Oncogenic viruses

Oncogenic viruses US Medical PG Question 1: A 38-year-old woman makes an appointment with her family physician for a routine check-up after being away due to travel for 1 year. She recently had a screening Pap smear, which was negative for malignancy. Her past medical history is significant for a Pap smear 2 years ago that reported a low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (LSIL). A subsequent colposcopy diagnosed high-grade cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN2). The patient is surprised by the differences in her diagnostic tests. You explain to her the basis for the difference and reassure her. With this in mind, which of the following HPV serotypes is most likely to be present in the patient?

• A. HPV 33
• B. HPV 16 (Correct Answer)
• C. HPV 6
• D. HPV 31
• E. HPV 18

Oncogenic viruses Explanation: ***HPV 16*** - HPV 16 is the most common **high-risk HPV serotype**, responsible for approximately 50-60% of all **cervical cancers** and a high percentage of **high-grade cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN2/3)**. The progression from LSIL to CIN2 in this patient suggests infection with a high-risk type, making HPV 16 the most likely candidate. - Given the patient's history of CIN2, a lesion of high-grade dysplasia, it is highly probable that she is infected with one of the most oncogenic HPV types, of which HPV 16 is paramount in prevalence. *HPV 33* - HPV 33 is a **high-risk HPV type** but is less prevalent than HPV 16 and 18 in causing cervical lesions. While it can cause CIN2, it is not the *most likely* serotype. - It accounts for a smaller proportion of cervical cancers and high-grade dysplasias compared to HPV 16. *HPV 6* - HPV 6 is a **low-risk HPV type** primarily associated with **genital warts (condyloma acuminata)** and **low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions (LSIL)** that typically do not progress to CIN2 or cervical cancer. - Its presence would be inconsistent with the development of CIN2, as low-risk types are rarely implicated in high-grade dysplasia or malignancy. *HPV 31* - HPV 31 is another **high-risk HPV type** capable of causing **CIN2** and cervical cancer. However, it is less common than HPV 16. - While plausible, HPV 16 remains statistically the most probable cause of CIN2. *HPV 18* - HPV 18 is a **high-risk HPV type** and is the second most common cause of **cervical cancer**, particularly **adenocarcinoma**. It is also associated with high-grade squamous lesions. - While HPV 18 is a strong contender for high-grade lesions like CIN2, HPV 16 is still more frequently implicated in squamous cell carcinoma precursors.

Oncogenic viruses US Medical PG Question 2: A research group wants to assess the safety and toxicity profile of a new drug. A clinical trial is conducted with 20 volunteers to estimate the maximum tolerated dose and monitor the apparent toxicity of the drug. The study design is best described as which of the following phases of a clinical trial?

• A. Phase 0
• B. Phase III
• C. Phase V
• D. Phase II
• E. Phase I (Correct Answer)

Oncogenic viruses Explanation: ***Phase I*** - **Phase I clinical trials** involve a small group of healthy volunteers (typically 20-100) to primarily assess **drug safety**, determine a safe dosage range, and identify side effects. - The main goal is to establish the **maximum tolerated dose (MTD)** and evaluate the drug's pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic profiles. *Phase 0* - **Phase 0 trials** are exploratory studies conducted in a very small number of subjects (10-15) to gather preliminary data on a drug's **pharmacodynamics and pharmacokinetics** in humans. - They involve microdoses, not intended to have therapeutic effects, and thus cannot determine toxicity or MTD. *Phase III* - **Phase III trials** are large-scale studies involving hundreds to thousands of patients to confirm the drug's **efficacy**, monitor side effects, compare it to standard treatments, and collect information that will allow the drug to be used safely. - These trials are conducted after safety and initial efficacy have been established in earlier phases. *Phase V* - "Phase V" is not a standard, recognized phase in the traditional clinical trial classification (Phase 0, I, II, III, IV). - This term might be used in some non-standard research contexts or for post-marketing studies that go beyond Phase IV surveillance, but it is not a formal phase for initial drug development. *Phase II* - **Phase II trials** involve several hundred patients with the condition the drug is intended to treat, focusing on **drug efficacy** and further evaluating safety. - While safety is still monitored, the primary objective shifts to determining if the drug works for its intended purpose and at what dose.

