Intra-abdominal infections US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice US Medical PG questions for Intra-abdominal infections. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Intra-abdominal infections US Medical PG Question 1: A 42-year-old man with chronic hepatitis C is admitted to the hospital because of jaundice and abdominal distention. He is diagnosed with decompensated liver cirrhosis, and treatment with diuretics is begun. Two days after admission, he develops abdominal pain and fever. Physical examination shows tense ascites and diffuse abdominal tenderness. Paracentesis yields cloudy fluid with elevated polymorphonuclear (PMN) leukocyte count. A drug with which of the following mechanisms is most appropriate for this patient's condition?
- A. Free radical creation within bacterial cell
- B. Inhibition of bacterial 50S subunit
- C. Inhibition of bacterial RNA polymerase
- D. Inhibition of bacterial peptidoglycan crosslinking (Correct Answer)
- E. Inhibition of bacterial DNA gyrase
Intra-abdominal infections Explanation: ***Inhibition of bacterial peptidoglycan crosslinking***
- The patient's symptoms (fever, abdominal pain, diffuse tenderness, cloudy ascitic fluid with elevated PMN count) are highly suggestive of **spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP)**, a common complication of decompensated cirrhosis.
- The most appropriate treatment for SBP is **broad-spectrum antibiotics**, typically a third-generation cephalosporin like **cefotaxime** or **ceftriaxone**, which work by inhibiting bacterial peptidoglycan crosslinking in the cell wall (beta-lactam mechanism).
- These agents provide excellent coverage against the common gram-negative enteric pathogens (especially *E. coli*) that cause SBP.
*Free radical creation within bacterial cell*
- This mechanism is characteristic of **nitroimidazoles** (e.g., metronidazole), which are effective against anaerobic bacteria and certain protozoa.
- While anaerobes can occasionally be involved in secondary peritonitis, empiric treatment for SBP typically targets gram-negative enteric bacteria, for which nitroimidazoles are not first-line choices.
*Inhibition of bacterial 50S subunit*
- This mechanism is common to **macrolides** (e.g., azithromycin) and **lincosamides** (e.g., clindamycin).
- These antibiotics are generally not first-line empiric treatment for SBP, which primarily requires coverage of gram-negative aerobes.
*Inhibition of bacterial RNA polymerase*
- This is the mechanism of action for **rifampin**, which is primarily used for tuberculosis and prophylaxis against certain bacterial meningitis (e.g., *N. meningitidis*).
- Rifampin is not suitable as empiric monotherapy for SBP given the typical causative pathogens.
*Inhibition of bacterial DNA gyrase*
- This is the mechanism of **fluoroquinolones** (e.g., ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin), which inhibit DNA gyrase (topoisomerase II) and topoisomerase IV, preventing bacterial DNA replication.
- Fluoroquinolones can be used for SBP treatment and prophylaxis, but third-generation cephalosporins remain the preferred first-line empiric therapy for acute SBP in most clinical guidelines.
Intra-abdominal infections US Medical PG Question 2: A 23-year-old man comes to his primary care provider after having severe abdominal cramping and diarrhea beginning the previous night. He denies any fevers or vomiting. Of note, he reports that he works in a nursing home and that several residents of the nursing home exhibited similar symptoms this morning. On exam, his temperature is 99.7°F (37.6°C), blood pressure is 116/80 mmHg, pulse is 88/min, and respirations are 13/min. His stool is cultured on blood agar and it is notable for a double zone of hemolysis. Which of the following organisms is the most likely cause?
- A. Clostridium difficile
- B. Listeria monocytogenes
- C. Clostridium perfringens (Correct Answer)
- D. Enterococcus faecalis
- E. Streptococcus pneumoniae
Intra-abdominal infections Explanation: ***Clostridium perfringens***
- The patient's symptoms of **abdominal cramping** and **diarrhea** without fever or vomiting, along with the rapid onset and the presence of similar symptoms in others at the nursing home, are classic for **food poisoning** caused by *Clostridium perfringens*.
- The **double zone of hemolysis** on blood agar is a characteristic laboratory finding for this bacterium, produced by its alpha-toxin and theta-toxin.
*Clostridium difficile*
- This organism primarily causes **pseudomembranous colitis** and is typically associated with **antibiotic use** or in hospitalized patients, causing severe watery diarrhea, often with fever.
- It does not typically present with the acute, self-limiting food poisoning symptoms described, and its detection usually involves toxin assays, not characteristic hemolytic patterns on blood agar.
*Listeria monocytogenes*
- *Listeria monocytogenes* is associated with **meningitis** in immunocompromised individuals, pregnant women, and neonates, and can cause mild gastroenteritis, but less commonly epidemic outbreaks of diarrhea in this setting.
- It does not produce a double zone of hemolysis on blood agar.
