ESBL and CRE pathogens US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice US Medical PG questions for ESBL and CRE pathogens. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
ESBL and CRE pathogens US Medical PG Question 1: An investigator is studying the chemical structure of antibiotics and its effect on bacterial growth. He has synthesized a simple beta-lactam antibiotic and has added a bulky side chain to the molecule that inhibits the access of bacterial enzymes to the beta-lactam ring. The synthesized drug will most likely be appropriate for the treatment of which of the following conditions?
- A. Folliculitis (Correct Answer)
- B. Nocardiosis
- C. Atypical pneumonia
- D. Erythema migrans
- E. Otitis media
ESBL and CRE pathogens Explanation: ***Folliculitis***
- The bulky side chain provides **steric hindrance** that prevents **staphylococcal beta-lactamases** from accessing and degrading the **beta-lactam ring**.
- This modification creates an **anti-staphylococcal penicillin** (similar to methicillin, nafcillin, or oxacillin), which is effective against **methicillin-sensitive *Staphylococcus aureus* (MSSA)**.
- **Folliculitis** is most commonly caused by *S. aureus*, making this modified beta-lactam an appropriate treatment choice for MSSA-related folliculitis.
- The bulky side chain specifically protects against the **penicillinase** (beta-lactamase) produced by staphylococci.
*Otitis media*
- Otitis media is commonly caused by beta-lactamase-producing organisms like *Haemophilus influenzae* and *Moraxella catarrhalis*.
- However, the beta-lactamases produced by these gram-negative organisms are **not inhibited by bulky side chains** alone.
- Treatment of beta-lactamase-producing *H. influenzae* and *M. catarrhalis* requires **beta-lactamase inhibitors** (such as clavulanic acid combined with amoxicillin), not steric hindrance.
- The mechanism of protection differs: beta-lactamase inhibitors **suicide inhibitors** that bind to the enzyme, whereas bulky side chains provide **physical blocking**.
*Nocardiosis*
- Nocardiosis is caused by *Nocardia* species, which are **aerobic actinomycetes**.
- These bacteria are typically treated with **sulfonamides** (trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole) for prolonged periods.
- Beta-lactam antibiotics are generally not first-line treatment, as *Nocardia* species often show intrinsic resistance or require specific antibiotic combinations.
*Atypical pneumonia*
- Atypical pneumonia is caused by organisms like *Mycoplasma pneumoniae*, *Chlamydophila pneumoniae*, and *Legionella pneumophila*.
- These organisms lack a **peptidoglycan cell wall**, which is the target of all **beta-lactam antibiotics**.
- Beta-lactams (regardless of modifications) are completely ineffective against atypical pneumonia pathogens.
- Treatment requires **macrolides** (azithromycin), **tetracyclines** (doxycycline), or **fluoroquinolones**.
*Erythema migrans*
- Erythema migrans is the characteristic rash of early **Lyme disease**, caused by *Borrelia burgdorferi*.
- While *Borrelia* is sensitive to certain beta-lactam antibiotics (amoxicillin, ceftriaxone), it does **not produce beta-lactamases**.
- The bulky side chain modification is unnecessary for treating *Borreria* infections, as there is no beta-lactamase to protect against.
- Standard treatment uses doxycycline, amoxicillin, or ceftriaxone—not anti-staphylococcal penicillins.
ESBL and CRE pathogens US Medical PG Question 2: A 24-year-old woman presents to the ED with symptoms of pelvic inflammatory disease despite being previously treated with azithromycin for chlamydial infection. Based on your clinical understanding about the epidemiology of PID, you decide to obtain a gram stain which shows a gram-negative diplococci. What is the next step in order to confirm the identity of the organism described?
- A. Perform an RT-PCR
- B. Culture in TCBS agar
- C. Culture in Thayer-Martin media (Correct Answer)
- D. Obtain an acid fast stain
- E. Culture in Bordet-Gengou agar
ESBL and CRE pathogens Explanation: ***Culture in Thayer-Martin media***
- The presence of **gram-negative diplococci** in a patient with PID symptoms strongly suggests *Neisseria gonorrhoeae*.
