Filarial nematodes US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice US Medical PG questions for Filarial nematodes. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Filarial nematodes US Medical PG Question 1: A 39-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with a high fever, cough, and malaise. One week ago, he returned from a vacation to Hawaii where he went waterskiing with his family. Three days before presentation, he started experiencing intermittent abdominal pain, which was followed by flu-like symptoms, itchiness in his eyes, and photosensitivity. On presentation, his temperature is 103°F (39.4°C), blood pressure is 114/72 mmHg, pulse is 105/min, and respirations are 18/min. Physical exam reveals conjunctivitis and mild jaundice. Which of the following treatments could be used to treat this patient's condition?
- A. Ganciclovir
- B. Metronidazole
- C. Doxycycline (Correct Answer)
- D. Vancomycin
- E. Azithromycin
Filarial nematodes Explanation: ***Doxycycline***
- The patient's symptoms (fever, cough, malaise, abdominal pain, **conjunctival suffusion** presenting as conjunctivitis, jaundice) after waterskiing in Hawaii are highly suggestive of **leptospirosis**, an infection caused by *Leptospira* bacteria.
- **Doxycycline** is the recommended treatment for mild to moderate leptospirosis, while severe cases (Weil's disease with jaundice) may require intravenous penicillin G or ceftriaxone.
- The biphasic illness pattern and water exposure history are classic features of this spirochete infection.
*Ganciclovir*
- **Ganciclovir** is an antiviral medication primarily used to treat **cytomegalovirus (CMV)** infections, especially in immunocompromised patients.
- The clinical picture presented does not align with typical CMV infection, which is often asymptomatic or causes mono-like symptoms without the water exposure history.
*Metronidazole*
- **Metronidazole** is an antibiotic effective against **anaerobic bacteria** and certain parasites (e.g., *Giardia*, *Trichomonas*).
- It is not indicated for the treatment of leptospirosis, which is caused by a spirochete requiring tetracyclines or beta-lactams.
*Vancomycin*
- **Vancomycin** is an antibiotic used for treating serious infections caused by **Gram-positive bacteria**, particularly **methicillin-resistant *Staphylococcus aureus* (MRSA)** or *Clostridioides difficile*.
- It is not effective against *Leptospira* species, which are spirochetes.
*Azithromycin*
- **Azithromycin** is a macrolide antibiotic effective against a range of bacterial infections, including **atypical pneumonia** and some sexually transmitted infections.
- While azithromycin has some activity against leptospirosis, **doxycycline** or penicillin-based antibiotics are strongly preferred as first-line treatment with better evidence base.
Filarial nematodes US Medical PG Question 2: A 32-year-old woman presents to your office with abdominal pain and bloating over the last month. She also complains of intermittent, copious, non-bloody diarrhea over the same time. Last month, she had a cough that has since improved but has not completely resolved. She has no sick contacts and has not left the country recently. She denies any myalgias, itching, or rashes. Physical and laboratory evaluations are unremarkable. Examination of her stool reveals the causative organism. This organism is most likely transmitted to the human host through which of the following routes?
- A. Insect bite
- B. Penetration of skin (Correct Answer)
- C. Sexual contact
- D. Inhalation
- E. Animal bite
Filarial nematodes Explanation: ***Penetration of skin***
- The symptoms of **abdominal pain**, **bloating**, **intermittent copious non-bloody diarrhea**, and a recent **cough** are highly suggestive of a **hookworm infection**.
- Hookworm larvae (filariform larvae) primarily penetrate the skin, usually through bare feet, as their mode of entry into the human host.
*Insect bite*
- Although some parasitic infections are transmitted by insect bites (e.g., malaria, Chagas disease), hookworms are not transmitted this way.
- **Insect-borne diseases** typically present with different clinical manifestations or geographical associations.
*Sexual contact*
- **Sexually transmitted infections** involve direct contact of mucous membranes or body fluids during sexual activity.
- Hookworm infection transmission through sexual contact is not a recognized route.
*Inhalation*
- **Inhalation** is a route of transmission for respiratory pathogens (e.g., influenza, tuberculosis) or certain fungal infections, but not for hookworms.
- While hookworm larvae migrate through the lungs, the initial infection pathway is not via inhalation.