Oncogenic viruses US Medical PG Question 3: A 41-year-old man with HIV comes to the physician because of rectal bleeding and itching for 2 weeks. During this period, he has also had pain with defecation. Four months ago, he was diagnosed with anogenital warts that were treated with cryotherapy. Over the past year, he has been sexually active with 3 male partners. He uses condoms inconsistently. Current medications are zidovudine, emtricitabine, and efavirenz. Digital rectal examination and anoscopy show an exophytic mass on the anal margin that is protruding into the anal canal. The mass is tender to palpation and bleeds easily on contact. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 7,600/mm3 and a CD4+ T-lymphocyte count of 410/mm3 (N ≥ 500). A biopsy specimen of the lesion shows a well-differentiated squamous cell carcinoma. Which of the following cellular processes was most likely involved in the pathogenesis of this patient's malignancy?

• A. Activation of c-myc gene
• B. Inactivation of TP53 gene (Correct Answer)
• C. Activation of TAX gene
• D. Inactivation of VHL gene
• E. Inactivation of WT1 gene

Oncogenic viruses Explanation: ***Inactivation of TP53 gene*** - This patient's **squamous cell carcinoma** (SCC) of the anus is strongly associated with **human papillomavirus (HPV) infection**, which is common in HIV-positive sexually active men. HPV oncoproteins, particularly E6, promote the degradation of the **TP53 tumor suppressor protein**. - Inactivating mutations or degradation of **TP53** remove a critical checkpoint in the cell cycle, allowing cells with DNA damage to proliferate uncontrollably and contributing to carcinogenesis. *Activation of c-myc gene* - The **c-myc proto-oncogene** is involved in cell proliferation, differentiation, and apoptosis, and its activation is commonly seen in lymphomas (e.g., Burkitt lymphoma) and other cancers. - While *c-myc* activation can contribute to various malignancies, it is not the **primary molecular mechanism** linked to HPV-associated anal squamous cell carcinoma. *Activation of TAX gene* - The **TAX gene** is a transforming gene of **human T-cell lymphotropic virus type 1 (HTLV-1)**, responsible for T-cell leukemia/lymphoma. - This patient's presentation with anal squamous cell carcinoma, rather than a hematologic malignancy, makes HTLV-1 and TAX gene activation an unlikely cause. *Inactivation of VHL gene* - The **VHL (Von Hippel-Lindau) gene** is a tumor suppressor gene whose inactivation is strongly associated with **renal cell carcinoma** (clear cell type) and other tumors like pheochromocytoma and hemangioblastoma. - Inactivation of **VHL** is not a primary mechanism in the development of anal squamous cell carcinoma. *Inactivation of WT1 gene* - The **WT1 (Wilms tumor 1) gene** is a tumor suppressor gene primarily associated with **Wilms tumor**, a kidney cancer that typically affects children. - Inactivation of **WT1** is not a known pathogenic mechanism for anal squamous cell carcinoma in adults.

Oncogenic viruses US Medical PG Question 4: A 63-year-old man presents to his primary care physician because he has been having headaches and hearing loss. In addition, he says that he has been having difficulty opening his jaw to eat and recurrent middle ear infections. Physical exam reveals enlarged neck lymph nodes and a mass in the nasopharynx. Biopsy of the mass reveals undifferentiated squamous epithelial cells. The organism that is most likely associated with this patient's disease is also associated with which of the following disorders?

• A. Kaposi sarcoma
• B. Hepatocellular carcinoma
• C. Adult T-cell lymphoma
• D. Burkitt lymphoma (Correct Answer)
• E. Vulvar carcinoma

Oncogenic viruses Explanation: ***Burkitt lymphoma*** - The patient's symptoms (headaches, hearing loss, difficulty opening jaw, recurrent middle ear infections, nasopharyngeal mass, enlarged neck lymph nodes) and biopsy results (undifferentiated squamous epithelial cells) point to **nasopharyngeal carcinoma**. - **Nasopharyngeal carcinoma** is strongly associated with the **Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)**. EBV is also a causative agent in **Burkitt lymphoma**. *Kaposi sarcoma* - **Kaposi sarcoma** is caused by **Human Herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8)**, not EBV. - It typically presents as vascular skin lesions and can affect visceral organs, differing from the nasopharyngeal carcinoma described. *Hepatocellular carcinoma* - **Hepatocellular carcinoma** is primarily associated with **Hepatitis B virus (HBV)** and **Hepatitis C virus (HCV)** infection, as well as cirrhosis from other causes. - There is no significant association between EBV and hepatocellular carcinoma. *Adult T-cell lymphoma* - **Adult T-cell lymphoma** is caused by the **Human T-lymphotropic virus type 1 (HTLV-1)**. - This is a retrovirus distinct from EBV. *Vulvar carcinoma* - **Vulvar carcinoma** is most frequently associated with **Human Papillomavirus (HPV)** infection, especially high-risk strains like HPV 16 and 18. - It is not typically linked to EBV.