- **Thayer-Martin media** is a selective **agar** specifically designed for the isolation and identification of *Neisseria* species, including *N. gonorrhoeae*, by inhibiting the growth of most commensal bacteria and fungi.
*Perform an RT-PCR*
- While **RT-PCR** can detect *Neisseria gonorrhoeae* nucleic acids, it is primarily used for **molecular diagnosis** and not directly for confirming the identity of a cultured organism visualized on gram stain.
- **RT-PCR** is generally used for direct detection from clinical samples and is particularly useful in situations where culture is difficult or unavailable.
*Culture in TCBS agar*
- **TCBS (Thiosulfate Citrate Bile Salts Sucrose) agar** is a selective medium primarily used for the isolation of *Vibrio* species, which are not typically associated with pelvic inflammatory disease or characterized as gram-negative diplococci.
- This medium is designed to differentiate between different *Vibrio* species based on sucrose fermentation.
*Obtain an acid fast stain*
- An **acid-fast stain** (e.g., Ziehl-Neelsen stain) is used to identify bacteria with a **waxy cell wall**, such as *Mycobacterium* species (e.g., *Mycobacterium tuberculosis*).
- *Neisseria gonorrhoeae* is not acid-fast, and this stain would not be appropriate for its identification.
*Culture in Bordet-Gengou agar*
- **Bordet-Gengou agar** is a specialized culture medium used for the isolation of *Bordetella pertussis*, the causative agent of whooping cough.
- This medium is not suitable for the isolation of *Neisseria gonorrhoeae*.
ESBL and CRE pathogens US Medical PG Question 3: Three days after admission to the hospital following a motor vehicle accident, a 45-year-old woman develops a fever. A central venous catheter was placed on the day of admission for treatment of severe hypotension. Her temperature is 39.2°C (102.5°F). Examination shows erythema surrounding the catheter insertion site at the right internal jugular vein. Blood cultures show gram-positive, catalase-positive cocci that have a high minimum inhibitory concentration when exposed to novobiocin. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
- A. Clarithromycin
- B. Vancomycin (Correct Answer)
- C. Metronidazole
- D. Penicillin G
- E. Polymyxin B
ESBL and CRE pathogens Explanation: ***Vancomycin***
- The description of **gram-positive, catalase-positive cocci** that are **novobiocin-resistant** (high MIC) strongly points to **Staphylococcus epidermidis** or other coagulase-negative staphylococci. *S. epidermidis* is the most common cause of **catheter-related bloodstream infections** and is often **methicillin-resistant**, making **vancomycin** the drug of choice.
- The presence of erythema at the catheter site and fever in a patient with a central venous catheter indicates a **central line-associated bloodstream infection (CLABSI)**, for which empiric coverage with vancomycin is standard until sensitivities are known.
- The novobiocin resistance test helps differentiate *S. epidermidis* (resistant) from *S. saprophyticus* (sensitive).
*Clarithromycin*
- **Clarithromycin** is a macrolide antibiotic primarily used for respiratory tract infections and *Mycobacterium avium complex*.
- It is **not effective** against methicillin-resistant staphylococci and would not be appropriate for a suspected CLABSI.
*Metronidazole*
- **Metronidazole** is an antibiotic mainly used for **anaerobic bacterial infections** and certain parasitic infections.
- It has **no activity** against gram-positive cocci like staphylococci.
*Penicillin G*
- **Penicillin G** is a narrow-spectrum penicillin effective against some gram-positive cocci, like **Streptococcus pyogenes**.
- However, virtually all staphylococci, especially those causing hospital-acquired infections, are **resistant to penicillin G** due to beta-lactamase (penicillinase) production.
