Borrelia species US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice US Medical PG questions for Borrelia species. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Borrelia species US Medical PG Question 1: A 21-year-old man comes to the physician's office due to a 3-week history of fatigue and a rash, along with the recent development of joint pain that has moved from his knee to his elbows. The patient reports going camping last month but denies having been bitten by a tick. His past medical history is significant for asthma treated with an albuterol inhaler. His pulse is 54/min and blood pressure is 110/72. Physical examination reveals multiple circular red rings with central clearings on the right arm and chest. There is a normal range of motion in all joints and 5/5 strength bilaterally in the upper and lower extremities. Without proper treatment, the patient is at highest risk for which of the following complications?
- A. Liver capsule inflammation
- B. Bone marrow failure
- C. Heart valve stenosis
- D. Glomerular damage
- E. Cranial nerve palsy (Correct Answer)
Borrelia species Explanation: ***Cranial nerve palsy***
- This patient presents with classic **Lyme disease** (caused by *Borrelia burgdorferi*), including camping exposure, fatigue, migratory arthralgia, and **erythema migrans** (multiple circular red rings with central clearings on the arm and chest).
- The **bradycardia (pulse 54/min)** suggests early **Lyme carditis** with possible first-degree AV block, which typically resolves with treatment and rarely progresses to complete heart block in treated cases.
- Without proper antibiotic treatment, **cranial neuropathy** is one of the most common neurological complications in early disseminated Lyme disease, with **facial nerve palsy (Bell's palsy)** being the most frequent, occurring in up to 10% of untreated patients.
- Other neurological complications include meningitis, radiculoneuropathy, and peripheral neuropathy, making neurologic involvement a significant risk in untreated disease.
*Liver capsule inflammation*
- **Perihepatitis (Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome)** is associated with **pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)** caused by *Chlamydia trachomatis* or *Neisseria gonorrhoeae*, not Lyme disease.
- This presents with right upper quadrant pain and "violin string" adhesions between the liver capsule and peritoneum.
*Bone marrow failure*
- **Bone marrow failure** (aplastic anemia) can be caused by parvovirus B19, certain medications, radiation, or idiopathic causes, but is **not a recognized complication of Lyme disease**.
- Lyme disease primarily affects the skin, joints, heart (conduction system), and nervous system, not hematopoietic function.
*Heart valve stenosis*
- **Lyme carditis** affects the **cardiac conduction system**, causing **AV blocks** (first, second, or third degree) and myocarditis, as suggested by this patient's bradycardia.
- Lyme does **not cause valvular stenosis or regurgitation**. Valvular disease is associated with rheumatic fever (post-streptococcal), endocarditis, or degenerative changes.
- The cardiac manifestations of Lyme typically resolve with appropriate antibiotic therapy and rarely cause permanent structural damage.
*Glomerular damage*
- **Glomerulonephritis** is not a typical complication of Lyme disease in humans (though "Lyme nephritis" occurs in dogs).
- Renal involvement in human Lyme disease is extremely rare and not a significant clinical concern compared to neurological, cardiac, or rheumatological manifestations.
Borrelia species US Medical PG Question 2: A 28-year-old man presents to the clinic complaining of chronic joint pain and fatigue for the past 2 months. The patient states that he usually has pain in one of his joints that resolve but then seems to move to another joint. The patient notes no history of trauma but states that he has experienced some subjective fevers over that time. He works as a logger and notes that he's heard that people have also had these symptoms in the past, but that he does not know anyone who is currently experiencing them. What is the most likely etiologic agent of this patient's disease?
- A. A gram-positive, spore-forming rod
- B. ssDNA virus of the Parvoviridae family
- C. A gram-positive cocci in chains
- D. A spirochete (Correct Answer)
- E. A gram-negative diplococci
Borrelia species Explanation: ***A spirochete***
- The migrating joint pain (**migratory polyarthritis**), fatigue, and subjective fevers in a patient who works outdoors (logger) are highly suggestive of **Lyme disease**.
- Lyme disease is caused by **_Borrelia burgdorferi_**, which is a **spirochete** transmitted by ticks.
