Antimicrobial susceptibility testing US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice US Medical PG questions for Antimicrobial susceptibility testing. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Antimicrobial susceptibility testing US Medical PG Question 1: A research team develops a new monoclonal antibody checkpoint inhibitor for advanced melanoma that has shown promise in animal studies as well as high efficacy and low toxicity in early phase human clinical trials. The research team would now like to compare this drug to existing standard of care immunotherapy for advanced melanoma. The research team decides to conduct a non-randomized study where the novel drug will be offered to patients who are deemed to be at risk for toxicity with the current standard of care immunotherapy, while patients without such risk factors will receive the standard treatment. Which of the following best describes the level of evidence that this study can offer?
- A. Level 1
- B. Level 3 (Correct Answer)
- C. Level 5
- D. Level 4
- E. Level 2
Antimicrobial susceptibility testing Explanation: ***Level 3***
- A **non-randomized controlled trial** like the one described, where patient assignment to treatment groups is based on specific characteristics (risk of toxicity), falls into Level 3 evidence.
- This level typically includes **non-randomized controlled trials** and **well-designed cohort studies** with comparison groups, which are prone to selection bias and confounding.
- The study compares two treatments but lacks randomization, making it Level 3 evidence.
*Level 1*
- Level 1 evidence is the **highest level of evidence**, derived from **systematic reviews and meta-analyses** of multiple well-designed randomized controlled trials or large, high-quality randomized controlled trials.
- The described study is explicitly stated as non-randomized, ruling out Level 1.
*Level 2*
- Level 2 evidence involves at least one **well-designed randomized controlled trial** (RCT) or **systematic reviews** of randomized trials.
- The current study is *non-randomized*, which means it cannot be classified as Level 2 evidence, as randomization is a key criterion for this level.
*Level 4*
- Level 4 evidence includes **case series**, **case-control studies**, and **poorly designed cohort or case-control studies**.
- While the study is non-randomized, it is a controlled comparative trial rather than a case series or retrospective case-control study, placing it at Level 3.
*Level 5*
- Level 5 evidence is the **lowest level of evidence**, typically consisting of **expert opinion** without explicit critical appraisal, or based on physiology, bench research, or animal studies.
- While the drug was initially tested in animal studies, the current human comparative study offers a higher level of evidence than expert opinion or preclinical data.
Antimicrobial susceptibility testing US Medical PG Question 2: A 42-year-old woman with a history of multiple sclerosis and recurrent urinary tract infections comes to the emergency department because of flank pain and fever. Her temperature is 38.8°C (101.8°F). Examination shows left-sided costovertebral angle tenderness. She is admitted to the hospital and started on intravenous vancomycin. Three days later, her symptoms have not improved. Urine culture shows growth of Enterococcus faecalis. Which of the following best describes the most likely mechanism of antibiotic resistance in this patient?
- A. Increased efflux across bacterial cell membranes
- B. Production of beta-lactamase
- C. Alteration of penicillin-binding proteins
- D. Alteration of peptidoglycan synthesis (Correct Answer)
- E. Alteration of ribosomal targets
Antimicrobial susceptibility testing Explanation: ***Alteration of peptidoglycan synthesis***
- **Vancomycin** targets the **D-Ala-D-Ala terminus** on the peptidoglycan precursor, preventing cross-linking during bacterial cell wall synthesis.
- **Vancomycin resistance in Enterococcus faecalis** occurs through acquisition of resistance genes (vanA, vanB) that encode enzymes modifying the peptidoglycan precursor from **D-Ala-D-Ala to D-Ala-D-Lac**.
- This structural change reduces vancomycin's binding affinity by approximately 1000-fold, rendering the antibiotic ineffective.
- The mechanism directly involves **alteration of the peptidoglycan synthesis pathway**, specifically the terminal amino acid residues of the pentapeptide precursor.
*Increased efflux across bacterial cell membranes*
- This mechanism involves **efflux pumps that actively transport antibiotics out of the bacterial cell**, reducing intracellular concentration.
