SIRS and sepsis definitions US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice US Medical PG questions for SIRS and sepsis definitions. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
SIRS and sepsis definitions US Medical PG Question 1: A 22-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance 1 hour after a motor vehicle accident. He did not require any circulatory resuscitation at the scene, but he was intubated because he was unresponsive. He has no history of serious illnesses. He is on mechanical ventilation with no sedation. His blood pressure is 121/62 mm Hg, the pulse is 68/min, and the temperature is 36.5°C (97.7°F). His Glasgow coma scale (GCS) is 3. Early laboratory studies show no abnormalities. A search of the state donor registry shows that he has registered as an organ donor. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in evaluation?
- A. Evaluation of brainstem reflexes (Correct Answer)
- B. Brain MRI
- C. Electroencephalography
- D. Cerebral angiography
- E. Apnea test
SIRS and sepsis definitions Explanation: ***Evaluation of brainstem reflexes***
- In a patient with a **Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) of 3** and no response to noxious stimuli/sedation, assessment of **brainstem reflexes** is a critical step in determining brain death.
- This evaluation includes checking for pupillary light reflex, corneal reflex, vestibulo-ocular reflex (doll's eyes), oculocephalic reflex, and gag/cough reflexes to ascertain the complete absence of brainstem function.
*Brain MRI*
- While a brain MRI can provide detailed anatomical information regarding brain injury, it is **not the primary diagnostic test** for determining brain death.
- Brain death is a **clinical diagnosis** based on the irreversible loss of brain and brainstem function, which can be confirmed rapidly by clinical examination.
*Electroencephalography*
- **EEG** measures electrical activity in the brain and can show electrocerebral silence, which is consistent with brain death.
- However, EEG is **not always required** for the diagnosis of brain death and is often used as a confirmatory test in specific situations, such as when clinical examination is inconclusive or legal requirements necessitate it.
*Cerebral angiography*
- **Cerebral angiography** can demonstrate the absence of cerebral blood flow, which is a criterion for brain death.
- This is an **invasive procedure** and is generally reserved for situations where clinical examination tests are difficult to perform or interpret (e.g., severe facial trauma, drug intoxication), and is not the initial step.
*Apnea test*
- The **apnea test** is a critical component of the brain death evaluation, confirming the absence of spontaneous breathing response to hypercapnia.
- It is performed **after the absence of brainstem reflexes** has been established and all confounding factors (e.g., hypothermia, hypotension, sedatives) have been ruled out.
SIRS and sepsis definitions US Medical PG Question 2: A 53-year-old diabetic man with cellulitis of the right lower limb presents to the emergency department because of symptoms of fever and chills. His pulse is 122/min, the blood pressure is 76/50 mm Hg, the respirations are 26/min, and the temperature is 40.0°C (104.0°F). His urine output is < 0.5mL/kg/h. He has warm peripheral extremities. The hemodynamic status of the patient is not improving in spite of the initiation of adequate fluid resuscitation. He is admitted to the hospital. Which of the following is the most likely laboratory profile?
- A. WBC count: 11,670/mm3; low CVP; blood culture: gram-negative bacteremia; blood lactate level: 0.9 mmol/L
- B. WBC count: 1234/mm3; high CVP; blood culture: gram-negative bacteremia; blood lactate level: 1.6 mmol/L
- C. WBC count: 16,670/mm3; low CVP; blood culture: gram-negative bacteremia; blood lactate level: 2.2 mmol/L (Correct Answer)
- D. WBC count: 6670/mm3; low CVP; blood culture: gram-positive bacteremia; blood lactate level: 1.1 mmol/L
- E. WBC count: 8880/mm3; high CVP; blood culture: gram-positive bacteremia; blood lactate level: 2.1 mmol/L
SIRS and sepsis definitions Explanation: ***WBC count: 16,670/mm3; low CVP; blood culture: gram-negative bacteremia; blood lactate level: 2.2 mmol/L***
- This profile aligns with **septic shock** driven by gram-negative bacteria, presenting with **tachycardia**, **hypotension**, **fever**, and **poor urine output** despite fluid resuscitation.
