COPD management and exacerbations US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice US Medical PG questions for COPD management and exacerbations. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
COPD management and exacerbations US Medical PG Question 1: A 63-year-old man presents to the clinic with fever accompanied by shortness of breath. The symptoms developed a week ago and have been progressively worsening over the last 2 days. He reports his cough is productive of thick, yellow sputum. He was diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease 3 years ago and has been on treatment ever since. He quit smoking 10 years ago but occasionally experiences shortness of breath along with chest tightness that improves with the use of an inhaler. However, this time the symptoms seem to be more severe and unrelenting. His temperature is 38.6°C (101.4°F), the respirations are 21/min, the blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg, and the pulse is 105/min. Auscultation reveals bilateral crackles and expiratory wheezes. His oxygen saturation is 95% on room air. According to this patient’s history, which of the following should be the next step in the management of this patient?
- A. Chest X-ray (Correct Answer)
- B. Arterial blood gases
- C. Bronchoprovocation test
- D. Bronchoscopy
- E. CT scan
COPD management and exacerbations Explanation: ***Chest X-ray***
- A **chest X-ray** is a crucial initial step to evaluate for **pneumonia** or other acute pulmonary processes, given the fever, productive cough, and worsening respiratory symptoms in a patient with COPD [1].
- It can identify infiltrates, effusions, or other anatomical changes that explain the patient's acute decompensation [1].
*Arterial blood gases*
- While important for assessing **respiratory failure** and guiding ventilator management, **ABGs** are usually performed after initial imaging to quantify gas exchange abnormalities once an etiology is suspected [1].
- The patient's **oxygen saturation of 95% on room air** does not immediately suggest severe hypoxemia, although hypercapnia could still be present.
*Bronchoprovocation test*
- A **bronchoprovocation test** is used to diagnose **asthma** or assess **airway hyperresponsiveness** in stable patients.
- It is contraindicated in acute exacerbations due to the risk of worsening bronchoconstriction.
*Bronchoscopy*
- **Bronchoscopy** is an invasive procedure typically reserved for cases of suspicion of **tumor**, **foreign body aspiration**, or non-resolving infiltrates and would not be the immediate next step for fever and productive cough.
- It is not indicated for the initial diagnosis of community-acquired pneumonia or COPD exacerbation.
*CT scan*
- A **CT scan** provides more detailed imaging but is usually reserved for cases where the chest X-ray is inconclusive or to look for specific pathologies like **pulmonary embolism** or **bronchiectasis**.
- It's not the initial imaging choice for suspected **pneumonia** due to cost, radiation exposure, and the adequacy of X-ray for this purpose [1].
COPD management and exacerbations US Medical PG Question 2: A 48-year-old man presents with a productive cough and occasional dyspnea on exertion. He has experienced these symptoms for the past 6 years. Patient denies weight loss, night sweats, or hemoptysis. Past medical history is significant for arterial hypertension, diagnosed 3 years ago, and diabetes mellitus type 2, diagnosed 5 years ago. He also has allergic rhinitis with exacerbations in the spring. The current medications include 12.5 mg of lisinopril and 1,000 mg of metformin daily. The patient reports a 30-pack-year smoking history. He works as a financial advisor and is physically inactive. The vital signs are within normal limits. The BMI is 44.9 kg/m2. Upon physical examination, lung auscultation is significant for occasional wheezes over both lungs. The spirometry shows an FEV1 of 59% of predicted. Which of the following interventions would be most useful to slow the progression of this patient’s most likely condition?
- A. Discontinuing lisinopril
- B. Increasing physical activity
- C. Weight reduction
- D. Smoking cessation (Correct Answer)
- E. Identifying and avoiding contact with an allergen
COPD management and exacerbations Explanation: ***Smoking cessation***
- The patient presents with **chronic productive cough**, dyspnea on exertion, and a **30-pack-year smoking history**, along with spirometry showing an **FEV1 of 59% predicted**, all highly suggestive of **Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)**.
- **Smoking cessation** is the **single most effective intervention** to slow the progression of COPD, as continued smoking causes ongoing inflammation and destruction of lung tissue.
*Discontinuing lisinopril*
- While **ACE inhibitors like lisinopril can cause a dry cough**, this patient's cough is productive and has lasted for 6 years, predating his 3-year history of hypertension and lisinopril use.