- While efflux pumps contribute to resistance for antibiotics like **tetracyclines, fluoroquinolones, and macrolides**, this is not the primary mechanism of vancomycin resistance in Enterococcus.
*Production of beta-lactamase*
- **Beta-lactamase enzymes** hydrolyze the **beta-lactam ring** of antibiotics like **penicillins and cephalosporins**, rendering them inactive.
- **Vancomycin is a glycopeptide antibiotic, not a beta-lactam**, so its efficacy is not affected by beta-lactamase production.
*Alteration of ribosomal targets*
- This mechanism confers resistance to antibiotics that target **bacterial ribosomes** to inhibit protein synthesis, such as **macrolides, aminoglycosides, and tetracyclines**.
- **Vancomycin acts on cell wall synthesis**, not protein synthesis, so alteration of ribosomal targets is not relevant to vancomycin resistance.
*Alteration of penicillin-binding proteins*
- **Penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs)** are the targets of **beta-lactam antibiotics** (penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems).
- Alterations in PBPs cause resistance to beta-lactams, not to vancomycin.
- **Vancomycin does not interact with PBPs**; it binds directly to the D-Ala-D-Ala terminus of peptidoglycan precursors in the cell wall.
Antimicrobial susceptibility testing US Medical PG Question 3: An 18-year old college freshman presents to his university clinic because he has not been feeling well for the past two weeks. He has had a persistent headache, occasional cough, and chills without rigors. The patient’s vital signs are normal and physical exam is unremarkable. His radiograph shows patchy interstitial lung infiltrates and he is diagnosed with atypical pneumonia. The patient is prescribed azithromycin and takes his medication as instructed. Despite adherence to his drug regimen, he returns to the clinic one week later because his symptoms have not improved. The organism responsible for this infection is likely resistant to azithromycin through which mechanism?
- A. Mutation in topoisomerase II
- B. Methylation of ribosomal binding site
- C. Presence of a beta-lactamase
- D. Decreased binding to RNA polymerase
- E. Insertion of drug efflux pumps (Correct Answer)
Antimicrobial susceptibility testing Explanation: ***Insertion of drug efflux pumps***
- **Azithromycin** is a macrolide antibiotic that inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the **50S ribosomal subunit**.
- In **Mycoplasma pneumoniae** (the most common cause of atypical pneumonia in young adults), the **most common** mechanism of macrolide resistance is through **efflux pumps**, particularly the **mef genes**.
- These efflux pumps actively transport macrolides out of the bacterial cell, reducing intracellular drug concentration and conferring resistance.
- This mechanism is responsible for the majority of macrolide-resistant *M. pneumoniae* isolates worldwide.
*Methylation of ribosomal binding site*
- **Methylation** of the ribosomal binding site (specifically the **23S rRNA** via erm genes) does prevent azithromycin from binding effectively.
- While this is a valid macrolide resistance mechanism seen in organisms like *Streptococcus pneumoniae* and *Streptococcus pyogenes*, it is **less common** in *Mycoplasma pneumoniae*.
- Efflux pumps (mef) are the predominant mechanism in *M. pneumoniae* resistant strains.
*Mutation in topoisomerase II*
- **Topoisomerase II** (DNA gyrase) is the target of **fluoroquinolone antibiotics**, not macrolides.
- Mutations in this enzyme lead to resistance against fluoroquinolones, such as **ciprofloxacin**.
*Presence of a beta-lactamase*
- **Beta-lactamase enzymes** inactivate **beta-lactam antibiotics** (e.g., penicillin, cephalosporins) by hydrolyzing their beta-lactam ring.
- Additionally, *Mycoplasma pneumoniae* **lacks a cell wall**, making it inherently resistant to all beta-lactam antibiotics regardless of beta-lactamase production.
*Decreased binding to RNA polymerase*
- **RNA polymerase** is the target for antibiotics like **rifampin**, which inhibits bacterial transcription.