- A **high WBC count** (leukocytosis), **low CVP** (due to vasodilation and relative hypovolemia), **gram-negative bacteremia** (common in severe sepsis), and **elevated lactate** (indicating tissue hypoperfusion) are characteristic findings.
*WBC count: 11,670/mm3; low CVP; blood culture: gram-negative bacteremia; blood lactate level: 0.9 mmol/L*
- While most components suggest sepsis (WBC count and low CVP), a **lactate level of 0.9 mmol/L** is within the normal range, contradicting the severe hypoperfusion and shock observed in the patient.
- The patient's presentation with **hypotension** unresponsive to fluids and **oliguria** strongly indicates significant tissue hypoperfusion, which would typically result in a higher lactate.
*WBC count: 1234/mm3; high CVP; blood culture: gram-negative bacteremia; blood lactate level: 1.6 mmol/L*
- A **WBC count of 1234/mm3 (leukopenia)** is an atypical response for severe infection and sepsis; often, sepsis presents with leukocytosis.
- A **high CVP** indicates fluid overload or cardiac dysfunction, which is not consistent with the initial low blood pressure and the need for fluid resuscitation seen in distributive shock.
*WBC count: 6670/mm3; low central venous pressure (CVP); blood culture: gram-positive bacteremia; blood lactate level: 1.1 mmol/L*
- A **WBC count of 6670/mm3** is within the normal range and does not reflect an adequate inflammatory response to severe infection and shock.
- A **normal lactate level (1.1 mmol/L)** does not support the clinical picture of shock and tissue hypoperfusion despite the presence of gram-positive bacteremia.
*WBC count: 8880/mm3; high CVP; blood culture: gram-positive bacteremia; blood lactate level: 2.1 mmol/L*
- A **WBC count of 8880/mm3** is normal, which is unlikely in a severe sepsis presentation.
- A **high CVP** is not consistent with the distributive shock state where there is often relative hypovolemia and vasodilation leading to low CVP.
SIRS and sepsis definitions US Medical PG Question 3: A 24-year-old man presents to the emergency department after a motor vehicle collision. He was in the front seat and unrestrained driver in a head on collision. His temperature is 99.2°F (37.3°C), blood pressure is 90/65 mmHg, pulse is 152/min, respirations are 16/min, and oxygen saturation is 100% on room air. Physical exam is notable for a young man who opens his eyes spontaneously and is looking around. He answers questions with inappropriate responses but discernible words. He withdraws from pain but does not have purposeful movement. Which of the following is this patient's Glasgow coma scale?
- A. 9
- B. 15
- C. 7
- D. 11 (Correct Answer)
- E. 13
SIRS and sepsis definitions Explanation: ***11***
- **Eye-opening (E)**: The patient opens his eyes spontaneously, scoring **E4**.
- **Verbal response (V)**: He gives inappropriate responses but discernible words, scoring **V3**.
- **Motor response (M)**: He withdraws from pain but does not have purposeful movement, scoring **M4**.
- Therefore, the total Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is **E4 + V3 + M4 = 11**.
*9*
- This score would imply a lower verbal or motor response, such as **incomprehensible sounds (V2)** or **abnormal flexion (M3)**, which is not consistent with the patient's presentation.
- For example, E4 + V2 + M3 would equal 9.
*15*
- A GCS of 15 indicates **normal neurological function**, meaning the patient would be fully oriented, obey commands, and open eyes spontaneously, which is not the case here.
- This score is for a patient who is fully conscious and responsive.
*7*
- A GCS of 7 suggests a **severe brain injury**, which would typically present with a much poorer response, such as **no verbal response (V1)** or **abnormal extension (M2)**.
- For example, E4 + V1 + M2 would equal 7.