- Discontinuing an ACE inhibitor would not address the underlying **COPD** or significantly impact its progression.
*Increasing physical activity*
- **Physical activity** is beneficial for overall health and can improve exercise tolerance in patients with COPD, but it does **not slow the progression of lung damage**.
- It is an important part of pulmonary rehabilitation, but not the primary intervention to halt disease progression.
*Weight reduction*
- The patient has a **BMI of 44.9 kg/m2**, indicating **severe obesity**, which can exacerbate dyspnea and overall respiratory function.
- **Weight reduction** can improve symptoms and quality of life in obese patients with COPD, but it does **not directly slow the progression of the lung disease** itself.
*Identifying and avoiding contact with an allergen*
- The patient has a history of **allergic rhinitis**, suggesting allergic sensitization, and occasional wheezes, but his primary symptoms of chronic productive cough and significant FEV1 reduction over 6 years are more consistent with **COPD** due to smoking.
- While managing allergies is important for symptom control, it will **not slow the progression of COPD**, as chronic tobacco smoke exposure is the main driver.
COPD management and exacerbations US Medical PG Question 3: A 57-year-old woman presents to her physician’s office because she is coughing up blood. She says that she first observed a somewhat reddish sputum a few months ago. However, over the past couple of weeks, the amount of blood she coughs has significantly increased. She has been smoking for the past 30 years. She says that she smokes about 2 packs of cigarettes daily. She does not have fever, night sweats, weight loss, or chills. She reports progressive difficulty in breathing. On examination, her vital signs are stable. On auscultation of her chest, she has an expiratory wheeze. Oxygen saturation is 98%. Which of the following would be the next best step in the management of this patient?
- A. Bronchoscopy
- B. CT scan
- C. Oxygen supplementation
- D. Endoscopy
- E. Chest radiograph (Correct Answer)
COPD management and exacerbations Explanation: **Chest radiograph**
- A **chest radiograph** is the most appropriate initial diagnostic step in a patient with hemoptysis and a significant smoking history. It helps identify potential causes like lung cancer, pneumonia, or tuberculosis.
- Given the patient's long smoking history and progressive symptoms, a chest X-ray can quickly reveal suspicious lesions or infiltrates guiding further investigation.
*Bronchoscopy*
- While eventually likely needed, **bronchoscopy** is generally performed after initial imaging (like a chest X-ray) has identified a potential area of concern or if the X-ray is normal but suspicion for a bronchial lesion remains high.
- It allows for direct visualization of the airways and biopsies, but it's not the very first step in evaluating **stable hemoptysis**.
*CT scan*
- A **CT scan** of the chest provides more detailed imaging than a chest X-ray and is often the next step if the X-ray is abnormal or inconclusive.
- However, for initial assessment in a stable patient, a chest X-ray is typically performed first due to its lower cost, radiation exposure, and quick availability.
*Oxygen supplementation*
- The patient's **oxygen saturation is 98%**, indicating she is not in acute respiratory distress requiring immediate oxygen supplementation.
- Oxygen is a supportive measure, not a diagnostic step to determine the cause of **hemoptysis**.
*Endoscopy*
- **Endoscopy** (referring to upper gastrointestinal endoscopy) is used to investigate bleeding from the gastrointestinal tract, not the respiratory system.
- **Hemoptysis** is blood coughed up from the lungs, while **hematemesis** is vomiting blood from the GI tract.
COPD management and exacerbations US Medical PG Question 4: A 21-year-old woman comes to the physician for the evaluation of dry cough and some chest tightness for the past several weeks. The cough is worse at night and while playing volleyball. She frequently has a runny nose and nasal congestion. Her mother has systemic lupus erythematosus. The patient has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for the last 5 years. She does not drink alcohol. Her only medication is cetirizine. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of 98%. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- A. CT scan of the chest
- B. Spirometry (Correct Answer)
- C. Laboratory studies
- D. Methacholine challenge test
- E. Blood gas analysis
COPD management and exacerbations Explanation: ***Spirometry***
- The patient's symptoms (dry cough, chest tightness, worse at night and with activity) are highly suggestive of **asthma**.
- **Spirometry** is the initial recommended diagnostic test to assess for reversible airway obstruction, which is characteristic of asthma.
*CT scan of the chest*
- A CT scan of the chest is generally reserved for evaluating structural lung diseases, persistent or atypical symptoms, or when other diagnoses (e.g., malignancy, interstitial lung disease) are suspected.
