Hand hygiene compliance US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice US Medical PG questions for Hand hygiene compliance. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Hand hygiene compliance US Medical PG Question 1: A multicentric, ambidirectional cohort study (i.e. a study that combines elements of both prospective and retrospective cohort studies) was designed in order to evaluate the relationship between nasal colonization with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) and exposure to patients in intensive-care units of several tertiary hospital centers. The sample included 1,000 physicians who worked in the hospital environment and who willingly underwent swabbing of their nasal vestibule and nasopharynx for active surveillance. Data of their working location was obtained from hospital administrative services. Of those who worked in the intensive care unit, 350 were colonized with MRSA, while 250 were not. Whereas in those that worked in other hospital wards, 100 were colonized with MRSA, and 300 were not. What is the relative risk of MRSA colonization in relation to working in the intensive-care unit?
- A. 3.22
- B. 2.33 (Correct Answer)
- C. 0.43
- D. 1.66
- E. 0.18
Hand hygiene compliance Explanation: ***2.33***
- The relative risk (RR) is calculated as the incidence of the outcome in the exposed group divided by the incidence of the outcome in the unexposed group.
- In this case, the incidence of MRSA colonization in ICU workers is 350 / (350 + 250) = 350 / 600 = 0.5833. The incidence in non-ICU workers is 100 / (100 + 300) = 100 / 400 = 0.25. Therefore, the **RR = 0.5833 / 0.25 = 2.33**.
*3.22*
- This value is obtained if the calculation is performed incorrectly, for example, by misidentifying the exposed and unexposed groups or by incorrectly calculating the incidences.
- It does not reflect the correct ratio of MRSA colonization rates between the two groups.
*0.43*
- This value represents the **inverse of the relative risk** (1/2.33) if the exposed and unexposed groups were swapped in the calculation.
- It would suggest a protective effect of working in the ICU, which is not supported by the data.
*1.66*
- This value is a result of an incorrect calculation of the incidences in either the exposed or unexposed groups.
- It significantly underestimates the actual relative risk of MRSA colonization associated with working in an ICU.
*0.18*
- This value would arise from a substantial error in the calculation, possibly by inverting the incidences or using an inappropriate formula.
- It suggests a **strong protective effect** of ICU exposure, which is contrary to the observed data of higher colonization rates in ICU workers.
Hand hygiene compliance US Medical PG Question 2: A 57-year-old man comes to the physician because of generalized malaise, yellowish discoloration of the eyes, and pruritus on the back of his hands that worsens when exposed to sunlight for the past several months. He has not seen a physician in 15 years. Physical examination shows scleral icterus and mild jaundice. There is a purpuric rash with several small vesicles and hyperpigmented lesions on the dorsum of both hands. The causal pathogen of this patient's underlying condition was most likely acquired in which of the following ways?
- A. Ingestion of raw shellfish
- B. Inhalation of spores
- C. Needlestick injury (Correct Answer)
- D. Bathing in freshwater
- E. Sexual contact
Hand hygiene compliance Explanation: ***Needlestick injury***
- The jaundice, scleral icterus, pruritus, and **purpuric rash worsened by sunlight** (suggesting **Porphyria Cutanea Tarda**) are highly indicative of **chronic Hepatitis C virus infection**.
- **Hepatitis C** is primarily transmitted through **blood-to-blood contact**, with **needlestick injuries** and intravenous drug use being the most common routes.
*Ingestion of raw shellfish*
- **Hepatitis A virus** and **Vibrio vulnificus** can be acquired this way, but they typically cause acute, self-limiting illness or severe sepsis, respectively, not chronic liver disease with porphyria.
- **Hepatitis A** does not lead to chronic hepatitis or the dermatological manifestations described.
*Inhalation of spores*
- **Inhalation of spores** is associated with fungal infections like **histoplasmosis** or **coccidioidomycosis**, which do not typically cause chronic hepatitis, jaundice, pruritus, or porphyria cutanea tarda.
- These infections primarily affect the lungs, though disseminated forms can occur, they do not match the presented symptoms.
*Bathing in freshwater*
- **Bathing in freshwater** can transmit pathogens like **Leptospira** or **Schistosoma**, causing leptospirosis or schistosomiasis, respectively.
- These infections present with different clinical pictures and are not associated with chronic hepatitis, jaundice, or porphyria cutanea tarda.