*13*
- This score would mean a higher level of consciousness, such as **confused conversation (V4)** or **localizing pain (M5)**, which is better than the patient's described responses.
- For example, E4 + V4 + M5 would equal 13.
SIRS and sepsis definitions US Medical PG Question 4: A 72-year-old man presents to the emergency department after a fall. The patient was found lying down on the floor in his room in his retirement community. The patient has a past medical history of Alzheimer dementia and a prosthetic valve. His current medications include donepezil and warfarin. His temperature is 97.7°F (36.5°C), blood pressure is 85/50 mmHg, pulse is 160/min, respirations are 13/min, and oxygen saturation is 97% on room air. The patient is started on IV fluids and a type and screen is performed. Laboratory values are ordered as seen below.
Hemoglobin: 13 g/dL
Hematocrit: 39%
Leukocyte count: 5,500 cells/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 225,000/mm^3
INR: 2.5
AST: 10 U/L
ALT: 12 U/L
A chest radiograph and EKG are performed and are within normal limits. A full physical exam is within normal limits. The patient's vitals are repeated. His temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, respirations are 10/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
- A. CT scan (Correct Answer)
- B. Urgent blood transfusion
- C. Fresh frozen plasma
- D. Exploratory laparoscopy
- E. Exploratory laparotomy
SIRS and sepsis definitions Explanation: ***CT scan***
- A patient with a **prosthetic valve** on **warfarin** and a fall is at high risk for **intracranial hemorrhage**, even without focal neurological deficits.
- While initial vitals improved after IV fluids, the mechanism of injury (fall) and medication profile warrant a **CT scan** of the head to rule out serious internal injury, especially given the history of dementia which might mask symptoms.
*Urgent blood transfusion*
- The patient's **hemoglobin (13 g/dL)** and **hematocrit (39%)** are within normal limits, indicating no acute need for blood transfusion due to hemorrhage.
- Transfusions are typically reserved for patients with significant blood loss or severe symptomatic anemia.
*Fresh frozen plasma*
- The patient's **INR of 2.5** is within the therapeutic range for a patient with a prosthetic valve on warfarin.
- There is no evidence of active bleeding or supratherapeutic anticoagulation that would necessitate the administration of **fresh frozen plasma (FFP)** to reverse anticoagulation.
*Exploratory laparoscopy*
- There are no clinical signs or symptoms, such as abdominal pain, distension, or evidence of intra-abdominal bleeding (e.g., declining hemoglobin, peritoneal signs), to suggest an indication for an **exploratory laparoscopy**.
- The patient's physical exam was described as normal.
*Exploratory laparotomy*
- Similar to laparoscopy, there is no clinical evidence of acute abdominal injury or hemorrhage, which would necessitate an **exploratory laparotomy**.
- This invasive procedure is reserved for cases with strong suspicion of significant intra-abdominal pathology or trauma.
SIRS and sepsis definitions US Medical PG Question 5: A 59-year-old man comes to the clinic for an annual well-exam. He was lost to follow-up for the past 3 years due to marital issues but reports that he feels fine. The patient reports, “I feel tired but it is probably because I am getting old. I do feel a little feverish today - I think I got a cold.” His past medical history is significant for hypertension that is controlled with hydrochlorothiazide. He reports fatigue, congestion, cough, and night sweats. He denies any sick contacts, recent travel, weight changes, chest pain, or dizziness. His temperature is 101°F (38.3°C), blood pressure is 151/98 mmHg, pulse is 97/min, and respirations are 15/min. His laboratory values are shown below:
Hemoglobin: 13.5 g/dL
Hematocrit: 41%
Leukocyte count: 25,000/mm^3
Segmented neutrophils: 73%
Bands: 8%
Eosinophils: 1%
Basophils: 2%
Lymphocytes: 15%
Monocytes: 2%
Platelet count: 200,000/mm^3
What diagnostic test would be helpful in distinguishing this patient’s condition from pneumonia?