*Polymyxin B*
- **Polymyxin B** is an antibiotic primarily effective against **gram-negative bacteria**, particularly those with multi-drug resistance such as **Pseudomonas aeruginosa** and **Acinetobacter baumannii**.
- It has **no significant activity** against gram-positive cocci like staphylococci.
ESBL and CRE pathogens US Medical PG Question 4: A scientist is studying the mechanisms by which bacteria become resistant to antibiotics. She begins by obtaining a culture of vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus faecalis and conducts replicate plating experiments. In these experiments, colonies are inoculated onto a membrane and smeared on 2 separate plates, 1 containing vancomycin and the other with no antibiotics. She finds that all of the bacterial colonies are vancomycin resistant because they grow on both plates. She then maintains the bacteria in liquid culture without vancomycin while she performs her other studies. Fifteen generations of bacteria later, she conducts replicate plating experiments again and finds that 20% of the colonies are now sensitive to vancomycin. Which of the following mechanisms is the most likely explanation for why these colonies have become vancomycin sensitive?
- A. Point mutation
- B. Gain of function mutation
- C. Viral infection
- D. Plasmid loss (Correct Answer)
- E. Loss of function mutation
ESBL and CRE pathogens Explanation: ***Plasmid loss***
- The initial **vancomycin resistance** in *Enterococcus faecalis* is often mediated by genes located on **plasmids**, which are extrachromosomal DNA.
- In the absence of selective pressure (vancomycin), bacteria that lose the plasmid (and thus the resistance genes) have a **growth advantage** over those that retain the energetically costly plasmid, leading to an increase in sensitive colonies over generations.
*Point mutation*
- A **point mutation** typically involves a change in a single nucleotide and could lead to loss of resistance if it occurred in a gene conferring resistance.
- However, since there was no selective pressure for loss of resistance, it is less likely that 20% of the population would acquire such a specific point mutation to revert resistance.
*Gain of function mutation*
- A **gain of function mutation** would imply that the bacteria acquired a *new* advantageous trait, not the *loss* of resistance.
- This type of mutation would not explain why some colonies became sensitive to vancomycin after the drug was removed.
*Viral infection*
- **Viral infection** (bacteriophages) can transfer genes through transduction or cause bacterial lysis, but it's not the primary mechanism for a widespread reversion of resistance in the absence of antibiotic pressure.
- It would not explain the observed increase in vancomycin-sensitive colonies due to evolutionary pressure.
*Loss of function mutation*
- While a **loss of function mutation** in a gene conferring resistance could lead to sensitivity, it's generally less likely to explain a 20% shift without selective pressure than **plasmid loss**.
- Plasmids are often unstable and are easily lost in the absence of selection, whereas a specific gene mutation causing loss of function would need to arise and become prevalent in the population.
ESBL and CRE pathogens US Medical PG Question 5: A 59-year-old man presents to the emergency room for a fever that has persisted for over 4 days. In addition, he has been experiencing weakness and malaise. His past medical history is significant for a bicuspid aortic valve that was replaced 2 years ago. Physical exam reveals nailbed splinter hemorrhages, tender nodules on his fingers, and retinal hemorrhages. An echocardiogram shows aortic valve vegetations and culture reveals a gram-positive alpha-hemolytic organism that grows as cocci in chains. The organism is then exposed to optochin and found to be resistant. Finally, they are seen to ferment sorbitol. The most likely cause of this patient's symptoms is associated with which of the following?
- A. Pneumonia
- B. Colon cancer
- C. IV drug use
- D. Dental procedures (Correct Answer)
- E. Sexual activity
ESBL and CRE pathogens Explanation: ***Dental procedures***
- The patient's presentation with **infective endocarditis** (fever, weakness, malaise, splinter hemorrhages, Osler nodes [tender nodules], Roth spots [retinal hemorrhages], and valve vegetations) is caused by a gram-positive alpha-hemolytic, optochin-resistant, sorbitol-fermenting coccus in chains.