*Sexual contact*
- While **Hepatitis C** can be transmitted sexually, this route is significantly **less efficient** than blood-to-blood contact.
- **Hepatitis B** is more commonly associated with sexual transmission and can also cause chronic liver disease, but the presence of **Porphyria Cutanea Tarda** is a characteristic extrahepatic manifestation strongly associated with **chronic Hepatitis C infection**.
- Given the clinical presentation, **needlestick injury or intravenous drug use** (blood-borne transmission) is the most likely route of HCV acquisition.
Hand hygiene compliance US Medical PG Question 3: A 25-year-old man comes to the physician for severe back pain. He describes the pain as shooting and stabbing. On a 10-point scale, he rates the pain as a 9 to 10. The pain started after he lifted a heavy box at work; he works at a supermarket and recently switched from being a cashier to a storekeeper. The patient appears to be in severe distress. Vital signs are within normal limits. On physical examination, the spine is nontender without paravertebral muscle spasms. Range of motion is normal. A straight-leg raise test is negative. After the physical examination has been completed, the patient asks for a letter to his employer attesting to his inability to work as a storekeeper. Which of the following is the most appropriate response?
- A. “Yes. Since work may worsen your condition, I would prefer that you stay home a few days. I will write a letter to your employer to explain the situation.”
- B. You say you are in severe pain. However, the physical examination findings do not suggest a physical problem that can be addressed with medications or surgery. I'd like to meet on a regular basis to see how you're doing.
- C. I understand that you are uncomfortable, but the findings do not match the severity of your symptoms. Let's talk about the recent changes at your job. (Correct Answer)
- D. The physical exam findings do not match your symptoms, which suggests a psychological problem. I would be happy to refer you to a mental health professional.
- E. The physical exam findings suggest a psychological rather than a physical problem. But there is a good chance that we can address it with cognitive-behavioral therapy.
Hand hygiene compliance Explanation: ***"I understand that you are uncomfortable, but the findings do not match the severity of your symptoms. Let's talk about the recent changes at your job."***
- This response acknowledges the patient's reported discomfort while gently highlighting the **discrepancy between symptoms and objective findings**, which is crucial in cases of suspected **somatoform or functional pain**.
- It also opens communication about potential **psychosocial stressors** related to his job change, which could be contributing to his symptoms, without dismissing his pain or making a premature diagnosis.
*"You say you are in severe pain. However, the physical examination findings do not suggest a physical problem that can be addressed with medications or surgery. I'd like to meet on a regular basis to see how you're doing."*
- While this option correctly identifies the lack of physical findings, it can be perceived as dismissive of the patient's pain, potentially damaging the **physician-patient relationship**.
- Suggesting regular meetings without a clear plan for addressing his immediate concerns or exploring underlying issues might not be the most effective initial approach.
*“Yes. Since work may worsen your condition, I would prefer that you stay home a few days. I will write a letter to your employer to explain the situation.”*
- This response would **validate the patient's claim of severe pain** without objective evidence, potentially reinforcing illness behavior and avoiding addressing the underlying issue.
- Providing a doctor's note for inability to work without a clear diagnostic basis or understanding of the pain's origin is **medically inappropriate** and could set a precedent for future such requests.
*"The physical exam findings do not match your symptoms, which suggests a psychological problem. I would be happy to refer you to a mental health professional."*
- Directly labeling the problem as "psychological" can be **stigmatizing and alienating** to the patient, leading to distrust and resistance to care.
- While a psychological component might be present, immediately referring to mental health without further exploration of the patient's situation or current stressors is premature and lacks empathy.
*"The physical exam findings suggest a psychological rather than a physical problem. But there is a good chance that we can address it with cognitive-behavioral therapy."*
- Similar to the previous option, explicitly stating a "psychological problem" can be **stigmatizing**.
- Jumping directly to recommending **cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)** without a comprehensive discussion and patient buy-in is premature and may lead to non-compliance.
Hand hygiene compliance US Medical PG Question 4: A 37-year-old man presents to the emergency department after he cut his hand while working on his car. The patient has a past medical history of antisocial personality disorder and has been incarcerated multiple times. His vitals are within normal limits. Physical exam is notable for a man covered in tattoos with many bruises over his face and torso. Inspection of the patient's right hand reveals 2 deep lacerations on the dorsal aspects of the second and third metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joints. The patient is given a tetanus vaccination, and the wound is irrigated. Which of the following is appropriate management for this patient?