*Animal bite*
- **Animal bites** transmit diseases like rabies or certain bacterial infections, but not parasitic hookworms.
- Hookworm infection does not result from direct contact with an animal's saliva or puncture wound.
Filarial nematodes US Medical PG Question 3: An otherwise healthy 39-year-old woman presents to her primary care provider because of right-leg swelling, which started 4 months ago following travel to Kenya. The swelling has been slowly progressive and interferes with daily tasks. She denies smoking or alcohol use. Family history is irrelevant. Vital signs include: temperature 38.1°C (100.5°F), blood pressure 115/72 mm Hg, and pulse 99/min. Physical examination reveals non-pitting edema of the entire right leg. The overlying skin is rough, thick and indurated. The left leg is normal in size and shape. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient condition?
- A. Obstruction of lymphatic channels (Correct Answer)
- B. Hypoalbuminemia
- C. Lymphatic hypoplasia
- D. Venous thromboembolism
- E. Persistent elevation of venous pressures
Filarial nematodes Explanation: ***Obstruction of lymphatic channels***
- The patient's history of travel to **Kenya**, along with **progressive, non-pitting edema** of the entire right leg and **rough, thick, indurated skin**, strongly suggests **filariasis**, a parasitic infection that obstructs lymphatic channels.
- **Obstruction of lymphatic channels** leads to **lymphedema**, which characteristically presents with the described symptoms and skin changes (e.g., **elephantiasis**).
*Hypoalbuminemia*
- **Hypoalbuminemia** typically causes **generalized, pitting edema** due to decreased plasma oncotic pressure, not localized, non-pitting edema in a single limb.
- There are no clinical signs to suggest **hepatic** or **renal dysfunction** that would cause significant hypoalbuminemia.
*Lymphatic hypoplasia*
- **Lymphatic hypoplasia** (primary lymphedema) is usually congenital or develops in early life and would not typically manifest acutely after travel in a 39-year-old.
- While it causes lymphedema, the travel history points to an acquired cause rather than a congenital defect.
*Venous thromboembolism*
- **Venous thromboembolism** (DVT) typically presents with acute onset of **painful, edematous** limb, often with **pitting edema**, and can be associated with warmth and erythema.
- The **slowly progressive** nature of the swelling over 4 months and **non-pitting edema** are less consistent with acute DVT.
*Persistent elevation of venous pressures*
- **Persistent elevation of venous pressures** (e.g., chronic venous insufficiency) leads to **pitting edema**, skin discoloration (**hyperpigmentation**), and **ulcerations**, not the rough, thick, indurated skin seen in this case.
- This condition is also typically associated with factors like prolonged standing or obesity, which are not mentioned here.
Filarial nematodes US Medical PG Question 4: A 16-year-old boy is brought to the physician by his host parents for evaluation of a progressively pruritic rash over his shoulders and buttocks for the past 6 months. He recently came to the United States from Nigeria to attend a year of high school. He reports that it has been increasingly difficult for him to read the whiteboard during classes. Physical examination shows symmetrically distributed papules 4–8 mm in diameter, excoriation marks, and patchy hyperpigmentation over his shoulders, waist, and buttocks. There is nontender inguinal lymphadenopathy and several firm, nontender subcutaneous nodules along the right iliac crest. Six skin snip biopsies are taken from the pelvic girdle, buttocks, and thigh, and are then incubated in saline. After 24 hours, microscopic examination shows motile microfilariae. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Cysticercosis
- B. Onchocerciasis (Correct Answer)
- C. Lymphatic filariasis
- D. Cutaneous larva migrans
- E. Trichuriasis
Filarial nematodes Explanation: ***Onchocerciasis***
- The presentation of **pruritic rash with papules**, **subcutaneous nodules** (onchocercomas), and **visual difficulties** (river blindness) in an individual from an endemic area (Nigeria) is classic for **onchocerciasis**.
- The presence of **motile microfilariae in skin snips** after saline incubation is a diagnostic hallmark of this condition, caused by *Onchocerca volvulus*.
*Cysticercosis*
- This condition is caused by the larval stage of *Taenia solium* and typically presents with **calcified lesions** in the muscle and brain (neurocysticercosis), which can lead to seizures.
- It does not typically cause the generalized pruritic rash, subcutaneous nodules, or ocular symptoms described, nor would **motile microfilariae** be found in skin snips.