- A. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
- B. Magnetic resonance imaging of the chest
- C. Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (Correct Answer)
- D. Presence of smudge cells
- E. C-reactive protein
SIRS and sepsis definitions Explanation: ***Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase***
- This patient's symptoms (fatigue, fever, night sweats, **elevated leukocyte count** with a left shift) suggest a **myeloproliferative disorder** like **Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML)**, which can mimic infection.
- A **low Leukocyte Alkaline Phosphatase (LAP) score** is characteristic of CML, while an **elevated LAP score** is seen in bacterial infections (like pneumonia) and leukemoid reactions.
*Erythrocyte sedimentation rate*
- **ESR** is a general marker of **inflammation** and can be elevated in both pneumonia and various hematologic malignancies.
- It does not specifically differentiate between inflammatory processes due to infection versus a myeloproliferative disorder.
*Magnetic resonance imaging of the chest*
- While MRI can detect pulmonary infiltrates suggestive of pneumonia, it is **not typically the first-line imaging** for pneumonia and would not specifically differentiate it from a hematologic malignancy.
- **Chest X-ray or CT scan** would be more appropriate for initial pulmonary evaluation, but neither directly helps distinguish between infection and leukemia without other clinical data.
*Presence of smudge cells*
- **Smudge cells** (fragile lymphocytes) are characteristic of **Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL)**.
- This patient's **leukocyte differential** shows a predominance of neutrophils and bands, not lymphocytes, making CLL less likely.
*C-reactive protein*
- **CRP** is another **acute phase reactant** that is elevated in response to inflammation, including infections like pneumonia.
- Similar to ESR, a high CRP level would not specifically distinguish between an infectious process and a myeloproliferative disorder.
SIRS and sepsis definitions US Medical PG Question 6: A 28-year-old male presents to his primary care physician with complaints of intermittent abdominal pain and alternating bouts of constipation and diarrhea. His medical chart is not significant for any past medical problems or prior surgeries. He is not prescribed any current medications. Which of the following questions would be the most useful next question in eliciting further history from this patient?
- A. "Does the diarrhea typically precede the constipation, or vice-versa?"
- B. "Is the diarrhea foul-smelling?"
- C. "Please rate your abdominal pain on a scale of 1-10, with 10 being the worst pain of your life"
- D. "Are the symptoms worse in the morning or at night?"
- E. "Can you tell me more about the symptoms you have been experiencing?" (Correct Answer)
SIRS and sepsis definitions Explanation: ***Can you tell me more about the symptoms you have been experiencing?***
- This **open-ended question** encourages the patient to provide a **comprehensive narrative** of their symptoms, including details about onset, frequency, duration, alleviating/aggravating factors, and associated symptoms, which is crucial for diagnosis.
- In a patient presenting with vague, intermittent symptoms like alternating constipation and diarrhea, allowing them to elaborate freely can reveal important clues that might not be captured by more targeted questions.
*Does the diarrhea typically precede the constipation, or vice-versa?*
- While knowing the sequence of symptoms can be helpful in understanding the **pattern of bowel dysfunction**, it is a very specific question that might overlook other important aspects of the patient's experience.
- It prematurely narrows the focus without first obtaining a broad understanding of the patient's overall symptomatic picture.
*Is the diarrhea foul-smelling?*
- Foul-smelling diarrhea can indicate **malabsorption** or **bacterial overgrowth**, which are important to consider in some gastrointestinal conditions.
- However, this is a **specific symptom inquiry** that should follow a more general exploration of the patient's symptoms, as it may not be relevant if other crucial details are missed.
*Please rate your abdominal pain on a scale of 1-10, with 10 being the worst pain of your life*
- Quantifying pain intensity is useful for assessing the **severity of discomfort** and monitoring changes over time.
- However, for a patient with intermittent rather than acute, severe pain, understanding the **character, location, and triggers** of the pain is often more diagnostically valuable than just a numerical rating initially.