*A gram-positive, spore-forming rod*
- This description typically refers to bacteria like **_Clostridium_** or **_Bacillus_** species.
- These organisms are generally associated with conditions like **tetanus**, **botulism**, or **anthrax**, which do not match the migratory joint pain and fatigue described.
*ssDNA virus of the Parvoviridae family*
- The most common human pathogen in this family is **Parvovirus B19**, which causes **fifth disease** (erythema infectiosum).
- While Parvovirus B19 can cause **arthralgia** and **arthritis**, especially in adults, it typically presents with a characteristic **slapped-cheek rash** and is less commonly associated with a prolonged, migratory joint pain pattern in this context.
*A gram-positive cocci in chains*
- This describes organisms like **_Streptococcus pyogenes_**, which can cause **rheumatic fever** leading to migratory polyarthritis.
- However, rheumatic fever typically follows a **streptococcal pharyngitis** and has other characteristic features like carditis or chorea not mentioned here.
*A gram-negative diplococci*
- This describes organisms like **_Neisseria gonorrhoeae_** or **_Neisseria meningitidis_**.
- **Disseminated gonococcal infection** can cause migratory polyarthralgia, but it is typically associated with a history of sexually transmitted infection and often presents with tenosynovitis or skin lesions, which are not mentioned.
Borrelia species US Medical PG Question 3: A 29-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 3-day history of a swollen right knee. Over the past several weeks, he has had similar episodes affecting the right knee and sometimes also the left elbow, in which the swelling lasted an average of 5 days. He has a history of a rash that subsided 2 months ago. He lives in Connecticut with his wife and works as a landscaper. His temperature is 37.8°C (100°F), pulse is 90/min, respirations are 12/min, and blood pressure is 110/75 mm Hg. Physical examination shows a tender and warm right knee; range of motion is limited by pain. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. His hematocrit is 44%, leukocyte count is 10,300/mm3, and platelet count is 145,000/mm3. Serum electrolyte concentrations are within normal limits. Arthrocentesis is performed and the synovial fluid is cloudy. Gram stain is negative. Analysis of the synovial fluid shows a leukocyte count of 70,000/mm3 and 80% neutrophils. Serologic testing confirms the diagnosis. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
- A. Rheumatoid arthritis
- B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
- C. Borrelia burgdorferi (Correct Answer)
- D. Campylobacter jejuni
- E. Osteoarthritis
Borrelia species Explanation: ***Borrelia burgdorferi***
- The patient's **migratory polyarthritis** (affecting knee and elbow intermittently), history of a **rash** (consistent with erythema migrans), and residence in an **endemic area** (Connecticut) strongly suggest **Lyme disease**.
- **Synovial fluid analysis** showing high leukocyte count with neutrophilic predominance is typical of inflammatory arthritis, including Lyme arthritis, and **serologic testing** will confirm the presence of *Borrelia burgdorferi* antibodies.
*Rheumatoid arthritis*
- While rheumatoid arthritis causes inflammatory polyarthritis, it typically presents with **symmetrical joint involvement**, morning stiffness, and often involves smaller joints first, which is not described.
- The presence of a preceding **rash** and resolution within weeks is not characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis.
*Neisseria gonorrhoeae*
- **Disseminated gonococcal infection** can cause migratory polyarthralgia or septic arthritis, but it is typically associated with a history of recent unprotected sexual activity and often with tenosynovitis or dermatitis (pustular or vesicular lesions).
- While gram stain is negative in this case, gonococcal arthritis usually has a more rapid onset and systemic symptoms.
*Campylobacter jejuni*
- *Campylobacter jejuni* is a common cause of **reactive arthritis**, which can cause inflammatory joint pain after a gastrointestinal infection.
- However, reactive arthritis typically involves the **lower extremities** and has a specific pattern of oligoarthritis, often with enthesitis or dactylitis, and the preceding rash and geographical factors do not fit.
*Osteoarthritis*
- Osteoarthritis is a **degenerative joint disease** characterized by pain that worsens with activity and improves with rest, and typically affects older individuals.
- It does not present with a preceding **rash**, migratory inflammatory episodes, or a highly inflammatory synovial fluid (high leukocyte count with neutrophilic predominance).