- Given the classic asthma-like symptoms, a **less invasive and more direct physiological test** is indicated first.
*Laboratory studies*
- Routine laboratory studies are typically **not helpful** in the initial diagnosis of asthma.
- While allergy testing or inflammatory markers might be considered later, they do not directly assess airway function to confirm asthma.
*Methacholine challenge test*
- A **methacholine challenge test** is used to diagnose **asthma** when spirometry results are normal but asthma is still strongly suspected.
- It is often considered if initial spirometry with bronchodilator reversal is inconclusive, rather than as a first-line diagnostic step.
*Blood gas analysis*
- Blood gas analysis measures oxygen and carbon dioxide levels in the blood and is used to assess the severity of respiratory failure or acid-base status.
- It is **not a primary diagnostic tool for asthma**, especially in a patient with normal vital signs and pulse oximetry.
COPD management and exacerbations US Medical PG Question 5: A 32-year-old man is brought into the emergency department by his friends. The patient was playing soccer when he suddenly became short of breath. The patient used his albuterol inhaler with minimal improvement in his symptoms. He is currently struggling to breathe. The patient has a past medical history of asthma and a 25 pack-year smoking history. His current medications include albuterol, fluticasone, and oral prednisone. His temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), blood pressure is 137/78 mmHg, pulse is 120/min, respirations are 27/min, and oxygen saturation is 88% on room air. On pulmonary exam, the patient exhibits no wheezing with bilateral minimal air movement. The patient’s laboratory values are ordered as seen below.
Hemoglobin: 15 g/dL
Hematocrit: 43%
Leukocyte count: 5,500/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 194,000/mm^3
Serum:
Na+: 138 mEq/L
Cl-: 102 mEq/L
K+: 4.4 mEq/L
HCO3-: 24 mEq/L
BUN: 20 mg/dL
Glucose: 120 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.0 mg/dL
Ca2+: 10.2 mg/dL
pH: 7.44
PaCO2: 10 mmHg
PaO2: 60 mmHg
AST: 12 U/L
ALT: 10 U/L
The patient is started on an albuterol nebulizer, magnesium sulfate, and tiotropium bromide. Repeat vitals reveal an oxygen saturation of 90% with a pulse of 115/min. Laboratory values are repeated as seen below.
pH: 7.40
PaCO2: 44 mmHg
PaO2: 64 mmHg
Which of the following is the next best step in management of this patient?
- A. Continue current management with close observation
- B. Begin IV steroids
- C. Intubation (Correct Answer)
- D. Begin oral steroids
- E. Terbutaline
COPD management and exacerbations Explanation: ***Intubation***
- The patient presents with **severe asthma exacerbation** indicated by minimal air movement despite no wheezing, **hypoxia (SpO2 88%)**, and respiratory distress (RR 27/min, HR 120/min).
- The initial **PaCO2 of 10 mmHg** suggests hyperventilation due to severe distress; the subsequent rise to **44 mmHg** after treatment, despite clinical deterioration, indicates **impending respiratory failure** and exhaustion, necessitating intubation.
*Continue current management with close observation*
- The patient's **oxygen saturation remains low (90%)** and **PaCO2 has dangerously normalized from 10 to 44 mmHg**, indicating worsening respiratory failure, not improvement.
- **Close observation without escalation** is inappropriate given the signs of treatment failure and impending decompensation.
*Begin IV steroids*
- The patient is already on **oral prednisone** and is likely receiving IV steroids in the ED; however, steroids have a **delayed onset of action** and will not acutely address the respiratory failure.
- While important for managing asthma exacerbation, **steroids alone are insufficient** to prevent immediate respiratory collapse in this critical scenario.
*Begin oral steroids*
- The patient is already on **oral prednisone**, and in an acute, severe exacerbation requiring hospitalization, **IV steroids are preferred** for faster absorption if steroids haven't been initiated.
- **Oral steroids will not provide the rapid therapeutic effect** needed to reverse acute respiratory failure and may lead to aspiration in a patient with respiratory distress.
*Terbutaline*
- **Terbutaline is a beta-2 agonist** similar to albuterol, and the patient has already shown **minimal improvement with albuterol and other bronchodilators**.
- While it can be considered, it is **unlikely to provide significant additional benefit** or resolve impending respiratory failure when conventional bronchodilators have failed.
