at full term with her last child born six years ago. She is concerned about the risk of Down syndrome in this fetus, as her sister gave birth to an affected child at age 43. The patient has a history of generalized anxiety disorder, atopic dermatitis, and she is currently on escitalopram. At this visit, this patient’s temperature is 98.6°F (37.0°C), pulse is 70/min, blood pressure is 121/67 mmHg, and respirations are 13/min. The patient appears anxious, but overall comfortable, and cardiopulmonary and abdominal exams are unremarkable. Pelvic exam reveals normal female external genitalia, a closed and slightly soft cervix, a ten-week-sized uterus, and no adnexal masses. Which of the following is the best next step for definitively determining whether this patient’s fetus has Down syndrome?
- A. Anatomy ultrasound
- B. Genetic testing of patient’s sister
- C. Chorionic villus sampling (Correct Answer)
- D. Nuchal translucency test
- E. Amniocentesis
Genetic counseling principles Explanation: ***Chorionic villus sampling***
- **Chorionic villus sampling (CVS)** is a diagnostic procedure performed between 10 and 13 weeks of gestation that involves taking a sample of placental tissue for genetic analysis. It provides a definitive diagnosis for chromosomal abnormalities like **Down syndrome** earlier in pregnancy than amniocentesis.
- Given the patient's anxiety and desire for definitive diagnosis due to family history, CVS is the most appropriate next step for an early and conclusive result.
*Anatomy ultrasound*
- An **anatomy ultrasound** (typically performed at 18-20 weeks) is a screening, not diagnostic, tool for fetal anomalies. While it can detect **structural abnormalities** associated with Down syndrome, it cannot definitively diagnose the condition.
- It would be too late to provide the early definitive diagnosis the patient is seeking regarding **Down syndrome**.
*Genetic testing of patient’s sister*
- The sister's genetic testing would confirm her child's diagnosis or carrier status for **chromosomal translocations**, but it does not provide information about the current patient's fetus.
- A definitive diagnosis for the current pregnancy must come from **fetal genetic material**.
*Nuchal translucency test*
- The **nuchal translucency test** is a **screening test** performed between 11 and 14 weeks that measures the fluid at the back of the fetal neck and is used in conjunction with biochemical markers (first-trimester screening) to assess the risk of Down syndrome. It is not diagnostic.
- An abnormal result would indicate an increased risk but would still require a **diagnostic test** like CVS or amniocentesis for confirmation.
*Amniocentesis*
- **Amniocentesis** is a diagnostic procedure that samples amniotic fluid for genetic analysis, typically performed between 15 and 20 weeks of gestation.
- While it provides a definitive diagnosis for **chromosomal abnormalities**, it is usually performed later in pregnancy than CVS. The patient is at 10 weeks and two days, making CVS a timelier option for early diagnosis.
Genetic counseling principles US Medical PG Question 10: A 20-year-old woman presents with nausea, fatigue, and breast tenderness. She is sexually active with two partners and occasionally uses condoms during intercourse. A β-hCG urinary test is positive. A transvaginal ultrasound reveals an 8-week fetus in the uterine cavity. The patient is distressed by this news and requests an immediate abortion. Which of the following is the most appropriate step in management?
- A. Explain the risk and potential harmful effects of the procedure. (Correct Answer)
- B. Ask the patient to reconsider and refer her to a social worker.
- C. Ask the patient to obtain consent from legal guardians.
- D. Ask the patient to obtain consent from the baby’s father.
- E. Conduct a psychiatric evaluation for mental competence.
Genetic counseling principles Explanation: ***Explain the risk and potential harmful effects of the procedure.***
- It is crucial to **inform the patient fully** about the medical procedure, including its risks and benefits, as part of the **informed consent** process.
- This ensures the patient makes an autonomous, well-considered decision, which is a fundamental ethical principle in medicine.
*Ask the patient to reconsider and refer her to a social worker.*
- While it's important to ensure the patient has considered all aspects, **directly asking the patient to reconsider** can be perceived as coercive and may undermine her autonomy.
- Referring to a social worker might be appropriate if the patient expresses uncertainty or needs support, but it should not be a replacement for proper medical counseling about the procedure itself.
*Ask the patient to obtain consent from legal guardians.*
- At 20 years old, the patient is an **adult** and legally capable of making her own medical decisions, including consent for abortion.
- Forcing her to obtain consent from legal guardians would infringe upon her **autonomy and legal rights**.
*Ask the patient to obtain consent from the baby’s father.*
- In most jurisdictions, a woman's decision to have an abortion is **her legal right**, and the consent of the father is **not required**.
- Requiring paternal consent would violate her **personal autonomy** and could create unnecessary barriers to care.
*Conduct a psychiatric evaluation for mental competence.*
- There is **no indication** in the patient's presentation (nausea, fatigue, breast tenderness, distress about pregnancy) that suggests she lacks the mental competence to make her own medical decisions.
- Requesting a psychiatric evaluation without clinical grounds would be **unethical and inappropriate**.
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