Biofilm-associated resistance US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice US Medical PG questions for Biofilm-associated resistance. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Biofilm-associated resistance US Medical PG Question 1: A 37-year-old woman with a history of anorectal abscesses complains of pain in the perianal region. Physical examination reveals mild swelling, tenderness, and erythema of the perianal skin. She is prescribed oral ampicillin and asked to return for follow-up. Two days later, the patient presents with a high-grade fever, syncope, and increased swelling. Which of the following would be the most common mechanism of resistance leading to the failure of antibiotic therapy in this patient?
- A. Intrinsic absence of a target site for the drug
- B. Use of an altered metabolic pathway
- C. Production of beta-lactamase enzyme (Correct Answer)
- D. Altered structural target for the drug
- E. Drug efflux pump
Biofilm-associated resistance Explanation: ***Production of beta-lactamase enzyme***
- The patient's symptoms of a rapidly worsening infection despite ampicillin treatment suggest the presence of a **beta-lactamase producing organism**. Ampicillin is a **beta-lactam antibiotic** that is inactivated by these enzymes.
- Anorectal abscesses and rapidly progressing soft tissue infections are often caused by **polymicrobial flora**, including staphylococci and enterococci, many of which can produce **beta-lactamase**.
*Intrinsic absence of a target site for the drug*
- While some bacteria inherently lack the target site for certain drugs (e.g., mycoplasma lacking a cell wall, thus being resistant to beta-lactams), this is less likely to be the **most common mechanism of acquired resistance** leading to treatment failure in a typical perianal infection.
- The rapid progression and failed initial treatment point towards an **acquired mechanism of resistance** rather than an intrinsic one.
*Use of an altered metabolic pathway*
- This mechanism, such as altered **folate synthesis pathways** in resistance to trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, is less common as the primary mechanism for ampicillin resistance.
- Ampicillin's mechanism of action primarily targets the **bacterial cell wall**, not a metabolic pathway in the same way.
*Altered structural target for the drug*
- This involves modifications to the **penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs)**, which are the targets of beta-lactam antibiotics like ampicillin. While a valid mechanism (e.g., in MRSA), the **production of beta-lactamase** is generally a more widespread and common cause of ampicillin failure, especially in infections involving mixed flora from the perianal region.
- Given the abrupt failure of ampicillin, **beta-lactamase inactivation** is a more immediate and common cause than a rapid mutational change in PBPs.
*Drug efflux pump*
- **Efflux pumps** actively remove antibiotics from the bacterial cell, contributing to resistance against various drug classes.
- While efflux pumps can play a role, the dominant mechanism for resistance to **ampicillin** in many common perianal pathogens is the **enzymatic degradation by beta-lactamases**.
Biofilm-associated resistance US Medical PG Question 2: Part of the success of the Streptococcus pyogenes bacterium lies in its ability to evade phagocytosis. Which of the following helps in this evasion?
- A. Streptolysin S
- B. Streptolysin O
- C. Streptokinase
- D. M protein (Correct Answer)
- E. Pyrogenic toxin
Biofilm-associated resistance Explanation: ***M protein***
- The **M protein** is a major virulence factor of *Streptococcus pyogenes* that **inhibits phagocytosis** by binding to factor H, a host complement regulatory protein, preventing C3b deposition.
- It also helps the bacterium adhere to host cells and resist killing by neutrophils.
*Streptolysin S*
- **Streptolysin S** is a **hemolysin** that causes beta-hemolysis on blood agar and contributes to tissue damage by lysing cells.
- While contributing to virulence, its primary role is not direct inhibition of phagocytosis but rather cell lysis.
*Streptolysin O*
- **Streptolysin O (SLO)** is another **hemolysin** that produces pore-forming toxins, leading to cell lysis and tissue destruction.
- It is highly antigenic and often used as a diagnostic marker (ASO titer) for past *S. pyogenes* infections, but it does not directly prevent phagocytosis.
*Streptokinase*
- **Streptokinase** is an enzyme that activates plasminogen, leading to the breakdown of fibrin clots, which helps in the **spread of infection** within tissues.
- Its main function is not to evade phagocytosis but rather to facilitate invasion by dissolving blood clots that would typically wall off the infection.
*Pyrogenic toxin*
- **Pyrogenic toxins** (also known as erythrogenic toxins) are superantigens that cause symptoms like fever and rash (e.g., in scarlet fever) by stimulating a massive, non-specific T-cell activation.