*Enterococcus faecalis*
- *Enterococcus faecalis* is a common cause of **urinary tract infections** and endocarditis, and can occasionally be associated with diarrheal diseases, but it is not typically associated with food poisoning outbreaks of this nature.
- It does not produce a double zone of hemolysis on blood agar.
*Streptococcus pneumoniae*
- *Streptococcus pneumoniae* is a common cause of **pneumonia**, otitis media, and meningitis, and is not associated with gastrointestinal symptoms like diarrhea or food poisoning.
- It typically exhibits alpha-hemolysis on blood agar (partial hemolysis), not a double zone of hemolysis.
Intra-abdominal infections US Medical PG Question 3: A 12-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department late at night by his worried mother. She says he has not been feeling well since this morning after breakfast. He skipped both lunch and dinner. He complains of abdominal pain as he points towards his lower abdomen but says that the pain initially started at the center of his belly. His mother adds that he vomited once on the way to the hospital. His past medical history is noncontributory and his vaccinations are up to date. His temperature is 38.1°C (100.6°F), pulse is 98/min, respirations are 20/min, and blood pressure is 110/75 mm Hg. Physical examination reveals right lower quadrant tenderness. The patient is prepared for laparoscopic abdominal surgery. Which of the following structures is most likely to aid the surgeons in finding the source of this patient's pain and fever?
- A. McBurney's point
- B. Linea Semilunaris
- C. Transumbilical plane
- D. Arcuate line
- E. Teniae coli (Correct Answer)
Intra-abdominal infections Explanation: ***Teniae coli***
- The **teniae coli** are three distinct longitudinal bands of smooth muscle that run along the length of the large intestine, converging at the base of the appendix. They serve as reliable anatomical landmarks for locating the appendix during surgery.
- Given the patient's symptoms (periumbilical pain migrating to the right lower quadrant, fever, vomiting, and right lower quadrant tenderness), **acute appendicitis** is highly suspected, making the teniae coli crucial for surgical identification of the inflamed appendix.
*McBurney's point*
- **McBurney's point** is a clinical landmark on the abdominal wall, two-thirds of the way from the umbilicus to the right anterior superior iliac spine, that often corresponds to the base of the appendix. It is used to elicit tenderness during physical examination.
- While tenderness at McBurney's point is a strong indicator of appendicitis, it is a **surface landmark** for diagnosis and not an internal anatomical structure that aids the surgeon in _finding_ the appendix during a laparoscopic procedure.
*Linea Semilunaris*
- The **linea semilunaris** is the curved tendinous intersection found at the lateral border of the rectus abdominis muscle, extending from the costal margin to the pubic tubercle.
- It defines the lateral extent of the rectus sheath but has **no direct anatomical relationship** to the appendix or its surgical identification.
*Transumbilical plane*
- The **transumbilical plane** is an imaginary horizontal plane passing through the umbilicus. It is used in topographical anatomy for abdominal segmentation.
- It is a **surface and arbitrary anatomical plane** for regional description, not an internal structure that guides surgical access to or identification of the appendix.
*Arcuate line*
- The **arcuate line** is a crescent-shaped anatomical landmark located on the posterior wall of the rectus sheath, inferior to the umbilicus, marking the transition where the aponeuroses of the transverse abdominis and internal oblique muscles pass anterior to the rectus abdominis.
- This line is relevant to the integrity of the rectus sheath but is **anatomically distant from the appendix** and does not assist in its surgical localization.
Intra-abdominal infections US Medical PG Question 4: A 41-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department with the acute-onset of severe abdominal pain for the past 2 hours. She has a history of frequent episodes of vague abdominal pain, but they have never been this severe. Every time she has had pain, it would resolve after eating a meal. Her past medical history is otherwise insignificant. Her vital signs include: blood pressure 121/77 mm Hg, pulse 91/min, respiratory rate 21/min, and temperature 37°C (98.6°F). On examination, her abdomen is flat and rigid. Which of the following is the next best step in evaluating this patient’s discomfort and stomach pain by physical exam?
- A. Auscultate the abdomen (Correct Answer)
- B. Elicit shifting dullness of the abdomen
- C. Perform light palpation at the point of maximal pain
- D. Attempt to perform a deep, slow palpation with quick release
- E. Percuss the point of maximal pain
Intra-abdominal infections Explanation: ***Auscultate the abdomen***
- Auscultation is typically performed first in an abdominal exam to assess **bowel sounds** and identify any bruits, as palpation and percussion can alter bowel sound characteristics.
- While the patient has **peritonitis (rigid abdomen)**, initial auscultation is still the logical starting point for a comprehensive physical examination.
*Elicit shifting dullness of the abdomen*
- **Shifting dullness** is used to detect **ascites**, which is not the primary concern given the acute onset of severe pain and rigid abdomen.
- This maneuver typically comes later in the abdominal examination, after initial auscultation and palpation.