- A. Closure of the wound with sutures
- B. Clindamycin and topical erythromycin
- C. Ciprofloxacin and topical erythromycin
- D. Surgical irrigation, debridement, and amoxicillin-clavulanic acid (Correct Answer)
- E. No further management necessary
Hand hygiene compliance Explanation: ***Surgical irrigation, debridement, and amoxicillin-clavulanic acid***
- The presence of deep lacerations over the metacarpophalangeal joints, combined with an injury mechanism suggestive of a **fight bite** (laceration from striking another person's teeth), mandates **aggressive surgical management**.
- **Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid** is the appropriate antibiotic choice for **human bite wounds** due to its broad spectrum covering common oral flora like *Eikenella corrodens*, *Streptococci*, and anaerobes.
*Closure of the wound with sutures*
- **Primary closure** of human bite wounds, especially those on the hand, is strongly **contraindicated** due to the high risk of severe infection.
- These wounds should be left open to drain and heal by **secondary intention** following thorough debridement.
*Clindamycin and topical erythromycin*
- **Clindamycin** has good anaerobic coverage but lacks sufficient coverage for common aerobes found in human bites like *Eikenella corrodens*.
- **Topical erythromycin** is ineffective for deep soft tissue infections and does not provide systemic protection against the likely pathogens.
*Ciprofloxacin and topical erythromycin*
- **Ciprofloxacin** has limited activity against many oral anaerobes and *Eikenella corrodens*, making it a poor choice for human bite prophylaxis.
- As mentioned, **topical antibiotics** are insufficient for preventing serious infections in deep bite wounds.
*No further management necessary*
- This patient has sustained a **deep, contaminated wound** with a high risk of serious infection, potentially involving joints or tendons.
- Failing to provide further management, including surgical exploration and appropriate antibiotics, would likely lead to severe complications such as **osteomyelitis** or **septic arthritis**.
Hand hygiene compliance US Medical PG Question 5: A study is conducted in a hospital to estimate the prevalence of handwashing among healthcare workers. All of the hospital staff members are informed that the study is being conducted for 1 month, and the study method will be a passive observation of their daily routine at the hospital. A total of 89 medical staff members give their consent for the study, and they are followed for a month. This study could most likely suffer from which of the following biases?
- A. Attrition bias
- B. Hawthorne effect (Correct Answer)
- C. Confounding bias
- D. Berksonian bias
- E. Observer-expectancy bias
Hand hygiene compliance Explanation: ***Hawthorne effect***
- This bias occurs when individuals modify their behavior in response to being **observed** or knowing they are part of a study. In this scenario, healthcare workers, knowing they are being observed for handwashing, are likely to wash their hands more frequently than usual.
- The intent of the study is to estimate the **prevalence** of handwashing; however, the observed rates will be artificially inflated due to the subjects' awareness of being studied, leading to an inaccurate estimate.
*Attrition bias*
- **Attrition bias** arises when there is **differential loss to follow-up** between study groups, which can lead to biased results.
- This study design involves observing a defined group for a month, but there's no indication of loss of participants or differential dropout from specific intervention or control groups.
*Confounding bias*
- **Confounding bias** occurs when an unmeasured or uncontrolled factor (a **confounder**) is associated with both the exposure and the outcome, distorting the true association.
- While confounding is a common bias in observational studies, the primary issue described here is the direct impact of observation on behavior, not an unmeasured external variable influencing both the behavior and its measurement.
*Berksonian bias*
- **Berksonian bias** (or admission rate bias) is a type of selection bias that occurs in case-control studies when hospital-based controls or cases are used, and the probability of being admitted to the hospital is influenced by both the exposure and the disease itself.
- This study is a **prevalence study** involving direct observation of healthcare workers, not a case-control study, making Berksonian bias irrelevant.
*Observer-expectancy bias*
- **Observer-expectancy bias** occurs when the **researcher's expectations** or beliefs influence their observations or interpretation of data.
- The scenario describes the participants (healthcare workers) changing their behavior due to being observed, not the observer's expectations influencing the recorded data, which would be the **Hawthorne effect**.