- These toxins contribute to the systemic manifestations of infection but do not directly interfere with the process of phagocytosis.
Biofilm-associated resistance US Medical PG Question 3: An investigator is studying the growth of an organism in different media. The organism is inoculated on a petri dish that contains heated sheep blood, vancomycin, nystatin, trimethoprim, and colistin. The resulting growth medium is incubated at 37°C. Numerous small, white colonies are seen after incubation for 48 hours. This organism is most likely to cause which of the following conditions?
- A. Pontiac fever
- B. Pseudomembranous colitis
- C. Hemolytic uremic syndrome
- D. Oral thrush
- E. Gonorrhea (Correct Answer)
Biofilm-associated resistance Explanation: ***Gonorrhea***
- The growth medium described is **Thayer-Martin agar**, a selective medium containing **heated sheep blood** (supplies NAD+), **vancomycin** (inhibits Gram-positives), **colistin** (inhibits Gram-negatives), **nystatin** (inhibits fungi), and **trimethoprim** (inhibits Proteus). This medium is specifically designed for the isolation of *Neisseria gonorrhoeae* from polymicrobial samples.
- *Neisseria gonorrhoeae* typically grows as **small, translucent-to-white colonies** on selective media like Thayer-Martin agar, and incubation at 37°C in CO2 (not explicitly mentioned but often required) for 24-48 hours yields visible growth, causing **gonorrhea**.
*Pontiac fever*
- Pontiac fever is a mild, self-limiting form of **legionellosis**, caused by *Legionella pneumophila*.
- *Legionella* requires a specialized medium such as **buffered charcoal yeast extract (BCYE) agar** for growth, not Thayer-Martin agar.
*Pseudomembranous colitis*
- This condition is caused by **toxin-producing *Clostridioides difficile***, often after antibiotic use.
- *C. difficile* is an obligate anaerobe and requires **anaerobic conditions** and specific selective media (e.g., CCFA agar) for isolation, not Thayer-Martin agar under aerobic conditions.
*Hemolytic uremic syndrome*
- Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) is often caused by **Shiga toxin-producing *Escherichia coli* (STEC)**, particularly O157:H7.
- STEC can be isolated on media like **sorbitol MacConkey agar (SMAC)**, where O157:H7 appears as non-sorbitol fermenting colonies, distinct from the growth seen on Thayer-Martin.
*Oral thrush*
- Oral thrush is caused by *Candida albicans*, a yeast.
- *Candida* would be inhibited by **nystatin** in the Thayer-Martin medium, which is an antifungal agent.
Biofilm-associated resistance US Medical PG Question 4: A 64-year-old female with type 2 diabetes mellitus comes to the physician because of a 1-week history of painful red swelling on her left thigh. Examination shows a 3- x 4-cm, tender, fluctuant mass. Incision and drainage of the abscess are performed. Culture of the abscess fluid grows gram-positive, coagulase-positive cocci that are resistant to oxacillin. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of resistance of the causal organism to oxacillin?
- A. Degradation of the antibiotic
- B. Decreased uptake of the antibiotic
- C. Decreased activation of the antibiotic
- D. Altered target of the antibiotic (Correct Answer)
- E. Acetylation of the antibiotic
Biofilm-associated resistance Explanation: ***Altered target of the antibiotic***
- The organism described (gram-positive, coagulase-positive cocci, oxacillin-resistant) is **methicillin-resistant *Staphylococcus aureus* (MRSA)**.
- MRSA achieves oxacillin (and other beta-lactam) resistance by acquiring the ***mecA* gene**, which encodes for a **modified penicillin-binding protein (PBP2a)** with reduced affinity for beta-lactam antibiotics.
*Degradation of the antibiotic*
- This mechanism, primarily through the production of **beta-lactamase enzymes**, can degrade beta-lactam antibiotics.
- While *Staphylococcus aureus* can produce beta-lactamases, oxacillin (a **penicillinase-resistant penicillin**) is specifically engineered to be stable against these enzymes.
*Decreased uptake of the antibiotic*
- Reduced permeability of the bacterial cell wall can lead to decreased uptake, a mechanism more commonly associated with **gram-negative bacteria** due to their outer membrane.
- This is not the primary mechanism of resistance for MRSA to oxacillin.
*Decreased activation of the antibiotic*
- Some antibiotics are prodrugs that require activation by bacterial enzymes, and resistance can arise from mutations affecting this activation.
- Oxacillin is active in its administered form and does not require bacterial activation.