- Decreased binding to RNA polymerase would lead to rifampin resistance, not azithromycin resistance.
Antimicrobial susceptibility testing US Medical PG Question 4: A 25-year-old woman has dysuria, pyuria, increased frequency of urination, and fever of 1-day duration. She is sexually active. Urine cultures show gram-positive bacteria in clusters that are catalase-positive and coagulase-negative. The patient is started on trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. Which of the following characteristics is used to identify the offending organism?
- A. Resistance to bacitracin
- B. Beta hemolysis
- C. Sensitivity to novobiocin
- D. Resistance to novobiocin (Correct Answer)
- E. Sensitivity to bacitracin
Antimicrobial susceptibility testing Explanation: ***Resistance to novobiocin***
- The patient's symptoms (dysuria, pyuria, frequency, fever) and urine culture results (gram-positive cocci in clusters, catalase-positive, coagulase-negative) are highly suggestive of a **Staphylococcus saprophyticus** urinary tract infection (UTI).
- A key distinguishing characteristic of **Staphylococcus saprophyticus** from other coagulase-negative staphylococci (especially *Staphylococcus epidermidis*) is its **resistance to novobiocin**.
*Resistance to bacitracin*
- This characteristic is used to differentiate Group A Streptococcus (Streptococcus pyogenes), which is sensitive to bacitracin, from other beta-hemolytic streptococci.
- However, in this case, the organism is described as gram-positive cocci in clusters and catalase-positive, indicating Staphylococcus, not Streptococcus.
*Beta hemolysis*
- While beta hemolysis is a characteristic of certain bacteria, such as *Streptococcus pyogenes* or *Staphylococcus aureus*, it is not the primary diagnostic feature for the coagulase-negative, catalase-positive staphylococcus described here.
- Furthermore, *Staphylococcus saprophyticus* is typically non-hemolytic or weakly hemolytic.
*Sensitivity to novobiocin*
- **Sensitivity to novobiocin** is a characteristic of *Staphylococcus epidermidis* and other coagulase-negative staphylococci, but not *Staphylococcus saprophyticus*.
- Since the clinical picture points strongly to *Staphylococcus saprophyticus* in a young, sexually active female with a UTI, novobiocin resistance is the expected finding.
*Sensitivity to bacitracin*
- **Sensitivity to bacitracin** is a key characteristic used to identify *Streptococcus pyogenes* (Group A Strep).
- The organism in this scenario is a gram-positive cocci in clusters and catalase-positive, indicating a Staphylococcus species, not Streptococcus.
Antimicrobial susceptibility testing US Medical PG Question 5: An experimental drug, ES 62, is being studied. It prohibits the growth of vancomycin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus. It is highly lipid-soluble. The experimental design is dependent on a certain plasma concentration of the drug. The target plasma concentration is 100 mmol/dL. Which of the following factors is most important for calculating the appropriate loading dose?
- A. Volume of distribution (Correct Answer)
- B. Half-life of the drug
- C. Therapeutic index
- D. Clearance of the drug
- E. Rate of administration
Antimicrobial susceptibility testing Explanation: **Volume of distribution**
- The **loading dose** is primarily determined by the desired **plasma concentration** and the **volume of distribution (Vd)**, as it reflects how extensively a drug is distributed in the body.
- The formula for loading dose is: Loading Dose = (Target Plasma Concentration × Vd).
*Half-life of the drug*
- The **half-life** is crucial for determining the **dosing interval** and the time it takes to reach **steady-state concentrations**, not the initial loading dose.
- It reflects the rate at which the drug is eliminated from the body.
*Therapeutic index*
- The **therapeutic index** is a measure of a drug's relative safety, indicating the ratio between the **toxic dose** and the **effective dose**.
- While important for drug safety, it does not directly determine the magnitude of the loading dose itself.
*Clearance of the drug*
- **Clearance** is the rate at which the drug is removed from the body and is a primary determinant of the **maintenance dose** required to sustain a desired plasma concentration.