Hand hygiene compliance US Medical PG Question 6: A 63-year-old female recovering from a total shoulder arthroplasty completed 6 days ago presents complaining of joint pain in her repaired shoulder. Temperature is 39 degrees Celsius. Physical examination demonstrates erythema and significant tenderness around the incision site. Wound cultures reveal Gram-positive cocci that are resistant to nafcillin. Which of the following organisms is the most likely cause of this patient's condition?
- A. Streptococcus pyogenes
- B. Escherichia coli
- C. Streptococcus viridans
- D. Staphylococcus epidermidis
- E. Staphylococcus aureus (Correct Answer)
Hand hygiene compliance Explanation: ***Staphylococcus aureus***
- The combination of **post-surgical infection**, **erythema**, and fever with **Gram-positive cocci** that are **nafcillin-resistant** is highly indicative of **Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)**.
- *S. aureus* is a common cause of **surgical site infections**, and its resistance to nafcillin implies it is MRSA, a significant clinical concern for its difficulty in treatment.
*Streptococcus pyogenes*
- While *S. pyogenes* is a Gram-positive coccus that can cause skin and soft tissue infections, it is typically **susceptible to penicillin** and related antibiotics like nafcillin, unlike the organism described.
- It is more commonly associated with **streptococcal pharyngitis** or **cellulitis**, and while it can cause severe disease, its resistance profile doesn't match the clinical picture.
*Escherichia coli*
- *E. coli* is a **Gram-negative rod**, not a Gram-positive coccus.
- It is a common cause of **urinary tract infections** and **gastrointestinal infections**, making it an unlikely pathogen for a post-surgical joint infection unless contaminated from a visceral source.
*Streptococcus viridans*
- **Viridans streptococci** are Gram-positive cocci but are typically associated with **endocarditis** or dental infections, especially after poor dental hygiene or procedures.
- They are usually **susceptible to penicillin** and do not typically exhibit nafcillin resistance as the primary feature in a post-arthroplasty infection.
*Staphylococcus epidermidis*
- *S. epidermidis* is a **coagulase-negative Staphylococcus** known for forming **biofilms on prosthetic devices**, leading to chronic, low-grade infections.
- While it can be nafcillin-resistant, the **acute presentation** with fever and significant inflammation suggests a more virulent pathogen like *S. aureus*, as *S. epidermidis* infections are typically indolent.
Hand hygiene compliance US Medical PG Question 7: A 26-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of a 1-week history of fever, throat pain, and difficulty swallowing. Head and neck examination shows an erythematous pharynx with purulent exudates overlying the palatine tonsils. Microscopic examination of a throat culture shows pink, spherical bacteria arranged in chains. Treatment with amoxicillin is initiated. A day later, a physician colleague from another department approaches the physician in the lobby of the hospital and asks about this patient, saying, "Did you see him? What does he have? He's someone I play football with and he hasn't come to play for the past 5 days. I'm worried about him." Which of the following is the most appropriate action by the physician?
- A. Inform the colleague that they should ask the patient's attending physician
- B. Inform the colleague that they cannot divulge any information about the patient (Correct Answer)
- C. Tell the colleague the patient's case file number so they can look it up themselves
- D. Tell the colleague that they cannot tell them the diagnosis but that their friend was treated with antibiotics
- E. Ask the colleague to meet in the office so they can discuss the patient in private
Hand hygiene compliance Explanation: ***Inform the colleague that they cannot divulge any information about the patient***
- The **Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)** strictly prohibits the disclosure of a patient's **Protected Health Information (PHI)** without their explicit consent.
- Even if the inquirer knows the patient, a physician-patient relationship creates a **duty of confidentiality** that supersedes personal acquaintance.
- Disclosing any information without patient consent, even to another physician, violates HIPAA regulations.
*Tell the colleague the patient's case file number so they can look it up themselves*
- Providing the case file number would enable unauthorized access to the patient's medical records, thereby violating **patient confidentiality** and **HIPAA regulations**.
- This action does not rectify the breach of confidentiality and escalates the potential for further misuse of PHI.
*Inform the colleague that they should ask the patient's attending physician*
- Recommending that the colleague ask the attending physician shifts the burden but does not address the underlying ethical and legal obligation of the current physician to maintain **confidentiality**.
- The attending physician would also be bound by **HIPAA** and ethical guidelines not to disclose information without consent.