*Acetylation of the antibiotic*
- **Enzymatic modification**, such as acetylation, adenylylation, or phosphorylation, is a common mechanism of resistance, particularly against **aminoglycoside antibiotics**.
- This specific mechanism is not responsible for oxacillin resistance in MRSA.
Biofilm-associated resistance US Medical PG Question 5: A 47-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 6-week history of fatigue and low-grade fever. She has no history of serious illness except for a bicuspid aortic valve, diagnosed 10 years ago. She does not use illicit drugs. Her temperature is 37.7°C (99.9°F). Physical examination shows petechiae under the fingernails and multiple tender, red nodules on the fingers. A new grade 2/6 diastolic murmur is heard at the right second intercostal space. Which of the following is the most likely causal organism?
- A. Staphylococcus epidermidis
- B. Streptococcus pyogenes
- C. Streptococcus sanguinis (Correct Answer)
- D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
- E. Enterococcus faecalis
Biofilm-associated resistance Explanation: ***Streptococcus sanguinis***
- The patient's presentation with **fatigue, low-grade fever, petechiae, tender nodules (Osler nodes)**, and a **new diastolic murmur** in a patient with a **bicuspid aortic valve** is highly suggestive of **infective endocarditis**.
- **Streptococcus sanguinis** (and other viridans streptococci) are common causes of subacute bacterial endocarditis, often associated with **oral flora** and pre-existing valvular heart disease.
*Staphylococcus epidermidis*
- This organism is a common cause of **prosthetic valve endocarditis** and **nosocomial infections** but is less likely to cause endocarditis in a native valve without a history of recent surgery or intravenous lines.
- While it can cause endocarditis, the clinical features here, especially the lack of recent medical interventions, point away from *S. epidermidis* as the primary cause.
*Streptococcus pyogenes*
- **Streptococcus pyogenes** is primarily known for causing **strep throat, scarlet fever, and rheumatic fever**, which can lead to rheumatic heart disease but rarely causes acute or subacute infective endocarditis directly.
- It typically causes more acute and severe infections, which doesn't align with the 6-week history of low-grade fever and fatigue.
*Streptococcus pneumoniae*
- **Streptococcus pneumoniae** is a common cause of **pneumonia, meningitis, and otitis media** but is an uncommon cause of infective endocarditis, accounting for a very small percentage of cases.
- Endocarditis due to *S. pneumoniae* tends to be **acute and fulminant**, often associated with severe systemic illness, which is not fully consistent with the subacute presentation here.
*Enterococcus faecalis*
- **Enterococcus faecalis** is a common cause of **nosocomial urinary tract infections** and can cause endocarditis, especially in older patients or those with gastrointestinal or genitourinary procedures.
- While it's a possibility for endocarditis, the oral flora association with viridans streptococci (like *S. sanguinis*) in the context of a bicuspid aortic valve makes it a more direct fit.
Biofilm-associated resistance US Medical PG Question 6: A 65-year-old woman undergoes an abdominal hysterectomy. She develops pain and discharge at the incision site on the fourth postoperative day. The past medical history is significant for diabetes of 12 years duration, which is well-controlled on insulin. Pus from the incision site is sent for culture on MacConkey agar, which shows white-colorless colonies. On blood agar, the colonies were green. Biochemical tests reveal an oxidase-positive organism. Which of the following is the most likely pathogen?
- A. Staphylococcus aureus
- B. Enterococcus faecalis
- C. Streptococcus pyogenes
- D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa (Correct Answer)
- E. Staphylococcus epidermidis
Biofilm-associated resistance Explanation: ***Pseudomonas aeruginosa***
- The combination of **white, colorless colonies on MacConkey agar** (indicating a non-lactose fermenter), **green colonies on blood agar** (due to pigment production), and a **positive oxidase test** is highly characteristic of *Pseudomonas aeruginosa*.
- This organism is a common cause of **nosocomial infections**, particularly in immunocompromised patients (like those with diabetes) and in postoperative wound infections.
*Staphylococcus aureus*
- This bacterium would typically produce **golden-yellow colonies** on blood agar and **no growth on MacConkey agar**.
- It is **oxidase-negative** and a common cause of surgical site infections, but its colonial morphology and biochemical tests do not match the description.
*Enterococcus faecalis*
- This organism is a **Gram-positive coccus** that would not grow well on MacConkey agar and would not produce green colonies on blood agar or be oxidase-positive.
- It is a common cause of urinary tract and wound infections, especially in hospitalized patients.