- It does not directly calculate the initial loading dose needed to achieve an immediate target concentration.
*Rate of administration*
- The **rate of administration** (e.g., infusion rate) primarily influences how quickly the drug reaches its target concentration, but not the total quantity of drug needed for the initial loading dose.
- It affects the kinetics of how the loading dose achieves the target concentration, rather than defining the dose amount.
Antimicrobial susceptibility testing US Medical PG Question 6: A scientist is studying the mechanisms by which bacteria become resistant to antibiotics. She begins by obtaining a culture of vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus faecalis and conducts replicate plating experiments. In these experiments, colonies are inoculated onto a membrane and smeared on 2 separate plates, 1 containing vancomycin and the other with no antibiotics. She finds that all of the bacterial colonies are vancomycin resistant because they grow on both plates. She then maintains the bacteria in liquid culture without vancomycin while she performs her other studies. Fifteen generations of bacteria later, she conducts replicate plating experiments again and finds that 20% of the colonies are now sensitive to vancomycin. Which of the following mechanisms is the most likely explanation for why these colonies have become vancomycin sensitive?
- A. Point mutation
- B. Gain of function mutation
- C. Viral infection
- D. Plasmid loss (Correct Answer)
- E. Loss of function mutation
Antimicrobial susceptibility testing Explanation: ***Plasmid loss***
- The initial **vancomycin resistance** in *Enterococcus faecalis* is often mediated by genes located on **plasmids**, which are extrachromosomal DNA.
- In the absence of selective pressure (vancomycin), bacteria that lose the plasmid (and thus the resistance genes) have a **growth advantage** over those that retain the energetically costly plasmid, leading to an increase in sensitive colonies over generations.
*Point mutation*
- A **point mutation** typically involves a change in a single nucleotide and could lead to loss of resistance if it occurred in a gene conferring resistance.
- However, since there was no selective pressure for loss of resistance, it is less likely that 20% of the population would acquire such a specific point mutation to revert resistance.
*Gain of function mutation*
- A **gain of function mutation** would imply that the bacteria acquired a *new* advantageous trait, not the *loss* of resistance.
- This type of mutation would not explain why some colonies became sensitive to vancomycin after the drug was removed.
*Viral infection*
- **Viral infection** (bacteriophages) can transfer genes through transduction or cause bacterial lysis, but it's not the primary mechanism for a widespread reversion of resistance in the absence of antibiotic pressure.
- It would not explain the observed increase in vancomycin-sensitive colonies due to evolutionary pressure.
*Loss of function mutation*
- While a **loss of function mutation** in a gene conferring resistance could lead to sensitivity, it's generally less likely to explain a 20% shift without selective pressure than **plasmid loss**.
- Plasmids are often unstable and are easily lost in the absence of selection, whereas a specific gene mutation causing loss of function would need to arise and become prevalent in the population.
Antimicrobial susceptibility testing US Medical PG Question 7: A 15-year-old boy presents with his father to the urgent care department with a 5-day history of frequent diarrhea, occasionally mixed with streaks of blood. Stool cultures are pending, but preliminary stool samples demonstrate fecal leukocytes and erythrocytes. The patient's vital signs are within normal limits, and he is started on outpatient therapy for presumed Shigella infection. Which of the following was the young man most likely started on?
- A. Oral vancomycin
- B. Oral erythromycin
- C. Oral metronidazole
- D. An oral quinolone
- E. Oral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) (Correct Answer)
Antimicrobial susceptibility testing Explanation: **Oral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX)**
- **TMP-SMX** is a traditional first-line treatment for **Shigella infection** in settings where susceptibility is expected or confirmed.
- The patient's presentation with **bloody diarrhea**, **fecal leukocytes**, and **erythrocytes** is classic for **Shigella dysentery**.
- While **resistance rates vary by region**, TMP-SMX remains an appropriate choice when local susceptibility patterns support its use.
- It is cost-effective, well-tolerated, and appropriate for outpatient management of uncomplicated cases.