- These microbiologic characteristics identify **viridans group streptococci** (such as *Streptococcus mutans* or *S. sanguinis*), which are **normal oral flora**.
- The patient's **prosthetic aortic valve** makes him particularly susceptible to endocarditis, and **dental procedures** can introduce these oral bacteria into the bloodstream, leading to bacteremia and valve seeding.
- This is why patients with prosthetic valves require **antibiotic prophylaxis** before dental procedures.
*Pneumonia*
- While pneumonia can cause fever and malaise, it doesn't lead to the characteristic peripheral stigmata of **endocarditis** like splinter hemorrhages, Osler nodes, or Roth spots, nor valve vegetations.
- The organism isolated (alpha-hemolytic, optochin-resistant viridans streptococci) is normal oral flora, not a typical cause of pneumonia.
*Colon cancer*
- **Colon cancer** is strongly associated with endocarditis caused by ***Streptococcus gallolyticus* (formerly *S. bovis* biotype I)**.
- However, the microbiologic description in this case (particularly optochin resistance and sorbitol fermentation) identifies **viridans streptococci**, not *S. gallolyticus*.
- If this were *S. gallolyticus* endocarditis, colonoscopy would be indicated to screen for colorectal malignancy.
*IV drug use*
- **IV drug use** is a major risk factor for **right-sided endocarditis**, particularly involving the **tricuspid valve**, typically caused by ***Staphylococcus aureus***.
- This patient has **left-sided** (aortic) **prosthetic valve endocarditis** caused by viridans streptococci, which is not the typical pattern for IV drug use.
*Sexual activity*
- **Sexual activity** is not a risk factor for **infective endocarditis** caused by viridans streptococci.
- While certain sexually transmitted pathogens can rarely cause systemic complications, they do not predispose to endocarditis with oral flora organisms.
ESBL and CRE pathogens US Medical PG Question 6: You are treating a neonate with meningitis using ampicillin and a second antibiotic, X, that is known to cause ototoxicity. What is the mechanism of antibiotic X?
- A. It binds the 50S ribosomal subunit and inhibits formation of the initiation complex
- B. It binds the 30S ribosomal subunit and inhibits formation of the initiation complex (Correct Answer)
- C. It binds the 30S ribosomal subunit and reversibly inhibits translocation
- D. It binds the 50S ribosomal subunit and inhibits peptidyltransferase
- E. It binds the 50S ribosomal subunit and reversibly inhibits translocation
ESBL and CRE pathogens Explanation: ***It binds the 30s ribosomal subunit and inhibits formation of the initiation complex***
- The second antibiotic, X, is likely an **aminoglycoside**, such as **gentamicin** or **amikacin**, which are commonly used in combination with ampicillin for neonatal meningitis and are known to cause ototoxicity.
- Aminoglycosides exert their bactericidal effect by **irreversibly binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit**, thereby **inhibiting the formation of the initiation complex** and leading to misreading of mRNA.
*It binds the 50S ribosomal subunit and inhibits formation of the initiation complex*
- This mechanism is characteristic of **linezolid**, which targets the 50S ribosomal subunit to prevent the formation of the initiation complex.
- While linezolid can cause side effects, **ototoxicity** is less commonly associated with it compared to aminoglycosides, and it is not a primary drug for neonatal meningitis alongside ampicillin.
*It binds the 50S ribosomal subunit and inhibits peptidyltransferase*
- This is the mechanism of action for **chloramphenicol**, which inhibits **peptidyltransferase** activity on the 50S ribosomal subunit, preventing peptide bond formation.
- Although chloramphenicol can cause **ototoxicity** and **aplastic anemia**, its use in neonates is limited due to the risk of **Gray Baby Syndrome**.
*It binds the 30s ribosomal subunit and reversibly inhibits translocation*
- This describes the mechanism of action of **tetracyclines**, which reversibly bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit and prevent the attachment of aminoacyl-tRNA, thereby inhibiting protein synthesis.