*Streptococcus pyogenes*
- This is a **beta-hemolytic Streptococcus** that typically produces small, clear colonies with a zone of complete hemolysis on blood agar and would not grow on MacConkey agar.
- It is also **oxidase-negative**, making it inconsistent with the findings.
*Staphylococcus epidermidis*
- This organism forms **white colonies** on blood agar and would not grow on MacConkey agar or produce green pigment.
- It is **coagulase-negative** and **oxidase-negative**, and while it can cause surgical site infections, its colonial characteristics differ.
Biofilm-associated resistance US Medical PG Question 7: Blood cultures are sent to the laboratory. Intravenous antibiotic therapy is started. Transesophageal echocardiography shows a large, oscillating vegetation attached to the tricuspid valve. There are multiple small vegetations attached to tips of the tricuspid valve leaflets. There is moderate tricuspid regurgitation. The left side of the heart and the ejection fraction are normal. Which of the following is the most likely causal organism of this patient's condition?
- A. Streptococcus sanguinis
- B. Staphylococcus aureus (Correct Answer)
- C. Enterococcus faecalis
- D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
- E. Staphylococcus epidermidis
Biofilm-associated resistance Explanation: ***Staphylococcus aureus***
- **_Staphylococcus aureus_** is the most common cause of **acute infective endocarditis**, particularly in intravenous drug users, which often affects the **tricuspid valve**.
- The presence of large, oscillating vegetations and **multiple small vegetations** on the tricuspid valve strongly suggests an aggressive infection, typical of _S. aureus_.
*Streptococcus sanguinis*
- _Streptococcus sanguinis_ is a common cause of **subacute infective endocarditis** in patients with pre-existing valvular disease but rarely causes acute, aggressive right-sided endocarditis.
- It's typically associated with **dental procedures** and usually affects the left side of the heart.
*Enterococcus faecalis*
- _Enterococcus faecalis_ can cause endocarditis, often associated with **genitourinary or gastrointestinal procedures**, and typically affects older men.
- While it can cause virulent endocarditis, it is less commonly associated with acute right-sided disease in this demographic compared to _S. aureus_.
*Neisseria gonorrhoeae*
- **_Neisseria gonorrhoeae_** is a rare cause of endocarditis, usually seen in younger, sexually active individuals, and often involves the aortic valve.
- While it can be acute, it is an extremely uncommon cause of **tricuspid valve endocarditis**.
*Staphylococcus epidermidis*
- **_Staphylococcus epidermidis_** is primarily associated with **prosthetic valve endocarditis** or foreign bodies, often presenting as a subacute infection.
- It rarely causes natural valve endocarditis, especially acute right-sided disease in this context.
Biofilm-associated resistance US Medical PG Question 8: While testing various strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae, a researcher discovers that a certain strain of this bacteria is unable to cause disease in mice when deposited in their lungs. What physiological test would most likely deviate from normal in this strain of bacteria as opposed to a typical strain?
- A. Quellung reaction (Correct Answer)
- B. Hemolytic reaction when grown on sheep blood agar
- C. Bile solubility
- D. Optochin sensitivity
- E. Motility
Biofilm-associated resistance Explanation: ***Quellung reaction***
- The **Quellung reaction** tests for the presence of the **polysaccharide capsule**, which is the primary virulence factor of *S. pneumoniae*.
- An **avirulent strain** that cannot cause disease would most likely lack the capsule and show a **negative Quellung reaction** (no capsular swelling), deviating from the **positive reaction** seen in typical encapsulated pathogenic strains.
- The capsule enables *S. pneumoniae* to evade phagocytosis and complement-mediated killing, which is essential for establishing infection in the lungs.
*Hemolytic reaction when grown on sheep blood agar*
- Both virulent and avirulent strains of *S. pneumoniae* typically exhibit **alpha-hemolysis** (partial hemolysis, producing a greenish discoloration) on sheep blood agar due to the production of pneumolysin.
- This characteristic does not differentiate between pathogenic and non-pathogenic strains in terms of disease-causing ability.
*Bile solubility*
- *S. pneumoniae* is characteristically **bile-soluble** due to the presence of autolysin enzymes that are activated by bile salts, leading to cellular lysis.
- This property is a **species characteristic** present in both virulent and avirulent strains, thus it would not explain the inability to cause disease.
*Optochin sensitivity*
- *S. pneumoniae* is universally **sensitive to optochin**, a chemical agent that inhibits its growth and is used for laboratory identification.