COPD management and exacerbations US Medical PG Question 6: A 40-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 2-year history of gradually worsening shortness of breath. He smoked half a pack of cigarettes daily for 10 years but stopped 8 years ago. His pulse is 72/min, blood pressure is 135/75 mm Hg, and respirations are 20/min. Examination shows an increased anteroposterior diameter of the chest. Diminished breath sounds are heard on auscultation of the chest. An x-ray of the chest shows widened intercostal spaces, a flattened diaphragm, and bilateral hyperlucency of the lung bases. This patient's condition puts him at greatest risk for which of the following conditions?
- A. Antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody-positive vasculitis
- B. Bronchiolitis obliterans
- C. IgA nephropathy
- D. Bronchogenic carcinoma (Correct Answer)
- E. Hepatocellular carcinoma
COPD management and exacerbations Explanation: ***Bronchogenic carcinoma***
- The patient's presentation with **shortness of breath**, history of **smoking**, and chest X-ray findings (increased AP diameter, flattened diaphragm, hyperlucency) are highly suggestive of **emphysema**, a strong risk factor for bronchogenic carcinoma.
- While he stopped smoking 8 years ago, his past smoking history significantly increases his lifetime risk for lung cancer, and emphysema itself is an independent risk factor for malignancies.
*Antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody-positive vasculitis*
- This condition involves systemic inflammation of blood vessels, often affecting the **lungs and kidneys**, but there are no clinical or radiological findings suggestive of vasculitis here.
- There is no mention of symptoms like **hematuria**, **rash**, or other systemic inflammatory signs that would point towards ANCA-positive vasculitis.
*Bronchiolitis obliterans*
- This is a rare, severe obstructive lung disease often caused by toxic inhalant exposure (e.g., **sulfur mustard**, **diacetyl**) or as a complication of **lung transplantation** or **rheumatoid arthritis**, none of which are indicated in this patient.
- While it can cause shortness of breath, the characteristic imaging findings in this patient (hyperlucency, flattened diaphragm) are more indicative of **emphysema**, not bronchiolitis obliterans.
*IgA nephropathy*
- This is a **primary glomerulonephritis** characterized by IgA deposits in the glomeruli, leading to **hematuria** and **proteinuria**, and is not related to the patient's respiratory symptoms or imaging findings.
- There is no clinical information provided that would suggest renal involvement.
*Hepatocellular carcinoma*
- This is a **primary liver cancer** typically associated with chronic liver diseases like **hepatitis B** or **C infections**, **cirrhosis**, or **alcohol abuse**, none of which are suggested in the patient's history.
- The patient's symptoms and diagnostic findings are entirely focused on the respiratory system, with no indication of liver disease.
COPD management and exacerbations US Medical PG Question 7: A 65-year-old man comes to the physician for a follow-up examination. He has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and was recently discharged from the hospital for an exacerbation. His cough and chills have since improved, but his mobility is still severely limited by dyspnea and fatigue. He smoked 2 packs of cigarettes daily for 30 years, but quit 5 years ago. His medications include inhaled daily budesonide, formoterol, and tiotropium bromide plus ipratropium/albuterol as needed. Pulmonary function testing shows an FEV1 of 27% of predicted. Resting oxygen saturation ranges from 84–88%. Which of the following steps in management is most likely to increase the chance of survival in this patient?
- A. Oxygen therapy (Correct Answer)
- B. Inhaled fluticasone
- C. Antibiotic therapy
- D. Oral roflumilast
- E. Oral theophylline
COPD management and exacerbations Explanation: ***Oxygen therapy***
- This patient has **severe COPD** (FEV1 27% predicted) and **chronic hypoxemia** (SpO2 84-88%). Long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) is proven to increase survival in such patients by reducing **pulmonary hypertension** and improving cardiac function.
- The goal of LTOT is to maintain a **PaO2 > 60 mmHg** or an **SaO2 > 90%** at rest, during sleep, and with exertion.
*Inhaled fluticasone*
- While inhaled corticosteroids like fluticasone can reduce exacerbations in patients with severe COPD and frequent exacerbations, they do not consistently improve **survival** in the way oxygen therapy does for chronic hypoxemia.
- This patient is already on budesonide, another inhaled corticosteroid, making an additional ICS unlikely to provide significant further survival benefit.