- Tetracyclines are **contraindicated in neonates** due to their potential to cause **tooth discoloration** and **bone growth inhibition**, and ototoxicity is not their primary adverse effect.
*It binds the 50s ribosomal subunit and reversibly inhibits translocation*
- This mechanism of reversibly inhibiting translocation by binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit is characteristic of **macrolides** (e.g., erythromycin, azithromycin) and **clindamycin**.
- While some macrolides can cause **transient ototoxicity**, they are not typically the second antibiotic of choice for neonatal meningitis in combination with ampicillin, and clindamycin's side effect profile is different.
ESBL and CRE pathogens US Medical PG Question 7: An investigator is studying a strain of bacteria that retains a blue color after crystal violet dye and acetone are applied. The bacteria are inoculated in a petri dish containing hypotonic saline. After the addition of an antibiotic, the bacteria swell and rupture. This antibiotic most likely belongs to which of the following classes?
- A. Macrolide
- B. Cephalosporin (Correct Answer)
- C. Sulfonamide
- D. Fluoroquinolone
- E. Tetracycline
ESBL and CRE pathogens Explanation: ***Cephalosporin***
- This scenario describes a **Gram-positive bacterium** (retains blue color) which, after antibiotic treatment, swells and lyses in a hypotonic solution. This indicates a defect in the **peptidoglycan cell wall**.
- **Cephalosporins** are **β-lactam antibiotics** that inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis by interfering with **peptidoglycan cross-linking**, leading to osmotic lysis in hypotonic environments.
*Macrolide*
- Macrolides like **azithromycin** and **erythromycin** inhibit bacterial **protein synthesis** by binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit.
- They do not directly target the cell wall, so they would not cause immediate osmotic lysis in this manner.
*Sulfonamide*
- Sulfonamides inhibit bacterial **folic acid synthesis** by acting as a competitive inhibitor of dihydropteroate synthase, disrupting DNA and RNA production.
- Their mechanism of action does not involve direct cell wall disruption or osmotic lysis.
*Fluoroquinolone*
- Fluoroquinolones interfere with bacterial **DNA replication and transcription** by inhibiting **DNA gyrase** and **topoisomerase IV**.
- This class of antibiotics does not primarily target the cell wall, and therefore would not lead to prompt osmotic swelling and rupture.
*Tetracycline*
- Tetracyclines inhibit bacterial **protein synthesis** by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit, preventing the attachment of aminoacyl-tRNA.
- They do not affect the cell wall, so they would not cause the observed osmotic lysis.
ESBL and CRE pathogens US Medical PG Question 8: A 23-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 2-day history of profuse watery diarrhea and abdominal cramps. Four days ago, he returned from a backpacking trip across Southeast Asia. Physical examination shows dry mucous membranes and decreased skin turgor. Stool culture shows gram-negative, oxidase-positive, curved rods that have a single polar flagellum. The pathogen responsible for this patient's condition most likely has which of the following characteristics?
- A. Acts by activation of guanylate cyclase
- B. Forms spores in unfavorable environment
- C. Grows well in medium with pH of 9 (Correct Answer)
- D. Infection commonly precedes Guillain-Barré syndrome
- E. Causes necrosis of Peyer patches of distal ileum
ESBL and CRE pathogens Explanation: ***Grows well in medium with pH of 9***
- The clinical presentation with **profuse watery diarrhea** after travel to Southeast Asia, along with the finding of **gram-negative, oxidase-positive, curved rods** with a **single polar flagellum**, is highly suggestive of **_Vibrio cholerae_**.
- _Vibrio cholerae_ is known for its ability to **grow well in alkaline environments**, such as a medium with a pH of 9, which distinguishes it from many other enteric pathogens.
*Acts by activation of guanylate cyclase*
- This mechanism of action is characteristic of **heat-stable enterotoxins (ST)** produced by **enterotoxigenic _Escherichia coli_ (ETEC)**, which cause traveler's diarrhea.