Oncogenic viruses US Medical PG Question 5: Two viruses, X and Y, infect the same cell and begin to reproduce within the cell. As a result of the co-infection, some viruses are produced where the genome of Y is surrounded by the nucleocapsid of X and vice versa with the genome of X and nucleocapsid of Y. When the virus containing genome X surrounded by the nucleocapsid of Y infects another cell, what is the most likely outcome?

• A. Virions containing genome Y and nucleocapsid Y will be produced
• B. No virions will be produced
• C. Virions containing genome X and nucleocapsid Y will be produced
• D. Virions containing genome Y and nucleocapsid X will be produced
• E. Virions containing genome X and nucleocapsid X will be produced (Correct Answer)

Oncogenic viruses Explanation: ***Virions containing genome X and nucleocapsid X will be produced*** - The virus containing **genome X** surrounded by **nucleocapsid Y** is a pseudotype. During the infection of a new cell, the **genome X** will direct the synthesis of new viral components, including **nucleocapsid X**. - Since the genetic material (genome X) dictates the production of viral proteins, the new virions will be genetically identical to virus X, thus containing its own genome and nucleocapsid. *Virions containing genome Y and nucleocapsid Y will be produced* - This is incorrect because the infecting particle carried **genome X**, not genome Y. - The genetic information encoded in the genome determines the type of progeny viruses produced. *No virions will be produced* - This is unlikely as the pseudotyped virus is capable of infection and delivery of a functional genome into the host cell. - The cell is presumed to be permissive for virus replication. *Virions containing genome X and nucleocapsid Y will be produced* - This would only happen if the **nucleocapsid Y** was somehow replicated independently of its original genome, which is not how viral replication works. - The progeny nucleocapsids are always encoded by the genome that is replicating within the cell. *Virions containing genome Y and nucleocapsid X will be produced* - This is incorrect. The infecting virus introduced **genome X** into the cell, not genome Y. - The genetic material delivered determines the type of viral particles that will be synthesized.

Oncogenic viruses US Medical PG Question 6: A group of scientists is conducting an experiment on the human cells involved in the immune response. They genetically modify B cells so they do not express the cluster of differentiation 21 (CD21) on their cell surfaces. The pathogenesis of which of the following organisms would most likely be affected by this genetic modification?

• A. Human papillomavirus
• B. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
• C. Parvovirus B19
• D. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) (Correct Answer)
• E. Measles virus

Oncogenic viruses Explanation: ***Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)*** - EBV primarily infects B cells by binding to **CD21**, also known as the **C3d receptor** or CR2. - Absence of CD21 would prevent EBV from entering B cells, thereby disrupting its **pathogenesis** and replication cycle. *Human papillomavirus* - HPV primarily infects **epithelial cells** and uses entry receptors other than CD21, such as alpha-6 integrins and heparan sulfate proteoglycans. - Its pathogenesis is not directly dependent on B cell CD21 expression. *Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)* - HIV primarily infects **CD4+ T cells and macrophages** by binding to CD4 and chemokine co-receptors (CCR5 or CXCR4). - CD21 on B cells is not a primary receptor for HIV entry or infection. *Parvovirus B19* - Parvovirus B19 primarily targets **erythroid progenitor cells** by binding to the **P antigen** (globoside) on their surface. - Its infection pathway does not involve CD21 on B cells. *Measles virus* - Measles virus primarily uses **CD150 (SLAM)** as its receptor on immune cells (including B cells and T cells) and nectin-4 on epithelial cells. - While B cells can be infected, CD21 is not the primary receptor for measles virus entry.

Oncogenic viruses US Medical PG Question 7: A 28-year-old male presents to his primary care physician with complaints of intermittent abdominal pain and alternating bouts of constipation and diarrhea. His medical chart is not significant for any past medical problems or prior surgeries. He is not prescribed any current medications. Which of the following questions would be the most useful next question in eliciting further history from this patient?