*Tell the colleague that they cannot tell them the diagnosis but that their friend was treated with antibiotics*
- While seemingly less specific, stating that the friend was treated with **antibiotics** is still a disclosure of **Protected Health Information (PHI)**.
- This action violates **patient confidentiality** as it reveals a detail of the patient's medical management without consent.
*Ask the colleague to meet in the office so they can discuss the patient in private*
- Moving to a private setting does not negate the fact that discussing the patient's information with an unauthorized individual is a **breach of confidentiality**.
- The location of the conversation does not change the ethical and legal obligations to protect **PHI**.
Hand hygiene compliance US Medical PG Question 8: A 28-year-old male presents to his primary care physician with complaints of intermittent abdominal pain and alternating bouts of constipation and diarrhea. His medical chart is not significant for any past medical problems or prior surgeries. He is not prescribed any current medications. Which of the following questions would be the most useful next question in eliciting further history from this patient?
- A. "Does the diarrhea typically precede the constipation, or vice-versa?"
- B. "Is the diarrhea foul-smelling?"
- C. "Please rate your abdominal pain on a scale of 1-10, with 10 being the worst pain of your life"
- D. "Are the symptoms worse in the morning or at night?"
- E. "Can you tell me more about the symptoms you have been experiencing?" (Correct Answer)
Hand hygiene compliance Explanation: ***Can you tell me more about the symptoms you have been experiencing?***
- This **open-ended question** encourages the patient to provide a **comprehensive narrative** of their symptoms, including details about onset, frequency, duration, alleviating/aggravating factors, and associated symptoms, which is crucial for diagnosis.
- In a patient presenting with vague, intermittent symptoms like alternating constipation and diarrhea, allowing them to elaborate freely can reveal important clues that might not be captured by more targeted questions.
*Does the diarrhea typically precede the constipation, or vice-versa?*
- While knowing the sequence of symptoms can be helpful in understanding the **pattern of bowel dysfunction**, it is a very specific question that might overlook other important aspects of the patient's experience.
- It prematurely narrows the focus without first obtaining a broad understanding of the patient's overall symptomatic picture.
*Is the diarrhea foul-smelling?*
- Foul-smelling diarrhea can indicate **malabsorption** or **bacterial overgrowth**, which are important to consider in some gastrointestinal conditions.
- However, this is a **specific symptom inquiry** that should follow a more general exploration of the patient's symptoms, as it may not be relevant if other crucial details are missed.
*Please rate your abdominal pain on a scale of 1-10, with 10 being the worst pain of your life*
- Quantifying pain intensity is useful for assessing the **severity of discomfort** and monitoring changes over time.
- However, for a patient with intermittent rather than acute, severe pain, understanding the **character, location, and triggers** of the pain is often more diagnostically valuable than just a numerical rating initially.
*Are the symptoms worse in the morning or at night?*
- Diurnal variation can be relevant in certain conditions, such as inflammatory bowel diseases where nocturnal symptoms might be more concerning, or functional disorders whose symptoms might be stress-related.
- This is another **specific question** that should come after gathering a more complete initial picture of the patient's symptoms to ensure no key information is overlooked.
Hand hygiene compliance US Medical PG Question 9: A surgical ICU has implemented multiple interventions over 18 months: chlorhexidine bathing, antibiotic stewardship, contact precautions for MRSA, and environmental cleaning protocols. Despite these efforts, MRSA surgical site infection rates remain unchanged at 8 per 1000 surgical procedures. Universal MRSA screening shows 15% of admitted patients are colonized. Evaluate the most effective evidence-based strategy to reduce MRSA SSI rates further.
- A. Targeted decolonization only for MRSA-positive patients with mupirocin and chlorhexidine
- B. Isolation of all surgical patients in private rooms until discharge
- C. Routine screening and decolonization of all healthcare workers
- D. Extended vancomycin prophylaxis for all surgical patients for 48 hours postoperatively
- E. Universal MRSA decolonization for all surgical patients regardless of screening results (Correct Answer)
Hand hygiene compliance Explanation: ***Universal MRSA decolonization for all surgical patients regardless of screening results***
- **Universal decolonization** has been proven more effective than screening-based strategies in high-risk settings like the ICU, significantly reducing **MRSA surgical site infections** and bloodstream infections.
- This approach is superior because it addresses **undetected carriers**, eliminates delays associated with waiting for lab cultures, and is often more **cost-effective** and easier to implement.