- While ETEC can cause watery diarrhea, _Vibrio cholerae_ primarily acts by activating **adenylate cyclase** through its cholera toxin, not guanylate cyclase.
*Forms spores in unfavorable environment*
- The ability to form **spores** is a characteristic feature of certain **Gram-positive bacteria**, notably _Bacillus_ and _Clostridium_ species.
- **Gram-negative rods** like _Vibrio cholerae_ do not form spores as a survival mechanism in unfavorable conditions.
*Infection commonly precedes Guillain-Barré syndrome*
- **_Campylobacter jejuni_** infection is a well-known precursor to **Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS)** due to molecular mimicry between _Campylobacter_ lipo-oligosaccharides and gangliosides in peripheral nerves.
- While _Campylobacter_ can cause watery diarrhea and is a curved rod, the description of **profuse watery diarrhea** and good growth in alkaline conditions points more strongly to _Vibrio cholerae_ rather than _Campylobacter_.
*Causes necrosis of Peyer patches of distal ileum*
- **Necrosis of Peyer patches** in the distal ileum is a characteristic pathological feature of **typhoid fever**, caused by **_Salmonella Typhi_**.
- The presentation of **profuse watery diarrhea** and the microbiological description do not align with typhoid fever, which typically presents with fever, malaise, and constipation or pea-soup diarrhea.
ESBL and CRE pathogens US Medical PG Question 9: An 83-year-old male presents to the emergency department with altered mental status. The patient’s vitals signs are as follows: temperature is 100.7 deg F (38.2 deg C), blood pressure is 143/68 mmHg, heart rate is 102/min, and respirations are 22/min. The caretaker states that the patient is usually incontinent of urine, but she has not seen any soiled adult diapers in the past 48 hours. A foley catheter is placed with immediate return of a large volume of cloudy, pink urine. Which of the following correctly explains the expected findings from this patient’s dipstick urinalysis?
- A. Detection of an enzyme produced by white blood cells
- B. Detection of urinary nitrate conversion by gram-negative pathogens (Correct Answer)
- C. Detection of an enzyme produced by red blood cells
- D. Detection of urinary nitrate conversion by gram-positive pathogens
- E. Direct detection of white blood cell surface proteins
ESBL and CRE pathogens Explanation: ***Detection of urinary nitrate conversion by gram-negative pathogens***
- The presence of **nitrites** on a urine dipstick is a highly specific indicator of a **urinary tract infection (UTI)** caused by **gram-negative bacteria**.
- **Gram-negative bacteria** like *E. coli* possess an enzyme, **nitrate reductase**, which converts urinary nitrates (normally present from dietary intake) into nitrites.
- This is the **most specific finding** for gram-negative UTI and directly explains the expected dipstick result in this patient with cloudy urine and clinical signs of infection.
*Detection of an enzyme produced by white blood cells*
- This refers to the detection of **leukocyte esterase**, an enzyme released by neutrophils (white blood cells) in response to infection or inflammation.
- While **leukocyte esterase** would likely be positive in this case of UTI, it is **less specific** than nitrite detection because it can be positive in any inflammatory condition of the urinary tract, not just bacterial infections.
- The **nitrite test** is more specific for identifying **gram-negative bacterial** infections, which are the most common cause of UTIs.
*Detection of an enzyme produced by red blood cells*
- This refers to the detection of **hemoglobin**, which can be indirectly detected by dipstick due to its peroxidase-like activity. While the patient has **pink urine** (indicating hematuria), this finding is less specific for a **bacterial UTI** than nitrites and does not explain the *cause* of the infection.
- Hematuria can be caused by various factors, including irritation from infection, kidney stones, trauma, or malignancy, and doesn't directly point to the type of pathogen.