*Are the symptoms worse in the morning or at night?*
- Diurnal variation can be relevant in certain conditions, such as inflammatory bowel diseases where nocturnal symptoms might be more concerning, or functional disorders whose symptoms might be stress-related.
- This is another **specific question** that should come after gathering a more complete initial picture of the patient's symptoms to ensure no key information is overlooked.
SIRS and sepsis definitions US Medical PG Question 7: A 12-year-old boy admitted to the intensive care unit 1 day ago for severe pneumonia suddenly develops hypotension. He was started on empiric antibiotics and his blood culture reports are pending. According to the nurse, the patient was doing fine until his blood pressure suddenly dropped. Vital signs include: blood pressure is 88/58 mm Hg, temperature is 39.4°C (103.0°F), pulse is 120/min, and respiratory rate is 24/min. His limbs feel warm. The resident physician decides to start him on intravenous vasopressors, as the blood pressure is not responding to intravenous fluids. The on-call intensivist suspects shock due to a bacterial toxin. What is the primary mechanism responsible for the pathogenesis of this patient's condition?
- A. Inactivation of elongation factor (EF) 2
- B. Inhibition of GABA and glycine
- C. Inhibition of acetylcholine release
- D. Release of tumor necrosis factor (TNF) (Correct Answer)
- E. Degradation of lecithin in cell membranes
SIRS and sepsis definitions Explanation: ***Release of tumor necrosis factor (TNF)***
- The patient's presentation with **warm limbs** and **hypotension** despite fluid resuscitation in the setting of severe pneumonia is highly suggestive of **septic shock**.
- **Bacterial toxins**, particularly **endotoxins** from gram-negative bacteria or **exotoxins** like superantigens, trigger a massive **inflammatory response** by stimulating immune cells to release pro-inflammatory cytokines such as **TNF-α**, IL-1, and IL-6, leading to systemic vasodilation and capillary leak.
*Inactivation of elongation factor (EF) 2*
- This is the mechanism of action of **diphtheria toxin** and **exotoxin A** from *Pseudomonas aeruginosa*.
- While these toxins can cause severe systemic illness, their primary role is not typically the induction of septic shock characterized by widespread vasodilation and warm extremities.
*Inhibition of GABA and glycine*
- This mechanism is characteristic of **tetanus toxin**, which prevents the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters and leads to spastic paralysis.
- This is not consistent with the patient's presentation of septic shock.
*Inhibition of acetylcholine release*
- This is the mechanism of action of **botulinum toxin**, which causes flaccid paralysis by blocking acetylcholine release at the neuromuscular junction.
- This effect is not associated with the pathogenesis of septic shock.
*Degradation of lecithin in cell membranes*
- This mechanism is associated with **alpha toxin** of *Clostridium perfringens* (lecithinase), which causes gas gangrene and hemolysis.
- While this toxin contributes to tissue damage in certain infections, it is not the primary mechanism behind the systemic inflammatory response and vasodilation seen in septic shock.
SIRS and sepsis definitions US Medical PG Question 8: A 38-year-old previously healthy woman develops septic shock from necrotizing fasciitis of the lower extremity. Despite three debridements, broad-spectrum antibiotics (vancomycin, meropenem, clindamycin), IVIG, and aggressive critical care support, she develops refractory shock requiring norepinephrine 1.2 mcg/kg/min, vasopressin 0.04 units/min, and epinephrine 0.1 mcg/kg/min. Lactate is 15 mmol/L. Surgical team recommends hemipelvectomy as last option for source control. Family is devastated. ICU team notes SOFA score of 18. Synthesize an approach to management and decision-making.