*Targeted decolonization only for MRSA-positive patients with mupirocin and chlorhexidine*
- While logical, **targeted decolonization** is less effective than the universal approach because it misses patients who may be **falsely negative** or colonized at levels below detection thresholds.
- Evidence from recent large-scale trials shows that **targeted strategies** do not reduce MRSA infection rates as drastically as treating the entire cohort at risk.
*Isolation of all surgical patients in private rooms until discharge*
- This strategy is **logistically impractical** and extremely expensive, focusing on **containment** rather than the active reduction of the patient's own bacterial load (colonization).
- Research indicates that **contact precautions** and isolation alone are less effective than decolonization protocols in preventing **autoinoculation** during surgery.
*Routine screening and decolonization of all healthcare workers*
- Screening of **healthcare workers (HCWs)** is not recommended as a routine practice; it is typically reserved for **outbreak investigations** where an epidemiological link is suspected.
- Constant recolonization from patients and the environment makes **HCW decolonization** an unsustainable and transient solution for reducing overall SSI rates.
*Extended vancomycin prophylaxis for all surgical patients for 48 hours postoperatively*
- **Extended antibiotic prophylaxis** beyond 24 hours provides no additional protection against SSIs and significantly increases the risk of **C. difficile** and antibiotic resistance.
- Proper surgical prophylaxis involves **timely administration** before the incision, not prolonged courses which violate **antibiotic stewardship** principles.
Hand hygiene compliance US Medical PG Question 10: A 70-year-old man with prosthetic aortic valve develops fever and bacteremia 3 weeks after valve replacement. Blood cultures grow Enterococcus faecium resistant to ampicillin and vancomycin (VRE). Susceptibilities show sensitivity to linezolid and daptomycin. TEE shows a small vegetation on the prosthetic valve. Creatinine is 1.8 mg/dL (baseline 1.0). Evaluate the optimal treatment strategy considering the infection location and drug characteristics.
- A. Combination daptomycin and linezolid (Correct Answer)
- B. Linezolid plus gentamicin for synergy
- C. Daptomycin plus ampicillin despite resistance
- D. Daptomycin monotherapy with high dose (10-12 mg/kg)
- E. Linezolid monotherapy for 6 weeks
Hand hygiene compliance Explanation: ***Combination daptomycin and linezolid***
- For **VRE prosthetic valve endocarditis (PVE)**, monotherapy often fails due to high bacterial inoculum and **biofilm formation**, necessitating synergistic combinations.
- **Daptomycin** provides bactericidal activity, while **linezolid** enhances biofilm penetration; this combination is a salvage strategy to prevent the emergence of **daptomycin resistance** during prolonged therapy.
*Linezolid plus gentamicin for synergy*
- **Gentamicin** synergy is typically reserved for **ampicillin-susceptible** enterococci and requires a cell-wall active agent to facilitate entry, which linezolid (protein synthesis inhibitor) does not provide.
- The patient has an elevated **creatinine (1.8 mg/dL)**, making the use of **nephrotoxic aminoglycosides** like gentamicin highly risky and suboptimal.
*Daptomycin plus ampicillin despite resistance*
- While **ampicillin** can sometimes enhance daptomycin binding by reducing the net negative surface charge of the bacteria, it is generally less effective when high-level **ampicillin resistance** is already confirmed in *E. faecium*.
- This strategy is typically considered when other secondary agents are unavailable or contraindicated, but it is not superior to linezolid-based combinations in VRE endocarditis.
*Daptomycin monotherapy with high dose (10-12 mg/kg)*
- High-dose **daptomycin (10-12 mg/kg)** is recommended for endocarditis, but monotherapy for **prosthetic valve** infections carries a high risk of treatment failure.
- *Enterococcus faecium* can rapidly develop **resistance** (via the LiaFSR system) during daptomycin monotherapy, making a second agent necessary for such a high-burden infection.
*Linezolid monotherapy for 6 weeks*
- **Linezolid** is primarily **bacteriostatic** against enterococci, which is generally insufficient for the definitive treatment of **infective endocarditis** where bactericidal activity is required.
- Long-term use (over 2 weeks) carries significant risks of **bone marrow suppression** (thrombocytopenia) and **mitochondrial toxicity**, making it unsafe as a sole agent for a 6-week course.
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