• A. "Does the diarrhea typically precede the constipation, or vice-versa?"
• B. "Is the diarrhea foul-smelling?"
• C. "Please rate your abdominal pain on a scale of 1-10, with 10 being the worst pain of your life"
• D. "Are the symptoms worse in the morning or at night?"
• E. "Can you tell me more about the symptoms you have been experiencing?" (Correct Answer)

Oncogenic viruses Explanation: ***Can you tell me more about the symptoms you have been experiencing?*** - This **open-ended question** encourages the patient to provide a **comprehensive narrative** of their symptoms, including details about onset, frequency, duration, alleviating/aggravating factors, and associated symptoms, which is crucial for diagnosis. - In a patient presenting with vague, intermittent symptoms like alternating constipation and diarrhea, allowing them to elaborate freely can reveal important clues that might not be captured by more targeted questions. *Does the diarrhea typically precede the constipation, or vice-versa?* - While knowing the sequence of symptoms can be helpful in understanding the **pattern of bowel dysfunction**, it is a very specific question that might overlook other important aspects of the patient's experience. - It prematurely narrows the focus without first obtaining a broad understanding of the patient's overall symptomatic picture. *Is the diarrhea foul-smelling?* - Foul-smelling diarrhea can indicate **malabsorption** or **bacterial overgrowth**, which are important to consider in some gastrointestinal conditions. - However, this is a **specific symptom inquiry** that should follow a more general exploration of the patient's symptoms, as it may not be relevant if other crucial details are missed. *Please rate your abdominal pain on a scale of 1-10, with 10 being the worst pain of your life* - Quantifying pain intensity is useful for assessing the **severity of discomfort** and monitoring changes over time. - However, for a patient with intermittent rather than acute, severe pain, understanding the **character, location, and triggers** of the pain is often more diagnostically valuable than just a numerical rating initially. *Are the symptoms worse in the morning or at night?* - Diurnal variation can be relevant in certain conditions, such as inflammatory bowel diseases where nocturnal symptoms might be more concerning, or functional disorders whose symptoms might be stress-related. - This is another **specific question** that should come after gathering a more complete initial picture of the patient's symptoms to ensure no key information is overlooked.

Oncogenic viruses US Medical PG Question 8: A 16-year-old male is brought to the clinic by his mother for the complaints of fever, nonproductive cough, fatigue, lack of appetite, and sore throat for the past 2 months. Several other students at his high school have had similar symptoms. Physical exam shows a whitish membrane in his oropharynx, bilateral enlarged cervical lymphadenopathy, and mild splenomegaly. Which of the following tests is most likely to diagnose his condition?

• A. Monospot test (Correct Answer)
• B. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
• C. Throat culture
• D. Urine culture
• E. Chest X-ray

Oncogenic viruses Explanation: ***Monospot test*** - The Monospot test detects **heterophile antibodies**, which are commonly produced during an acute Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) infection, the cause of **infectious mononucleosis**. - The patient's symptoms (fever, fatigue, nonproductive cough, sore throat, cervical lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly) and the epidemiological context (several other students with similar symptoms) are highly suggestive of **infectious mononucleosis**. *Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)* - While ELISA can detect antibodies to various pathogens, including EBV-specific antigens, the **Monospot test** is the more common and rapid initial diagnostic tool for infectious mononucleosis. - ELISA for EBV-specific antibodies (e.g., VCA-IgM, VCA-IgG) might be used if the Monospot test is negative but clinical suspicion remains high, especially in younger children or atypical presentations. *Throat culture* - A throat culture is used to identify bacterial infections, such as **Streptococcus pyogenes** (strep throat). - Although the patient has a sore throat and a whitish membrane, his other systemic symptoms (fatigue, splenomegaly, lack of appetite for 2 months) are not typical for a bacterial pharyngitis which usually responds to antibiotics. A **nonproductive cough** also makes bacterial pharyngitis less likely. *Urine culture* - A urine culture is used to diagnose **urinary tract infections**. - The patient's symptoms are not indicative of a urinary tract infection. *Chest X-ray* - A chest X-ray is used to evaluate the lungs for conditions such as **pneumonia**, **bronchitis**, or other respiratory pathologies. - While the patient has a nonproductive cough, the predominant systemic symptoms (fever, fatigue, lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly) point towards a systemic viral infection rather than primarily a lung issue that would be definitively diagnosed by a chest X-ray.