*Antibiotic therapy*
- **Antibiotics** are used to treat acute bacterial exacerbations of COPD, which this patient recently experienced and has improved from (cough and chills have improved).
- There is no indication for **chronic antibiotic therapy** for survival benefit in stable COPD unless there are specific indications like frequent exacerbations or bronchiectasis.
*Oral roflumilast*
- **Roflumilast** is a phosphodiesterase-4 inhibitor used in severe COPD with a history of exacerbations to reduce exacerbation frequency, particularly in patients with chronic bronchitis phenotype.
- While it can improve lung function and reduce exacerbations, it has not been shown to improve **survival** directly.
*Oral theophylline*
- **Theophylline** is a bronchodilator with a narrow therapeutic window and potential for significant side effects, often used as an alternative or add-on therapy in COPD.
- While it can improve symptoms and lung function, it has not been demonstrated to improve **survival** in patients with severe COPD and chronic hypoxemia.
COPD management and exacerbations US Medical PG Question 8: A 65-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 10-month history of progressive shortness of breath and a cough productive of a small amount of white phlegm. Bilateral end-expiratory wheezing is heard on auscultation of the chest. Pulmonary function tests show total lung capacity that is 108% of predicted, an FEV1 that is 56% of predicted, and an FEV1:FVC ratio of 62%. Which of the following interventions is most likely to slow the decline in FEV1 in this patient?
- A. Salmeterol therapy
- B. Fluticasone therapy
- C. Smoking cessation (Correct Answer)
- D. Alpha-1 antitrypsin therapy
- E. Breathing exercises
COPD management and exacerbations Explanation: ***Smoking cessation***
- This patient's symptoms (progressive shortness of breath, cough, end-expiratory wheezing) and PFT results (reduced FEV1, reduced FEV1:FVC ratio, normal TLC) are highly suggestive of **COPD**, which is primarily caused by smoking.
- **Smoking cessation** is the only intervention clearly shown to slow the rate of FEV1 decline in patients with COPD, thereby improving long-term prognosis.
*Salmeterol therapy*
- **Salmeterol** is a long-acting beta-agonist (LABA) that provides bronchodilation and symptom relief in COPD.
- While it improves symptoms and quality of life, it does **not alter the natural history of the disease** or slow the decline in FEV1.
*Fluticasone therapy*
- **Fluticasone** is an inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) used in COPD, often in combination with LABAs, particularly for patients with frequent exacerbations.
- ICS therapy can reduce exacerbations but does **not slow the FEV1 decline** in COPD and may increase the risk of pneumonia.
*Alpha-1 antitrypsin therapy*
- **Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency** is a genetic cause of emphysema, typically presenting at a younger age or with a strong family history. This patient's history does not directly point to this diagnosis.
- While augmentation therapy with alpha-1 antitrypsin can slow lung function decline in genetically deficient individuals, it is **ineffective for typical smoking-induced COPD**.
*Breathing exercises*
- **Breathing exercises**, such as pursed-lip breathing, are components of pulmonary rehabilitation programs.
- They can improve symptoms, exercise tolerance, and quality of life but do **not impact the underlying disease progression** or FEV1 decline in COPD.
COPD management and exacerbations US Medical PG Question 9: A 70-year-old man presents to a physician with a cough and difficulty breathing during the last 7 years. He has smoked since his teenage years and regularly inhales tiotropium, formoterol, and budesonide and takes oral theophylline. The number of exacerbations has been increasing over the last 6 months. His temperature is 37.2°C (99°F), the heart rate is 92/min, the blood pressure is 134/88 mm Hg and the respiratory rate is 26/min. On chest auscultation breath sounds are diffusely decreased and bilateral rhonchi are present. Pulse oximetry shows his resting oxygen saturation to be 88%. Chest radiogram shows a flattened diaphragm, hyperlucency of the lungs, and a long, narrow heart shadow. The physician explains this condition to the patient and emphasizes the importance of smoking cessation. In addition to this, which of the following is most likely to reduce the risk of mortality from the condition?
- A. Roflumilast
- B. Low-dose oral prednisone
- C. Pulmonary rehabilitation
- D. Supplemental oxygen (Correct Answer)
- E. Prophylactic azithromycin
COPD management and exacerbations Explanation: ***Supplemental oxygen***
- The patient's **resting oxygen saturation of 88%** indicates significant hypoxemia, which, if chronic, places a high burden on the cardiovascular system and is a strong predictor of premature mortality in **COPD**.