*Oral vancomycin*
- Vancomycin is specifically used for **Clostridioides difficile infection** and does not treat Shigella.
- It has **poor oral absorption** and no activity against Gram-negative enteric pathogens like Shigella.
*Oral erythromycin*
- Erythromycin is primarily effective against **Campylobacter jejuni** and respiratory pathogens.
- It has **limited activity against Shigella** and resistance rates are high, making it an inappropriate choice.
*Oral metronidazole*
- Metronidazole treats **anaerobic bacteria** and protozoal infections (*Giardia*, *Entamoeba histolytica*).
- It has **no significant activity against Shigella**, a facultative anaerobic Gram-negative bacillus.
*An oral quinolone*
- **Fluoroquinolones** (e.g., ciprofloxacin) are highly effective against Shigella and often used as first-line therapy, particularly in areas with high TMP-SMX resistance.
- They are increasingly preferred in current guidelines due to rising resistance to TMP-SMX.
- However, in the context of empiric outpatient treatment where susceptibility is presumed, **TMP-SMX** may still be chosen initially as a narrower-spectrum, cost-effective option, with fluoroquinolones reserved based on culture results or treatment failure.
Antimicrobial susceptibility testing US Medical PG Question 8: You are treating a neonate with meningitis using ampicillin and a second antibiotic, X, that is known to cause ototoxicity. What is the mechanism of antibiotic X?
- A. It binds the 50S ribosomal subunit and inhibits formation of the initiation complex
- B. It binds the 30S ribosomal subunit and inhibits formation of the initiation complex (Correct Answer)
- C. It binds the 30S ribosomal subunit and reversibly inhibits translocation
- D. It binds the 50S ribosomal subunit and inhibits peptidyltransferase
- E. It binds the 50S ribosomal subunit and reversibly inhibits translocation
Antimicrobial susceptibility testing Explanation: ***It binds the 30s ribosomal subunit and inhibits formation of the initiation complex***
- The second antibiotic, X, is likely an **aminoglycoside**, such as **gentamicin** or **amikacin**, which are commonly used in combination with ampicillin for neonatal meningitis and are known to cause ototoxicity.
- Aminoglycosides exert their bactericidal effect by **irreversibly binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit**, thereby **inhibiting the formation of the initiation complex** and leading to misreading of mRNA.
*It binds the 50S ribosomal subunit and inhibits formation of the initiation complex*
- This mechanism is characteristic of **linezolid**, which targets the 50S ribosomal subunit to prevent the formation of the initiation complex.
- While linezolid can cause side effects, **ototoxicity** is less commonly associated with it compared to aminoglycosides, and it is not a primary drug for neonatal meningitis alongside ampicillin.
*It binds the 50S ribosomal subunit and inhibits peptidyltransferase*
- This is the mechanism of action for **chloramphenicol**, which inhibits **peptidyltransferase** activity on the 50S ribosomal subunit, preventing peptide bond formation.
- Although chloramphenicol can cause **ototoxicity** and **aplastic anemia**, its use in neonates is limited due to the risk of **Gray Baby Syndrome**.
*It binds the 30s ribosomal subunit and reversibly inhibits translocation*
- This describes the mechanism of action of **tetracyclines**, which reversibly bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit and prevent the attachment of aminoacyl-tRNA, thereby inhibiting protein synthesis.
- Tetracyclines are **contraindicated in neonates** due to their potential to cause **tooth discoloration** and **bone growth inhibition**, and ototoxicity is not their primary adverse effect.
*It binds the 50s ribosomal subunit and reversibly inhibits translocation*
- This mechanism of reversibly inhibiting translocation by binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit is characteristic of **macrolides** (e.g., erythromycin, azithromycin) and **clindamycin**.
- While some macrolides can cause **transient ototoxicity**, they are not typically the second antibiotic of choice for neonatal meningitis in combination with ampicillin, and clindamycin's side effect profile is different.