Oncogenic viruses US Medical PG Question 9: A 20-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of severe malaise, fevers, and sore throat for the past 7 days. He also has had episodes of nausea and vomiting during this period. He does not smoke or drink alcohol. There is no family history of liver disease. His blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg, temperature is 38.3℃ (100.9℉), pulse is 102/min, and respiratory rate is 20/min. On physical examination, he appears ill with bilateral cervical lymphadenopathy. His tonsils are erythematous and enlarged. There is no jaundice and he is mildly dehydrated. Abdominal examination demonstrates splenomegaly. The laboratory findings are shown below: Hemoglobin 15 g/dL Platelet count 95,000/mm³ Leukocytes 13,500/mm³ Neutrophils 50% Atypical lymphocytes 34% AST 232 U/L ALT 312 U/L ALP 120 U/L GGT 35 U/L Total bilirubin 1.2 mg/dL Direct bilirubin 0.2 mg/dL PT 12 seconds The serologic test for hepatitis A, B, and C, CMV, and leptospirosis are negative. Serology for both serum IgM and IgG antibodies for EBV capsid antigen are positive, but the heterophile antibody test is negative. What is the most likely reason for the negative heterophile test?

• A. Concurrent viral hepatitis A infection
• B. CMV infection
• C. Low specificity
• D. Age of the patient
• E. False negative (Correct Answer)

Oncogenic viruses Explanation: ***False negative*** - The **heterophile antibody test (Monospot test)** has a sensitivity of only **70-92%** for infectious mononucleosis, meaning false negatives occur in **10-25% of cases**. - Heterophile antibodies typically appear **1-2 weeks after symptom onset**, and this patient has been symptomatic for only **7 days**, making it likely the heterophile antibodies have not yet developed to detectable levels. - The positive **EBV IgM and IgG for capsid antigen** confirm acute EBV infection, so the negative heterophile test is a **false negative** result. - False negatives are especially common **early in the course of illness**. *Age of the patient* - Age 20 years is actually within the **peak sensitivity range** for heterophile antibody testing (adolescents and young adults 15-25 years have 85-90% sensitivity). - The heterophile test is **less sensitive in young children (<12 years)**, with sensitivity as low as 30-50% in children under 4 years. - This patient's age would not explain the negative result. *Concurrent viral hepatitis A infection* - Serologic testing for **hepatitis A is negative**, ruling out co-infection. - Hepatitis A co-infection would not cause a false negative heterophile test. *CMV infection* - Serologic testing for **CMV is negative**, and the patient has **positive EBV-specific serology**. - While CMV can cause heterophile-negative mononucleosis syndrome, the confirmed EBV infection makes this irrelevant. *Low specificity* - The heterophile antibody test has **high specificity (95-100%)** for infectious mononucleosis, meaning false positives are rare. - The limitation of the test is its **low sensitivity**, not low specificity, which explains false negatives but doesn't directly answer why this specific test is negative.

Oncogenic viruses US Medical PG Question 10: A group of microbiological investigators is studying bacterial DNA replication in E. coli colonies. While the cells are actively proliferating, the investigators stop the bacterial cell cycle during S phase and isolate an enzyme involved in DNA replication. An assay of the enzyme's exonuclease activity determines that it is active on both intact and demethylated thymine nucleotides. Which of the following enzymes have the investigators most likely isolated?

• A. DNA ligase
• B. Telomerase
• C. Primase
• D. DNA topoisomerase
• E. DNA polymerase I (Correct Answer)