- This characteristic is used for **species identification** but does not correlate with strain virulence or disease-causing ability.
*Motility*
- *Streptococcus pneumoniae* is a **non-motile** bacterium; it lacks flagella.
- This characteristic is consistent across all strains and is not a virulence factor for this species.
Biofilm-associated resistance US Medical PG Question 9: A previously healthy 26-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 2-day history of pain with urination. She has been sexually active with two partners over the past year. She uses condoms for contraception. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows suprapubic tenderness. Urinalysis shows neutrophils and a positive nitrite test. Urine culture grows gram-negative, oxidase-negative rods that form greenish colonies on eosin-methylene blue agar. Which of the following virulence factors of the causal organism increases the risk of infection in this patient?
- A. Fimbriae (Correct Answer)
- B. Lecithinase
- C. IgA protease
- D. Biofilm production
- E. Lipoteichoic acid
Biofilm-associated resistance Explanation: ***Fimbriae***
- The patient's symptoms (dysuria, suprapubic tenderness), urinalysis findings (neutrophils, positive nitrite), and culture results (gram-negative, oxidase-negative rods, greenish colonies on EMB agar) are highly suggestive of a **urinary tract infection (UTI)** caused by **Escherichia coli**.
- **P-fimbriae (pili)** are crucial virulence factors for *E. coli* in UTIs, enabling the bacteria to **adhere to uroepithelial cells** and colonize the urinary tract.
*Lecithinase*
- **Lecithinase (alpha-toxin)** is a virulence factor primarily associated with bacteria like *Clostridium perfringens*, causing gas gangrene, and some *Bacillus cereus* strains.
- It is not a significant virulence factor for *E. coli* in the context of UTIs.
*IgA protease*
- **IgA protease** is an enzyme produced by bacteria such as *Neisseria gonorrhoeae*, *Neisseria meningitidis*, and *Haemophilus influenzae*.
- It cleaves IgA antibodies, preventing their protective effects at mucosal surfaces, but it is not a primary virulence factor for *E. coli* in UTIs.
*Biofilm production*
- While *E. coli* can form biofilms, particularly in chronic infections or on catheters, **biofilm production** is not the primary mechanism that increases the **initial risk** of acquiring an acute uncomplicated UTI in a healthy individual.
- The *initial* adherence to uroepithelium, facilitated by fimbriae, is key for colonization and infection establishment.
*Lipoteichoic acid*
- **Lipoteichoic acid** is a major component of the cell wall in **Gram-positive bacteria** and contributes to their immune stimulation and adherence properties.
- The causative organism in this case is a **Gram-negative rod**, making lipoteichoic acid an irrelevant virulence factor.
Biofilm-associated resistance US Medical PG Question 10: A medical student is performing research on the properties of viruses in order to determine the transmission patterns of various organisms. He accidentally drops a rack of tubes and spills various virus samples on the benchtop. Upon seeing this, the laboratory technician wipes down the workbench with alcohol in order to clean up the spill. Which of the following organisms would most likely still be alive after this cleaning?
- A. Coronavirus and herpesvirus
- B. Adenovirus and coronavirus
- C. Coronavirus and rhinovirus
- D. Adenovirus and rhinovirus (Correct Answer)
- E. Adenovirus and herpesvirus
Biofilm-associated resistance Explanation: ***Adenovirus and rhinovirus***
- **Adenovirus** and **rhinovirus** are both **non-enveloped viruses**, meaning they lack a lipid envelope.
- Non-enveloped viruses are generally **more resistant** to inactivation by alcohol-based disinfectants because alcohol primarily acts by dissolving lipid envelopes.
*Coronavirus and herpesvirus*
- Both **coronavirus** and **herpesvirus** are **enveloped viruses**.
- **Enveloped viruses** are highly susceptible to destruction by alcohol, which disrupts their lipid envelope.
*Adenovirus and coronavirus*
- While **adenovirus** is non-enveloped and resistant, **coronavirus** is enveloped and thus susceptible to alcohol.
- Therefore, the coronavirus component of this pair would likely be inactivated.
*Coronavirus and rhinovirus*
- While **rhinovirus** is non-enveloped and resistant, **coronavirus** is enveloped and thus susceptible to alcohol.
- As a result, the coronavirus would likely be destroyed by the alcohol.
*Adenovirus and herpesvirus*
- While **adenovirus** is non-enveloped and resistant, **herpesvirus** is enveloped and susceptible to alcohol.
- The herpesvirus would likely be inactivated by the alcohol cleaning.
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