Borrelia species US Medical PG Question 4: A 24-year-old female comes to the physician because of flu-like symptoms and a new rash for 2 days. She denies contacts with sick individuals or recent travel abroad, but recently went camping in Vermont. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination of the lateral right thigh shows a circular red ring with central clearing. Which of the following is the natural reservoir of the pathogen responsible for this patient's symptoms?
- A. Rat
- B. Rabbit
- C. Tick
- D. Mouse (Correct Answer)
- E. Flea
Borrelia species Explanation: ***Mouse***
- The patient's symptoms, including **flu-like illness** and a **circular red rash with central clearing** (erythema migrans) after camping in Vermont, are classic for **Lyme disease**.
- The causative agent, *Borrelia burgdorferi*, is primarily maintained in **white-footed mice** (genus *Peromyscus*) in its natural reservoir during its larval and nymphal stages.
*Rat*
- While **rats** can carry and transmit various diseases, they are not the primary natural reservoir for *Borrelia burgdorferi*, the pathogen responsible for Lyme disease.
- Diseases associated with rats often include **leptospirosis** and **plague**, which present with different clinical pictures.
*Rabbit*
- **Rabbits** are known reservoirs for diseases like **tularemia** (*Francisella tularensis*), which can cause fever, skin lesions, and lymphadenopathy, but typically not the characteristic **erythema migrans** rash.
- They are not a significant natural reservoir for *Borrelia burgdorferi*.
*Tick*
- The **tick** (specifically *Ixodes scapularis* or **deer tick**) is the **vector** that transmits *Borrelia burgdorferi* to humans, not the natural reservoir.
- The tick acquires the bacteria from infected animal hosts such as mice and deer.
*Flea*
- **Fleas** are vectors for diseases such as **bubonic plague** (*Yersinia pestis*) and **endemic typhus** (*Rickettsia typhi*), which do not manifest with erythema migrans.
- They are not involved in the transmission or natural history of **Lyme disease**.
Borrelia species US Medical PG Question 5: Blood cultures are sent to the laboratory and empiric treatment with intravenous vancomycin is started. Blood cultures grow gram-negative bacilli identified as Cardiobacterium hominis. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- A. Switch to intravenous gentamicin
- B. Switch to intravenous ampicillin
- C. Switch to intravenous ceftriaxone (Correct Answer)
- D. Switch to intravenous cefazolin
- E. Add intravenous rifampin
Borrelia species Explanation: ***Switch to intravenous ceftriaxone***
- **Cardiobacterium hominis** is part of the **HACEK group** of bacteria, which are known for causing **endocarditis**.
- These organisms are typically susceptible to **beta-lactam antibiotics**, with **third-generation cephalosporins** like ceftriaxone being the drug of choice due to their excellent activity and good penetration.
*Switch to intravenous gentamicin*
- While **aminoglycosides** like gentamicin can be used in combination regimens for serious infections, they are generally **not monotherapy** for HACEK endocarditis and are associated with **nephrotoxicity** and **ototoxicity**.
- The primary treatment for HACEK endocarditis is a **beta-lactam antibiotic**, not an aminoglycoside alone.
*Switch to intravenous ampicillin*
- **Ampicillin** is a beta-lactam, but it may not consistently provide optimal coverage for all HACEK organisms, and some strains may have reduced susceptibility.
- **Third-generation cephalosporins** are preferred due to their broader and more consistent activity against this group.
*Switch to intravenous cefazolin*
- **Cefazolin** is a first-generation cephalosporin and typically has **limited activity** against gram-negative bacilli, especially those like Cardiobacterium hominis which require broader-spectrum beta-lactams.
- Its spectrum of activity is primarily against **gram-positive bacteria** and some **gram-negative cocci**.
*Add intravenous rifampin*
- **Rifampin** is primarily used for **mycobacterial infections** and in combination regimens for specific bacterial infections (e.g., bone and joint infections, prosthetic device infections) often due to resistant staphylococci.
- It is **not a first-line agent** for Cardiobacterium hominis infections and there's no indication for its use here with an organism susceptible to ceftriaxone.