*Lymphatic filariasis*
- Caused by *Wuchereria bancrofti* or *Brugia malayi*, this disease is characterized by **lymphedema** and **hydrocele**, eventually leading to **elephantiasis**.
- While it involves filarial worms and can cause lymphadenopathy, it does not typically manifest with the described rash, vision problems, or **subcutaneous nodules** (onchocercomas).
*Cutaneous larva migrans*
- This condition, caused by hookworm larvae (e.g., *Ancylostoma braziliense*), presents as a **serpiginous, intensely pruritic eruption** where the larvae migrate under the skin.
- It does not cause subcutaneous nodules, generalized papular rash, or ocular involvement, and skin snips would not show **microfilariae**.
*Trichuriasis*
- Caused by the **whipworm** (*Trichuris trichiura*), this is an intestinal nematode infection that can lead to **abdominal pain**, **diarrhea**, **rectal prolapse**, and **anemia**.
- It does not present with skin lesions, subcutaneous nodules, or visual impairment, and diagnosis is typically made by finding **ova in stool samples**, not microfilariae in skin snips.
Filarial nematodes US Medical PG Question 5: A 29-year-old internal medicine resident presents to the emergency department with complaints of fevers, diarrhea, abdominal pain, and skin rash for 2 days. He feels fatigued and has lost his appetite. On further questioning, he says that he returned from his missionary trip to Brazil last week. He is excited as he talks about his trip. Besides a worthy clinical experience, he also enjoyed local outdoor activities, like swimming and rafting. His past medical history is insignificant. The blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg, the pulse is 100/min, and the temperature is 38.3°C (100.9°F). On examination, there is a rash on the legs. The rest of the examination is normal. Which of the following organisms is most likely responsible for this patient’s condition?
- A. Schistosoma mansoni (Correct Answer)
- B. Schistosoma haematobium
- C. Vibrio cholerae
- D. Onchocerca volvulus
- E. Schistosoma japonicum
Filarial nematodes Explanation: ***Schistosoma mansoni***
- The patient's symptoms (fevers, diarrhea, abdominal pain, rash, fatigue) after swimming and rafting in Brazil are classic for **acute schistosomiasis (Katayama fever)**, and *Schistosoma mansoni* is endemic to South America, including Brazil, affecting the **gastrointestinal tract**.
- The rash on the legs is consistent with the entry points of **cercariae** through the skin, and the systemic symptoms develop as the adult worms mature and lay eggs.
*Schistosoma haematobium*
- This species primarily causes **urinary schistosomiasis**, with symptoms like **hematuria**, dysuria, and bladder wall calcification.
- It is prevalent in Africa and the Middle East, not typically associated with Brazil.
*Vibrio cholerae*
- *Vibrio cholerae* causes severe, watery **diarrhea** (rice-water stools) and rapid **dehydration**, usually without a prominent rash or prolonged systemic symptoms like fatigue and fever as the primary presentation.
- While diarrhea is present, the array of other symptoms and the exposure history do not align with cholera.
*Onchocerca volvulus*
- This parasite causes **onchocerciasis (river blindness)**, transmitted by blackflies, and primarily manifests as **dermatitis**, subcutaneous nodules, and significant eye disease leading to blindness.
- It does not typically cause acute febrile illness with prominent gastrointestinal symptoms like those described.
*Schistosoma japonicum*
- *Schistosoma japonicum* is found in East Asia (e.g., China, Philippines), not South America, and primarily affects the **gastrointestinal tract** and liver, similar to *S. mansoni*.
- The geographical exposure to Brazil makes *S. mansoni* the most likely cause, despite similar clinical features to *S. japonicum*.
Filarial nematodes US Medical PG Question 6: A 19-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with complaints of blurry vision and headaches that started 2 days ago. She reports that she has been experiencing some facial pain, but she thought it was related to her toothache. She is also worried about a black spot that is increasing in size on her face over the last month. She expresses concerns about her frequency of urination. Recently, she had a runny nose and cough that resolved spontaneously. The patient was diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus at 13 years of age. She is a non-smoker and drinks beer occasionally. Her blood pressure is 122/98 mm Hg and temperature is 37.2°C (98.9°F). The physical examination is normal with the exception of a black necrotic eschar lateral to the right nasal ala. She lost 2.7 kg (6 lb) since her last visit, which was 6 months ago. A routine urinalysis at the office is positive for glucose and ketones. What is the most likely cause of the patient’s symptoms?