Oncogenic viruses Explanation: ***DNA polymerase I*** - **DNA polymerase I** possesses **5' to 3' exonuclease activity**, which is crucial for removing **RNA primers** (intact nucleotides) laid down by primase during DNA replication. - This 5' to 3' exonuclease activity also allows it to excise damaged DNA, including DNA containing **demethylated thymine nucleotides**. - It also has 3' to 5' exonuclease activity for proofreading. - **Key distinction:** While DNA polymerase III (the main replicative enzyme) only has 3' to 5' exonuclease activity, DNA polymerase I has **both** 3' to 5' and 5' to 3' exonuclease activities, making it essential for primer removal and DNA repair. *DNA ligase* - **DNA ligase** functions to form a **phosphodiester bond** between adjacent nucleotides to seal nicks in the DNA backbone, but it does not have exonuclease activity. - Its primary role is in joining Okazaki fragments and repairing single-strand breaks. *Telomerase* - **Telomerase** is a specialized reverse transcriptase that extends the telomeres at the ends of eukaryotic chromosomes, but is not present in prokaryotes like *E. coli*. - It uses an RNA template to synthesize DNA, and it lacks exonuclease activity. *Primase* - **Primase** is an RNA polymerase that synthesizes short **RNA primers** on the DNA template, providing a starting point for DNA synthesis. - It is involved in synthesizing primers, not in removing or excising nucleotides, and has no exonuclease activity. *DNA topoisomerase* - **DNA topoisomerases** relieve supercoiling in DNA during replication and transcription by cutting and rejoining DNA strands. - While they act on DNA, their function is to manage topological stress, and they do not exhibit exonuclease activity on nucleotides.

Oncogenic viruses Flashcard 1 of 10

Question: What is the cancer risk associated with HPV31?_____

Answer: High

Oncogenic viruses Flashcard 2 of 10

Question: Where is EBV latent?_____

Answer: B cells

Oncogenic viruses Flashcard 3 of 10

Question: Which Herpesvirus is associated with Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma?_____

Answer: EBV

Oncogenic viruses Flashcard 4 of 10

Question: What is the cancer risk associated with HPV6? _____

Answer: Low

Extra Information:    https://onlinemeded.org/spa/microbiology/dna-viruses/acquire?ref=anki 

Oncogenic viruses Flashcard 5 of 10

Question: What do the vaccines for HPV 6, 11, 16, 18, target? _____ of the virus

Answer: Capsid proteins

Extra Information:   Watch Human papillomavirus (Papillomaviridae) [https://dashboard.sketchy.com/study/medical/courses/medical-microbiology/units/medical-microbiology-viruses/videos/medical-microbiology-viruses-dna-viruses-human-papillomavirus-papillomaviridae?utm_source=anki&utm_medium=partnership&utm_campaign=february_update&utm_content=medical] https://onlinemeded.org/spa/pediatrics/vaccinations/acquire?ref=anki 

Oncogenic viruses Flashcard 6 of 10

Question: Which oncogenic microbe is associated with the following cancers?: _____ Cervical and Penile / Anal Carcinoma Head and Neck Cancer

Answer: HPV

Extra Information:  Watch Bladder Cancer & Penile Disorders [https://dashboard.sketchy.com/study/medical/courses/medical-pathophysiology/units/medical-pathophysiology-reproductive-gu/videos/medical-pathophysiology-reproductive-and-gu-male-gu-bladder-cancer-and-penile-disorders?utm_source=anki&utm_medium=partnership&utm_campaign=february_update&utm_content=medical]Watch associated Bootcamp video [https://app.bootcamp.com/med-school/histology/videos/female-reproductive-system?index=13] https://onlinemeded.org/spa/gynecology/cervical-cancer/acquire?ref=anki  

Oncogenic viruses Flashcard 7 of 10

Question: _____ carcinoma is a complication of Epstein-Barr Virus in patients of Asian descent

Answer: Nasopharyngeal

Extra Information:    https://onlinemeded.org/spa/infectious-disease?ref=anki 

Oncogenic viruses Flashcard 8 of 10

Question: What are 4 characteristics of HPV itself? _____

Answer: Non-enveloped (naked), icosahedral, circular, dsDNA virus

Extra Information:   Watch Human papillomavirus (Papillomaviridae) [https://dashboard.sketchy.com/study/medical/courses/medical-microbiology/units/medical-microbiology-viruses/videos/medical-microbiology-viruses-dna-viruses-human-papillomavirus-papillomaviridae?utm_source=anki&utm_medium=partnership&utm_campaign=february_update&utm_content=medical] https://onlinemeded.org/spa/gynecology/cervical-cancer/acquire?ref=anki 

Oncogenic viruses Flashcard 9 of 10

Question: What type of virus is HHV-8? _____

Answer: Double-stranded DNA

Extra Information:    https://onlinemeded.org/spa/infectious-disease?ref=anki 

Oncogenic viruses Flashcard 10 of 10

Question: What virus is nasopharyngeal carcinoma associated with? _____

Answer: Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV)

Extra Information:  https://onlinemeded.org?ref=anki