Borrelia species US Medical PG Question 6: A 24-year-old man presents with a painless genital ulcer for the past 2 weeks. He reports that he recently has been having unprotected sex with multiple partners. Past medical history is unremarkable. On physical examination, a single ulcer is present on the dorsal shaft of the penis which is circumscribed, indurated, and partially healed. There is moderate inguinal lymphadenopathy but no buboes. Which of the following tests would confirm the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
- A. Perform a darkfield microscopic examination of a swab from the chancre (Correct Answer)
- B. Swab the chancre and perform a saline wet mount
- C. Fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA-ABS) test
- D. Frei test
- E. Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) test
Borrelia species Explanation: ***Perform a darkfield microscopic examination of a swab from the chancre***
- This patient's presentation with a **painless, indurated genital ulcer** (chancre) and regional lymphadenopathy is highly suggestive of **primary syphilis**.
- **Darkfield microscopy** directly visualizes the spirochetes (**_Treponema pallidum_**) from the chancre, providing a definitive and rapid diagnosis.
*Swab the chancre and perform a saline wet mount*
- A **saline wet mount** is used to identify mobile organisms like **_Trichomonas vaginalis_** or clue cells suggestive of **bacterial vaginosis**, neither of which are associated with this type of ulcer.
- This test would not reveal the spirochetes responsible for syphilis and is not appropriate for diagnosing a genital ulcer.
*Fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA-ABS) test*
- The **FTA-ABS test** is a **treponemal-specific serological test** used to confirm a syphilis diagnosis, particularly in later stages or when non-treponemal tests are reactive.
- While sensitive for syphilis, it's typically reactive later in the disease course and cannot directly visualize the bacteria from the ulcer, making darkfield microscopy a more immediate and direct diagnostic tool for primary syphilis.
*Frei test*
- The **Frei test** is an obsolete intradermal skin test used to diagnose **lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)**, which typically presents with a transient, unnoticed lesion followed by severe lymphadenopathy and buboes.
- It is not used for the diagnosis of syphilis and would not be helpful for this patient's presentation.
*Viral and rickettsial disease research laboratory (VDRL) test*
- The **VDRL test** is a **non-treponemal serological test** for syphilis that detects antibodies against cardiolipin, a lipid released from damaged host cells.
- While used for screening and monitoring treatment response, it can be **negative in early primary syphilis** (before seroconversion) and may not be positive at the time of presentation with a fresh chancre.
Borrelia species US Medical PG Question 7: A 27-year-old man comes to the physician with throbbing right scrotal pain for 1 day. He has also had a burning sensation on urination during the last 4 days. He is sexually active with multiple female partners and does not use condoms. Physical examination shows a tender, palpable swelling on the upper pole of the right testicle; lifting the testicle relieves the pain. A Gram stain of urethral secretions shows numerous polymorphonuclear leukocytes but no organisms. Which of the following is the most likely causal pathogen of this patient's symptoms?
- A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
- B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
- C. Mumps virus
- D. Chlamydia trachomatis (Correct Answer)
- E. Staphylococcus aureus
Borrelia species Explanation: ***Chlamydia trachomatis***
- The patient's presentation with **epididymitis** (scrotal pain, tender palpable swelling on the upper pole of the testicle), **dysuria**, and a history of **multiple sexual partners without condoms** is classic for a sexually transmitted infection.
- **Positive Prehn's sign** (pain relief with testicular elevation) supports epididymitis over testicular torsion.
- The Gram stain showing **numerous polymorphonuclear leukocytes but no organisms** is highly suggestive of *C. trachomatis* infection, as it is an **obligate intracellular bacterium** that does not readily stain with Gram stain.
- This finding distinguishes it from *Neisseria gonorrhoeae* (the other common cause of STI-related epididymitis in young men), which would appear as **Gram-negative intracellular diplococci**.
*Mycobacterium tuberculosis*
- **Tuberculosis epididymitis** is rare in developed countries and typically presents with a more **insidious onset** over weeks to months, not acute onset over 1 day.
- It may involve caseating granulomas and is more common in immunocompromised patients.