- A. Transfer to ECMO center for consideration of VA-ECMO as bridge to hemipelvectomy
- B. Multidisciplinary meeting with surgery, ICU, palliative care, and family to discuss realistic outcomes, quality of life, and patient values before decision (Correct Answer)
- C. Continue medical management for 24 hours and proceed with hemipelvectomy only if shock improves
- D. Decline surgery based on futility given SOFA score >15 and initiate comfort care
- E. Proceed with hemipelvectomy immediately as only chance for survival with informed consent from family
SIRS and sepsis definitions Explanation: ***Multidisciplinary meeting with surgery, ICU, palliative care, and family to discuss realistic outcomes, quality of life, and patient values before decision***
- In high-acuity cases with refractory shock and high **SOFA scores (>15)**, shared decision-making is essential to align surgical intervention with the patient’s **goals of care**.
- This approach ensures that the **prognosis**, which carries a high risk of mortality and morbidity from **hemipelvectomy**, is transparently communicated by the entire medical team.
*Transfer to ECMO center for consideration of VA-ECMO as bridge to hemipelvectomy*
- **VA-ECMO** is generally not indicated in septic shock with refractory vasoplegia and severe multi-organ failure as it doesn't solve the **source control** issue.
- The logistics and physiological stress of a transfer in the setting of **1.2 mcg/kg/min norepinephrine** would be highly unstable and likely fatal.
*Continue medical management for 24 hours and proceed with hemipelvectomy only if shock improves*
- Delaying source control in **necrotizing fasciitis** while shock is worsening usually leads to death, as medical management alone cannot overcome the focus of infection.
- Waiting for improvement in the setting of a **lactate of 15 mmol/L** and triple vasopressors is unrealistic without definitive surgical intervention.
*Decline surgery based on futility given SOFA score >15 and initiate comfort care*
- While the **SOFA score** indicates a very high mortality risk, unilateral physician declaration of **medical futility** is ethically complex and can damage family trust.
- Comfort care should remain a possibility, but first requires a thorough **interdisciplinary discussion** to ensure legal and ethical standards are met.
*Proceed with hemipelvectomy immediately as only chance for survival with informed consent from family*
- Performing such a **mutilating surgery** without a detailed discussion of the expected **quality of life** and long-term functional loss is poor surgical practice.
- Immediate surgery without addressing the massive **operative mortality** risk ignores the patient's potential preference for a dignified death over a futile procedure.
SIRS and sepsis definitions US Medical PG Question 9: A 52-year-old woman with septic shock from intra-abdominal infection undergoes emergency exploratory laparotomy for perforated diverticulitis with fecal peritonitis. Surgery reveals extensive contamination requiring damage control approach. Postoperatively, she requires norepinephrine 0.8 mcg/kg/min plus vasopressin 0.04 units/min, has lactate of 8.5 mmol/L, temperature 35.2°C, INR 2.8, pH 7.18, and base deficit -12. Planned return to OR is in 48 hours. Evaluate the priority interventions to optimize outcome.
- A. Immediate return to OR for definitive repair and anastomosis
- B. Start therapeutic hypothermia and delay reoperation until hemodynamically stable off vasopressors
- C. Initiate high-dose vasopressors to maintain MAP >75 mmHg and early enteral nutrition
- D. Administer massive transfusion protocol and emergency re-exploration within 6 hours
- E. Aggressive rewarming, correction of coagulopathy, ongoing resuscitation, and source control at planned reoperation (Correct Answer)
SIRS and sepsis definitions Explanation: ***Aggressive rewarming, correction of coagulopathy, ongoing resuscitation, and source control at planned reoperation***
- This patient presents with the **lethal triad** (coagulopathy, acidosis, and hypothermia) in the setting of **septic shock**, necessitating physiologic stabilization before definitive surgery.
- The gold standard for **damage control** is to stabilize the patient in the ICU by correcting **base deficit**, improving **lactate clearance**, and restoring normal temperature and coagulation parameters.
*Immediate return to OR for definitive repair and anastomosis*
- Attempting **definitive repair** or anastomosis in an unstable patient with fecal peritonitis and high-dose **vasopressor requirements** carries a prohibited risk of dehiscence and death.