- **Long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT)** for at least 15 hours a day has been shown to improve survival in patients with severe chronic hypoxemia due to COPD.
*Roflumilast*
- **Roflumilast** is a phosphodiesterase-4 inhibitor that reduces inflammation and is used to decrease exacerbations in severe COPD associated with chronic bronchitis and a history of frequent exacerbations.
- While it can improve lung function and reduce exacerbations, it has not been shown to reduce mortality directly.
*Low-dose oral prednisone*
- **Oral corticosteroids** are primarily used for acute exacerbations of COPD, not for long-term maintenance due to significant systemic side effects like osteoporosis, muscle weakness, and increased infection risk.
- While they can temporarily reduce inflammation, chronic low-dose use is not recommended for mortality benefit and may cause harm in the long run.
*Pulmonary rehabilitation*
- **Pulmonary rehabilitation** is a comprehensive program that improves exercise tolerance, dyspnea, and quality of life in patients with COPD.
- It does not directly reduce mortality but significantly improves functional status and potentially reduces hospitalizations.
*Prophylactic azithromycin*
- **Prophylactic azithromycin** can reduce the frequency of exacerbations in select patients with severe COPD, likely due to its anti-inflammatory and immunomodulatory properties, as well as its bactericidal effect.
- Similar to roflumilast, it reduces exacerbations but has not been shown to reduce mortality directly in COPD patients.
COPD management and exacerbations US Medical PG Question 10: A 68-year-old, overweight gentleman with a 20-pack-year history of smoking presents to the primary care physician after noticing multiple blood-stained tissues after coughing attacks in the last month. His vital signs are within normal limits except for an O2 saturation of 93% on room air. He states that over the last 5 years his cough has continued to worsen and has never truly improved. He states that his shortness of breath has also worsened over this time period, as now he can barely make it up the flight of stairs in his home. In this patient, what is the most likely cause of his hemoptysis?
- A. Chronic bronchitis
- B. Bronchogenic carcinoma (Correct Answer)
- C. Lung abscess
- D. Acute pulmonary edema
- E. Goodpasture's disease
COPD management and exacerbations Explanation: ***Bronchogenic carcinoma (Lung cancer)***
- **Hemoptysis in a smoker is lung cancer until proven otherwise** - this is a critical clinical principle in respiratory medicine.
- This patient has major risk factors: **20-pack-year smoking history**, age 68, and chronic progressive symptoms.
- **Hemoptysis** is a common presenting symptom of lung cancer, occurring in 20-50% of patients, caused by tumor invasion of bronchial vessels.
- The **chronic progressive dyspnea** and **worsening cough over 5 years** suggest an evolving mass lesion or bronchial obstruction.
- **Hypoxemia** (O2 sat 93%) indicates significant pulmonary compromise.
- While this patient likely has underlying COPD/chronic bronchitis as a comorbidity, the presence of hemoptysis mandates urgent evaluation for malignancy.
*Chronic bronchitis*
- While this patient likely has chronic bronchitis (a type of COPD) given the smoking history and chronic productive cough, **hemoptysis is NOT a typical feature** of uncomplicated chronic bronchitis.
- Hemoptysis in chronic bronchitis is rare and usually minimal; its presence should prompt investigation for other causes, particularly malignancy.
- Chronic bronchitis explains the dyspnea and chronic cough but does not explain the hemoptysis.
*Lung abscess*
- A lung abscess typically presents with **acute onset of fever**, chills, night sweats, and **foul-smelling purulent sputum**, none of which are mentioned in this case.
- The **chronic, progressive nature over five years** is inconsistent with an acute infectious process.
*Acute pulmonary edema*
- Acute pulmonary edema presents with **sudden onset of severe dyspnea**, orthopnea, and often pink frothy sputum due to acute cardiac decompensation.
- The **gradual progression over five years** rules out an acute cardiac event.
- Vital signs are stable, with no mention of cardiac findings.
*Goodpasture's disease*
- This rare autoimmune disorder causes **pulmonary-renal syndrome** with glomerulonephritis and pulmonary hemorrhage.
- Typically affects younger patients (20s-30s) with acute presentation.
- There are **no renal symptoms** (hematuria, oliguria, elevated creatinine) to suggest this diagnosis.
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