Antimicrobial susceptibility testing US Medical PG Question 9: While testing various strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae, a researcher discovers that a certain strain of this bacteria is unable to cause disease in mice when deposited in their lungs. What physiological test would most likely deviate from normal in this strain of bacteria as opposed to a typical strain?
- A. Quellung reaction (Correct Answer)
- B. Hemolytic reaction when grown on sheep blood agar
- C. Bile solubility
- D. Optochin sensitivity
- E. Motility
Antimicrobial susceptibility testing Explanation: ***Quellung reaction***
- The **Quellung reaction** tests for the presence of the **polysaccharide capsule**, which is the primary virulence factor of *S. pneumoniae*.
- An **avirulent strain** that cannot cause disease would most likely lack the capsule and show a **negative Quellung reaction** (no capsular swelling), deviating from the **positive reaction** seen in typical encapsulated pathogenic strains.
- The capsule enables *S. pneumoniae* to evade phagocytosis and complement-mediated killing, which is essential for establishing infection in the lungs.
*Hemolytic reaction when grown on sheep blood agar*
- Both virulent and avirulent strains of *S. pneumoniae* typically exhibit **alpha-hemolysis** (partial hemolysis, producing a greenish discoloration) on sheep blood agar due to the production of pneumolysin.
- This characteristic does not differentiate between pathogenic and non-pathogenic strains in terms of disease-causing ability.
*Bile solubility*
- *S. pneumoniae* is characteristically **bile-soluble** due to the presence of autolysin enzymes that are activated by bile salts, leading to cellular lysis.
- This property is a **species characteristic** present in both virulent and avirulent strains, thus it would not explain the inability to cause disease.
*Optochin sensitivity*
- *S. pneumoniae* is universally **sensitive to optochin**, a chemical agent that inhibits its growth and is used for laboratory identification.
- This characteristic is used for **species identification** but does not correlate with strain virulence or disease-causing ability.
*Motility*
- *Streptococcus pneumoniae* is a **non-motile** bacterium; it lacks flagella.
- This characteristic is consistent across all strains and is not a virulence factor for this species.
Antimicrobial susceptibility testing US Medical PG Question 10: An investigator is studying a strain of bacteria that retains a blue color after crystal violet dye and acetone are applied. The bacteria are inoculated in a petri dish containing hypotonic saline. After the addition of an antibiotic, the bacteria swell and rupture. This antibiotic most likely belongs to which of the following classes?
- A. Macrolide
- B. Cephalosporin (Correct Answer)
- C. Sulfonamide
- D. Fluoroquinolone
- E. Tetracycline
Antimicrobial susceptibility testing Explanation: ***Cephalosporin***
- This scenario describes a **Gram-positive bacterium** (retains blue color) which, after antibiotic treatment, swells and lyses in a hypotonic solution. This indicates a defect in the **peptidoglycan cell wall**.
- **Cephalosporins** are **β-lactam antibiotics** that inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis by interfering with **peptidoglycan cross-linking**, leading to osmotic lysis in hypotonic environments.
*Macrolide*
- Macrolides like **azithromycin** and **erythromycin** inhibit bacterial **protein synthesis** by binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit.
- They do not directly target the cell wall, so they would not cause immediate osmotic lysis in this manner.
*Sulfonamide*
- Sulfonamides inhibit bacterial **folic acid synthesis** by acting as a competitive inhibitor of dihydropteroate synthase, disrupting DNA and RNA production.
- Their mechanism of action does not involve direct cell wall disruption or osmotic lysis.
*Fluoroquinolone*
- Fluoroquinolones interfere with bacterial **DNA replication and transcription** by inhibiting **DNA gyrase** and **topoisomerase IV**.
- This class of antibiotics does not primarily target the cell wall, and therefore would not lead to prompt osmotic swelling and rupture.
*Tetracycline*
- Tetracyclines inhibit bacterial **protein synthesis** by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit, preventing the attachment of aminoacyl-tRNA.
- They do not affect the cell wall, so they would not cause the observed osmotic lysis.
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