- A. Bacillus anthracis
- B. Mucormycosis (Correct Answer)
- C. Clostridium difficile
- D. Histoplasma capsulatum
- E. Aspergillus fumigatus
Filarial nematodes Explanation: ***Mucormycosis***
- This patient, with uncontrolled **Type 1 diabetes** (indicated by frequent urination, weight loss, and glucose/ketones in urine), is at high risk for **mucormycosis**, an opportunistic fungal infection.
- The presence of a **black necrotic eschar** on the face, coupled with eye symptoms (blurry vision) and facial pain, is highly characteristic of **rhino-orbital-cerebral mucormycosis**, which often originates in the sinuses.
*Bacillus anthracis*
- **Cutaneous anthrax** would present as a painless ulcer with a black eschar, but it typically occurs in individuals exposed to infected animals or animal products and is not associated with diabetes or the rhinocerebral symptoms described.
- Systemic symptoms like blurry vision, headaches, and polyuria are not typical for cutaneous anthrax.
*Clostridium difficile*
- This bacterium primarily causes **gastrointestinal infections**, leading to diarrhea, abdominal pain, and fever.
- There are no symptoms described that suggest a *C. difficile* infection, and it does not cause facial eschars or rhino-orbital symptoms.
*Histoplasma capsulatum*
- **Histoplasmosis** is a fungal infection typically acquired by inhaling spores, often found in bird or bat droppings, mainly affecting the lungs.
- While it can disseminate in immunocompromised individuals, causing mucocutaneous lesions, it typically doesn't present with a rapid-onset facial eschar or the specific rhino-orbital symptoms seen here.
*Aspergillus fumigatus*
- Although **invasive aspergillosis** can occur in immunocompromised patients, including those with diabetes, it more commonly affects the lungs (e.g., aspergilloma, chronic pulmonary aspergillosis).
- While it can cause sinusitis and, rarely, cutaneous lesions, the rapid progression to a **black necrotic eschar** in the context of uncontrolled diabetes points more strongly towards mucormycosis.
Filarial nematodes US Medical PG Question 7: A 58-year-old man presents with a high-grade fever, throbbing left-sided headache, vision loss, and left orbital pain. He says that his symptoms started acutely 2 days ago with painful left-sided mid-facial swelling and a rash, which progressively worsened. Today, he woke up with complete vision loss in his left eye. His past medical history is significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus, diagnosed 5 years ago. He was started on an oral hypoglycemic agent which he discontinued after a year. His temperature is 38.9°C (102.0°F), blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg, pulse is 120/min, and respiratory rate is 20/min. On examination, there is purulent discharge from the left eye and swelling of the left half of his face including the orbit. Oral examination reveals extensive necrosis of the palate with a black necrotic eschar and purulent discharge. Ophthalmic examination is significant for left-sided ptosis, proptosis, and an absence of the pupillary light reflex. Laboratory findings are significant for a blood glucose level of 388 mg/dL and a white blood cell count of 19,000 cells/mm³. Urinary ketone bodies are positive. Fungal elements are found on a KOH mount of the discharge. Which of the following statements best describes the organism responsible for this patient’s condition?
- A. It appears as a narrow-based budding yeast with a thick capsule
- B. Histopathological examination shows non-septate branching hyphae (Correct Answer)
- C. It produces conidiospores
- D. It has budding and filamentous forms
- E. Histopathological examination shows acute angle branching hyphae
Filarial nematodes Explanation: ***Histopathological examination shows non-septate branching hyphae***
- The patient's presentation with **diabetic ketoacidosis**, orbital pain, vision loss, facial swelling, necrotic palatal eschar, and high fever strongly suggests **mucormycosis**, a severe fungal infection.
- Mucormycosis is caused by fungi belonging to **Mucorales order** (e.g., *Rhizopus*, *Mucor*, *Lichtheimia*), which are characterized by **broad, ribbon-like, non-septate hyphae with irregular, wide-angle branching**.