*Detection of urinary nitrate conversion by gram-positive pathogens*
- **Gram-positive pathogens**, such as *Staphylococcus saprophyticus* or *Enterococcus faecalis*, which can cause UTIs, typically **do not convert urinary nitrates to nitrites** because they lack nitrate reductase enzyme.
- Therefore, a positive nitrite test generally rules out a gram-positive infection as the sole cause of the positive dipstick finding.
*Direct detection of white blood cell surface proteins*
- The dipstick test for **leukocytes** (white blood cells) detects **leukocyte esterase**, an enzyme *released by* neutrophils, not their surface proteins directly.
- While **leukocyte esterase** would likely be positive in this case, a positive **nitrite** test is more specific to the type of bacterial infection (gram-negative) responsible for the majority of UTIs.
ESBL and CRE pathogens US Medical PG Question 10: A 10-year-old boy is brought in to the emergency room by his parents after he complained of being very weak during a soccer match the same day. The parents noticed that yesterday, the patient seemed somewhat clumsy during soccer practice and was tripping over himself. Today, the patient fell early in his game and complained that he could not get back up. The patient is up-to-date on his vaccinations and has no previous history of illness. The parents do report that the patient had abdominal pain and bloody diarrhea the previous week, but the illness resolved without antibiotics or medical attention. The patient’s temperature is 100.9°F (38.3°C), blood pressure is 110/68 mmHg, pulse is 84/min, and respirations are 14/min. On exam, the patient complains of tingling sensations that seem reduced in his feet. He has no changes in vibration or proprioception. Achilles and patellar reflexes are 1+ bilaterally. On strength testing, foot dorsiflexion and plantar flexion are 3/5 and knee extension and knee flexion are 4-/5. Hip flexion, hip extension, and upper extremity strength are intact. Based on this clinical history and physical exam, what pathogenic agent could have been responsible for the patient’s illness?
- A. Gram-negative, oxidase-negative, bacillus without hydrogen sulfide gas production
- B. Gram-negative, oxidase-positive bacillus
- C. Gram-negative, oxidase-positive, comma-shaped bacteria (Correct Answer)
- D. Gram-negative, oxidase-negative, bacillus with hydrogen sulfide gas production
- E. Gram-positive bacillus
ESBL and CRE pathogens Explanation: ***Gram-negative, oxidase-positive, comma-shaped bacteria***
- The patient's presentation of **ascending weakness**, **tingling sensations (paresthesias)**, and **diminished reflexes** following a diarrheal illness is highly suggestive of **Guillain-Barré Syndrome (GBS)**.
- **_Campylobacter jejuni_**, a **Gram-negative, oxidase-positive, comma-shaped bacteria**, is the most common antecedent infection leading to GBS through molecular mimicry with myelin gangliosides.
*Gram-negative, oxidase-negative, bacillus without hydrogen sulfide gas production*
- This description commonly refers to organisms like **_Shigella_** or **_Escherichia coli_ (EHEC)**.
- While these can cause bloody diarrhea, they are less frequently associated with post-infectious GBS compared to _Campylobacter jejuni_.
*Gram-negative, oxidase-positive bacillus*
- This general description could fit bacteria such as _Pseudomonas aeruginosa_ or _Vibrio cholerae_ (although _Vibrio_ is more specifically comma-shaped).
- While _Vibrio_ can cause diarrheal illness, _Campylobacter_ is a more classic and frequent trigger for GBS.
*Gram-negative, oxidase-negative, bacillus with hydrogen sulfide gas production*
- This characterizes bacteria like **_Salmonella_ species**.
- While **_Salmonella_ enteritis can cause diarrheal illness, it is a less common antecedent infection for GBS compared to _Campylobacter jejuni_**.
*Gram-positive bacillus*
- **Gram-positive bacilli** include organisms like _Clostridium difficile_ (which causes pseudomembranous colitis) or _Listeria monocytogenes_.
- These are not typically associated with bloody diarrhea followed by acute ascending paralysis and GBS.
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