- It would not explain the acute dysuria or the Gram stain findings of PMNs without organisms in a patient with risk factors for common STIs.
*Pseudomonas aeruginosa*
- **Pseudomonas epididymitis** is typically seen in older men (>35 years), those with urinary tract abnormalities, or after instrumentation/catheterization.
- It is uncommon in young, sexually active individuals without these risk factors.
- Gram stain would show **Gram-negative rods**, which is inconsistent with the "no organisms" finding.
*Mumps virus*
- **Mumps orchitis** typically presents with **testicular pain and swelling** (affecting the testis itself, not the epididymis).
- Mumps orchitis is usually preceded by **parotitis** (salivary gland swelling) 4-8 days earlier.
- It does not typically cause dysuria or lead to urethral secretions with PMNs.
- Mumps is now rare due to widespread MMR vaccination.
*Staphylococcus aureus*
- **Staphylococcus aureus** can cause epididymitis, especially in cases of direct trauma, hematogenous spread, or in patients with indwelling catheters.
- However, it's not a common cause of sexually transmitted epididymitis in young, healthy men.
- A Gram stain would reveal **Gram-positive cocci in clusters**, which was not seen in this case.
Borrelia species US Medical PG Question 8: A 19-year-old college student presents to student health with 1 day of fever and chills. He says that he has also been coughing for 2 days. His roommate was sick 3 days ago with similar symptoms and was diagnosed with Mycoplasma infection. He has otherwise been healthy and has had all the required vaccines as scheduled. He is currently taking introductory biology as part of his premedical studies and recently learned about antibodies. He therefore asks his physician about what his body is doing to fight off the infection. At this stage of his infection, which of the following forms are the antibodies circulating in his serum?
- A. Pentamers (Correct Answer)
- B. Dimers
- C. Tetramers
- D. Trimers
- E. Monomers
Borrelia species Explanation: ***Pentamers***
- In the **early stages** of a primary immune response, the B cells initially produce **IgM antibodies**.
- IgM antibodies circulate in the serum primarily as **pentamers**, making them highly effective at binding multiple antigens and activating complement.
*Dimers*
- **IgA antibodies** can exist as dimers, particularly secretory IgA found in mucosal secretions, but they are not the predominant form during the initial systemic immune response to an infection.
- While IgA plays a role in immunity, IgM is the primary antibody class produced in the **first few days of a new infection**.
*Tetramers*
- Antibodies typically do not form **stable tetrameric structures** as a functional unit in serum.
- The primary forms of antibodies are monomers, dimers, and pentamers, each with specific roles and locations.
*Trimers*
- **Trimeric antibody forms** are not a standard or significant configuration for immunoglobulins circulating in the serum.
- Antibody structures are well-defined as monomers (IgG, IgE, IgD), dimers (secretory IgA), or pentamers (IgM).
*Monomers*
- While **IgM can exist as a monomer** when expressed on the surface of B cells, serum IgM is predominantly in its **pentameric form**.
- **IgG** is the most abundant monomeric antibody in serum, but it is produced later in the immune response and at higher concentrations during secondary immune responses.
Borrelia species US Medical PG Question 9: A 21-year-old man presents to the emergency room complaining of pain upon urination and a watery discharge from his penis. It started a few days ago and has been getting progressively worse. His temperature is 98.0°F (36.7°C), blood pressure is 122/74 mmHg, pulse is 83/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam is notable for a tender urethra with a discharge. Gram stain of the discharge is negative for bacteria but shows many neutrophils. Which of the following is the most likely infectious etiology of this patient's symptoms?
- A. Chlamydia trachomatis (Correct Answer)
- B. Trichomonas vaginalis
- C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
- D. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
- E. Escherichia coli
Borrelia species Explanation: ***Chlamydia trachomatis***
- The presentation of **dysuria**, **watery discharge**, and a **Gram stain negative for bacteria but positive for neutrophils** is highly characteristic of **non-gonococcal urethritis**, with *Chlamydia trachomatis* being the most common cause.
- *Chlamydia* is an **intracellular bacterium** and does not readily stain with Gram stain, explaining the negative result despite the presence of inflammation (neutrophils).