- Surgery should be limited to **staged re-intervention** only after the metabolic and physiologic insults have been partially reversed.
*Start therapeutic hypothermia and delay reoperation until hemodynamically stable off vasopressors*
- **Hypothermia** is a component of the lethal triad that worsens **coagulopathy** by inhibiting the clotting cascade; metabolic rewarming is required, not cooling.
- While stability is the goal, waiting to be completely off vasopressors might dangerously delay **source control** if the infection is driving the shock.
*Initiate high-dose vasopressors to maintain MAP >75 mmHg and early enteral nutrition*
- Focus should be on **volume resuscitation** and reversing tissue hypoxia (lactate) rather than solely escalating vasopressors, which can cause **mesenteric ischemia**.
- **Early enteral nutrition** is contraindicated in the immediate postoperative phase of an open abdomen with significant **hemodynamic instability** and high pressor requirements.
*Administer massive transfusion protocol and emergency re-exploration within 6 hours*
- **Massive transfusion protocol** is typically reserved for active, uncontrolled hemorrhage, whereas this patient primarily requires reversal of **septic shock** and metabolic derangements.
- **Re-exploration within 6 hours** is too early for a damage control patient who has not yet been adequately rewarmed or had their **acidosis** corrected.
SIRS and sepsis definitions US Medical PG Question 10: A 70-year-old man with recently diagnosed small cell lung cancer presents with septic shock from pneumonia. After initial resuscitation, he requires norepinephrine 0.6 mcg/kg/min and has a lactate of 7.8 mmol/L. His SOFA score is 14. The family requests 'everything be done,' but the patient had previously told his oncologist he would not want prolonged intensive care if his cancer prognosis was poor. Staging shows extensive-stage disease. The ICU team debates goals of care. What represents the most ethically appropriate approach to decision-making?
- A. Continue maximum therapy per family wishes as they are legal decision-makers
- B. Obtain ethics consultation to overrule family wishes based on futility
- C. Arrange urgent palliative care consultation and family meeting to discuss patient's previously expressed wishes and realistic prognosis (Correct Answer)
- D. Continue current therapy for 72 hours then reassess based on clinical trajectory
- E. Transition to comfort care based on poor oncologic prognosis and high SOFA score
SIRS and sepsis definitions Explanation: ***Arrange urgent palliative care consultation and family meeting to discuss patient's previously expressed wishes and realistic prognosis***
- The most ethically sound approach is to use **substituted judgment**, which prioritizes the patient's **previously expressed wishes** about avoiding prolonged intensive care.
- A **multidisciplinary family meeting** helps reconcile medical reality with patient values, ensuring informed **shared decision-making** rather than a unilateral or discordant approach.
*Continue maximum therapy per family wishes as they are legal decision-makers*
- While families are **surrogate decision-makers**, their role is to advocate for what the **patient would want**, not their own personal desires.
- Blindly following "everything be done" ignores the patient's prior statement to his oncologist and risks providing **non-beneficial treatment**.
*Obtain ethics consultation to overrule family wishes based on futility*
- The term **medical futility** is often controversial; ethics consultations are designed to **mediate conflicts** rather than simply provide a mechanism to overrule families.
- Unilateral decisions should only follow exhaustive attempts at **communication and mediation**, which have not yet occurred in this case.
*Continue current therapy for 72 hours then reassess based on clinical trajectory*
- A "time-limited trial" is a valid tool but fails to address the immediate ethical conflict regarding the **patient's autonomous refusal** of prolonged care.
- This approach may unnecessarily prolong the dying process and ignore the **prognostic alignment** required between the oncology and ICU teams.
*Transition to comfort care based on poor oncologic prognosis and high SOFA score*
- Clinicians should not unilaterally transition to **comfort care** without discussing the patient's prognosis and values with the family/surrogates first.
- While the **high SOFA score** and extensive cancer indicate a poor prognosis, the process must respect the legal and ethical requirements of **informed consent and withdrawal of care**.
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