*It appears as a narrow-based budding yeast with a thick capsule*
- This description is characteristic of **Cryptococcus neoformans**, which causes cryptococcosis, often presenting with meningoencephalitis and lung involvement.
- The clinical picture and *KOH mount* findings in this patient are inconsistent with cryptococcosis.
*It produces conidiospores*
- **Conidiospores are asexual spores** produced by many fungi, including *Aspergillus* and *Penicillium*, but this is a general characteristic and not specific enough to definitively identify the pathogen responsible for mucormycosis.
- The *histopathological features* (non-septate hyphae) are the key identifier in mucormycosis.
*It has budding and filamentous forms*
- This description generally refers to **dimorphic fungi** (e.g., *Histoplasma*, *Blastomyces*, *Coccidioides*), which exhibit yeast forms in tissue and mold forms in culture.
- Mucorales are typically **molds** in both environments and are not considered dimorphic, nor do they commonly present with budding forms.
*Histopathological examination shows acute angle branching hyphae*
- This morphological description is characteristic of **Aspergillus species**, which cause aspergillosis, another opportunistic fungal infection.
- *Aspergillus* hyphae are typically **septate** and branch at acute angles (around 45 degrees), unlike the broad, non-septate, wide-angle branching hyphae of Mucorales.
Filarial nematodes US Medical PG Question 8: A 4-month-old boy is brought to the physician by his father because of a progressively worsening rash on his buttocks for the last week. He cries during diaper changes and is more fussy than usual. Physical examination of the boy shows erythematous papules and plaques in the bilateral inguinal creases, on the scrotum, and in the gluteal cleft. Small areas of maceration are also present. A diagnosis is made, and treatment with topical clotrimazole is initiated. Microscopic examination of skin scrapings from this patient's rash is most likely to show which of the following findings?
- A. Round yeast surrounded by budding yeast cells
- B. Oval, budding yeast with pseudohyphae (Correct Answer)
- C. Broad-based budding yeast
- D. Fruiting bodies with septate, acute-angle hyphae
- E. Narrow budding, encapsulated yeast
Filarial nematodes Explanation: ***Oval, budding yeast with pseudohyphae***
- This morphology is characteristic of *Candida albicans*, which commonly causes **diaper rash** due to the warm, moist environment in the diaper area.
- The rash described, with **erythematous papules and plaques** in the inguinal creases, scrotum, and gluteal cleft, along with **maceration**, is typical of candidal diaper dermatitis.
*Round yeast surrounded by budding yeast cells*
- This description ("wagon wheel" appearance) is characteristic of *Malasseella globosa*, the causative agent of **tinea versicolor**.
- Tinea versicolor typically presents with hypo- or hyperpigmented patches, not the erythematous, macerated rash seen in this infant.
*Broad-based budding yeast*
- This morphology is characteristic of **Blastomycosis**, caused by *Blastomyces dermatitidis*.
- This infection typically causes **pulmonary disease** or **cutaneous lesions** that are often verrucous or ulcerative, not a diaper rash.
*Fruiting bodies with septate, acute-angle hyphae*
- This describes the microscopic appearance of *Aspergillus* species.
- *Aspergillus* typically causes **invasive pulmonary disease** in immunocompromised individuals or **allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis**, not diaper dermatitis.
*Narrow budding, encapsulated yeast*
- This is the characteristic microscopic appearance of *Cryptococcus neoformans*.
- *Cryptococcus* commonly causes **meningitis** or **pulmonary infections**, particularly in immunocompromised patients, and is not associated with diaper rash.
Filarial nematodes US Medical PG Question 9: A 22-year-old man comes to the physician because of abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss that started after a recent backpacking trip in Southeast Asia. He does not smoke or drink alcohol. His leukocyte count is 7,500/mm3 (61% segmented neutrophils, 13% eosinophils, and 26% lymphocytes). Stool microscopy shows rhabditiform larvae. This patient is most likely to develop which of the following?
- A. Perianal serpiginous rash (Correct Answer)
- B. Hematuria
- C. Rectal prolapse
- D. Peripheral lymphedema
- E. Muscle tenderness
Filarial nematodes Explanation: ***Perianal serpiginous rash***
- The patient's symptoms (abdominal pain, diarrhea, weight loss, recent travel to Southeast Asia, eosinophilia, and rhabditiform larvae in stool) are highly suggestive of **Strongyloidiasis**.