*Trichomonas vaginalis*
- While *Trichomonas vaginalis* can cause urethritis and discharge in men, it typically presents with **frothy yellow-green discharge** and is less common than *Chlamydia* in male urethritis.
- It would also likely be identifiable on a **wet mount microscopy** rather than just a Gram stain negative for bacteria.
*Neisseria gonorrhoeae*
- **Gonococcal urethritis** typically presents with a **purulent, thick discharge** and would show **Gram-negative diplococci** on Gram stain, which are absent in this case.
- The Gram stain finding of "negative for bacteria" specifically rules out *Neisseria gonorrhoeae*.
*Staphylococcus saprophyticus*
- *Staphylococcus saprophyticus* is a common cause of **urinary tract infections (UTIs)**, especially in young women, but less commonly causes urethritis with discharge in men.
- If present, it would likely be detected on a standard **Gram stain** and culture as **Gram-positive cocci**.
*Escherichia coli*
- *Escherichia coli* is the most common cause of **UTIs** but typically causes **cystitis** or **pyelonephritis** rather than isolated urethritis with discharge in men, unless associated with specific risk factors.
- It would appear as **Gram-negative rods** on Gram stain if it were the causative agent and would typically result in a positive bacterial finding.
Borrelia species US Medical PG Question 10: A 23-year-old male comes to the physician because of a 2-week history of fatigue, muscle aches, and a dry cough. He has also had episodes of painful, bluish discoloration of the tips of his fingers, nose, and earlobes during this period. Three months ago, he joined the military and attended basic training in southern California. He does not smoke or use illicit drugs. His temperature is 37.8°C (100°F). Physical examination shows mildly pale conjunctivae and annular erythematous lesions with a dusky central area on the extensor surfaces of the lower extremities. Which of the following is the most likely causal organism?
- A. Chlamydophila pneumoniae
- B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
- C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae (Correct Answer)
- D. Adenovirus
- E. Influenza virus
Borrelia species Explanation: ***Mycoplasma pneumoniae***
- This patient's symptoms (fatigue, muscle aches, dry cough, slightly elevated temperature, and **erythema multiforme**-like lesions) are characteristic of **atypical pneumonia**. The **Raynaud-like phenomenon** (bluish discoloration of fingertips, nose, earlobes) and recent military basic training environment are highly suggestive of *Mycoplasma pneumoniae* infection.
- *Mycoplasma pneumoniae* is a common cause of **atypical pneumonia**, especially in crowded settings like military barracks, and is associated with extrapulmonary manifestations such as **Raynaud's phenomenon**, **hemolytic anemia** (suggested by pale conjunctivae), and **erythema multiforme**.
*Chlamydophila pneumoniae*
- This organism also causes **atypical pneumonia** with a dry cough and constitutional symptoms but is less commonly associated with the prominent extrapulmonary findings like **Raynaud's phenomenon** and **erythema multiforme** seen in this patient.
- While it can cause pharyngitis and hoarseness, the constellation of symptoms, particularly the cutaneous and vascular manifestations, points away from *Chlamydophila pneumoniae*.
*Streptococcus pneumoniae*
- *Streptococcus pneumoniae* typically causes **typical bacterial pneumonia**, characterized by a **productive cough**, high fever, chills, and often **lobar consolidation** on chest X-ray.
- It is not associated with **Raynaud's phenomenon**, **erythema multiforme**, or the specific demographic and exposure history (military basic training for atypical presentation) described.
*Adenovirus*
- **Adenovirus** can cause **respiratory tract infections**, including pharyngitis, conjunctivitis, and pneumonia, often seen in outbreaks in crowded settings.
- However, it is less commonly associated with the dramatic extrapulmonary manifestations like **Raynaud's phenomenon** and **erythema multiforme** that are prominent in this case.
*Influenza virus*
- **Influenza virus** causes a **respiratory illness** with fever, myalgia, fatigue, and cough, but **dry cough** is more common.
- While it can lead to pneumonia, the presence of **Raynaud's phenomenon** and **erythema multiforme** is not a typical presentation of influenza.
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