- The **rhabditiform larvae** of **Strongyloides stercoralis** can autoinfect the host, migrating through the skin from the perianal area, causing a characteristic **larva currens** or **perianal serpiginous rash**.
*Hematuria*
- **Hematuria** is typically associated with **Schistosomiasis** (especially *Schistosoma haematobium*), which involves the genitourinary tract.
- While schistosomiasis is prevalent in some parts of Southeast Asia, the patient's presentation with **rhabditiform larvae** and **eosinophilia** points away from it.
*Rectal prolapse*
- **Rectal prolapse** can occur with chronic straining due to severe diarrhea or constipation, or in conditions like **Trichuriasis (whipworm infection)**.
- While diarrhea is present, the specific finding of **rhabditiform larvae** and the high eosinophil count are not characteristic of conditions directly leading to rectal prolapse.
*Peripheral lymphedema*
- **Peripheral lymphedema** is a hallmark symptom of **Filariasis**, caused by parasitic worms like *Wuchereria bancrofti* or *Brugia malayi*, transmitted by mosquitoes.
- The patient's presentation, particularly the **rhabditiform larvae in stool**, does not support a diagnosis of filariasis.
*Muscle tenderness*
- **Muscle tenderness** and myalgia can be associated with several parasitic infections, most notably **Trichinellosis**, caused by *Trichinella spiralis*.
- However, the finding of **rhabditiform larvae in stool** and the absence of specific symptoms like periorbital edema or splinter hemorrhages make trichinellosis less likely than strongyloidiasis.
Filarial nematodes US Medical PG Question 10: A 47-year-old man presents to the emergency department with jaundice and extreme fatigue for the past 4 days. He also noticed that his stool is very pale and urine is dark. Past medical history is unremarkable. The review of systems is significant for a 23 kg (50 lb) weight loss over the last 3 months which he says is due to decreased appetite. He is afebrile and the vital signs are within normal limits. A contrast computed tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen reveals a mass in the pancreatic head. A blood test for carbohydrate antigen (CA19-9) is positive. The patient is admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU) and undergoes surgical decompression of the biliary tract. He is placed on total parenteral nutrition (TPN). On day 4 after admission, his intravenous access site is found to be erythematous and edematous. Which of the following microorganisms is most likely responsible for this patient’s intravenous (IV) site infection?
- A. Candida parapsilosis (Correct Answer)
- B. E. coli
- C. Hepatitis B virus
- D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
- E. Malassezia furfur
Filarial nematodes Explanation: ***Candida parapsilosis***
- This yeast is a common cause of **catheter-related bloodstream infections** in patients receiving **total parenteral nutrition (TPN)**, as it can readily grow on lipid emulsions.
- The patient's presentation with an erythematous and edematous intravenous access site, coupled with a history of TPN, strongly points towards a fungal infection, with *C. parapsilosis* being a primary suspect due to its affinity for TPN.
*E. coli*
- While *E. coli* is a common cause of **urinary tract infections** and can cause **bloodstream infections**, it is not a typical cause of IV site infections specifically associated with TPN.
- Its presence at an IV site would usually indicate a more generalized sepsis or contamination, rather than the specific affinity *C. parapsilosis* has for TPN lines.
*Hepatitis B virus*
- **Hepatitis B virus** causes **viral hepatitis** and liver damage, but it does not directly cause localized IV site infections with erythema and edema.
- It is typically spread through blood and body fluids and its clinical manifestations are systemic, primarily involving the liver, rather than local skin signs at an IV access site.
*Pseudomonas aeruginosa*
- **Pseudomonas aeruginosa** is a common opportunistic pathogen, particularly in **immunocompromised patients** and those with medical devices, but it is typically associated with infections in burn wounds, cystic fibrosis, or ventilator-associated pneumonia.
- While it can cause catheter-related infections, it is not as uniquely linked to TPN-associated IV site infections as *Candida parapsilosis*.
*Malassezia furfur*
- *Malassezia furfur* is known to cause **catheter-related infections** in patients receiving **lipid emulsions** via central lines, similar to *C. parapsilosis*.
- However, *C. parapsilosis* is statistically a more common cause of TPN-associated fungemia and IV site infections than *M. furfur*.
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