*Perform light palpation at the point of maximal pain*
- Given the patient's **rigid abdomen**, suggesting peritonitis, performing palpation (even light) at the point of maximal pain could cause significant discomfort and is secondary to initial auscultation in the *sequence* of physical exam.
- While palpation is crucial, the standard order in an abdominal exam begins with auscultation to ensure unchanged bowel sounds.
*Attempt to perform a deep, slow palpation with quick release*
- This describes evaluating for **rebound tenderness**, a sign of peritonitis, which is indeed suggested by the rigid abdomen.
- However, just like light palpation, this maneuver is performed *after* auscultation and is likely to cause significant pain in a patient with a rigid abdomen, making it not the very next best step.
*Percuss the point of maximal pain*
- Percussion is typically used to assess for **gas, fluid, or organ size/tenderness**, but it is performed after auscultation and before deep palpation in a standard abdominal exam.
- In a patient with a **rigid abdomen**, percussion can also elicit severe pain, and it does not precede auscultation in the examination sequence.
Intra-abdominal infections US Medical PG Question 5: A 51-year-old man with a recent diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease currently treated with an oral proton pump inhibitor twice daily presents to the urgent care center complaining of acute abdominal pain which began suddenly less than 2 hours ago. On physical exam, you find his abdomen to be mildly distended, diffusely tender to palpation, and positive for rebound tenderness. Given the following options, what is the next best step in patient management?
- A. Serum gastrin level
- B. Urgent CT abdomen and pelvis (Correct Answer)
- C. H. pylori testing
- D. Abdominal radiographs
- E. Upper endoscopy
Intra-abdominal infections Explanation: ***Urgent CT abdomen and pelvis***
- The sudden onset of severe abdominal pain, diffuse tenderness, and **rebound tenderness** in a patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease (PUD) suggests a **perforated ulcer**, which is a surgical emergency.
- A CT scan is the **most sensitive imaging modality** for detecting **free air** (pneumoperitoneum) and can confirm the diagnosis with >95% sensitivity, helping to localize the perforation and identify complications such as abscess formation.
- CT also helps evaluate alternative diagnoses in the acute abdomen and provides detailed anatomic information for surgical planning.
*Serum gastrin level*
- This test is primarily used in the diagnosis of **Zollinger-Ellison syndrome**, a rare condition characterized by gastrinomas leading to severe, refractory PUD.
- It is not indicated in an acute emergency setting with signs of perforation, as it would delay critical diagnostic imaging and management.
*H. pylori testing*
- **_H. pylori_ infection** is a common cause of PUD, but testing for it is part of routine initial management or follow-up for chronic disease.
- Testing would not address the immediate life-threatening complication of suspected perforation and would delay definitive diagnosis.
*Abdominal radiographs*
- An upright chest X-ray or abdominal radiograph can detect **free air under the diaphragm** in cases of perforation and is a reasonable initial imaging test.
- However, plain radiographs have lower sensitivity (75-80%) compared to CT scan and may miss smaller perforations or provide insufficient information about the location and extent of injury.
- In modern practice with readily available CT, cross-sectional imaging is preferred for its superior diagnostic accuracy in evaluating the acute abdomen.
*Upper endoscopy*
- **Upper endoscopy** is a valuable diagnostic and therapeutic tool for stable PUD but is **absolutely contraindicated** in cases of suspected or confirmed hollow viscus perforation.
- Introducing an endoscope with air insufflation could worsen the perforation and lead to further contamination of the peritoneal cavity, increasing morbidity and mortality.
Intra-abdominal infections US Medical PG Question 6: A 68-year-old man presents to the emergency department with left lower quadrant abdominal pain and fever for 1 day. He states during this time frame he has had weight loss and a decreased appetite. The patient had surgery for a ruptured Achilles tendon 1 month ago and is still recovering but is otherwise generally healthy. His temperature is 102°F (38.9°C), blood pressure is 154/94 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, respirations are 15/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam is remarkable for an uncomfortable and thin man with left lower quadrant abdominal tenderness without rebound findings. Fecal occult test for blood is positive. Laboratory studies are ordered as seen below.
Hemoglobin: 10 g/dL
Hematocrit: 30%
Leukocyte count: 3,500/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 157,000/mm^3
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- A. Ceftriaxone and metronidazole
- B. Ciprofloxacin and metronidazole
- C. Colonoscopy
- D. CT abdomen (Correct Answer)
- E. MRI abdomen
Intra-abdominal infections Explanation: ***CT abdomen***
- A **CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis** is the most appropriate initial diagnostic step for acute left lower quadrant pain with fever, leukopenia, and a positive fecal occult blood test, as it can efficiently evaluate for **diverticulitis**, bowel perforation, or **colonic malignancy**.
- The patient's presentation with constitutional symptoms like **weight loss and decreased appetite** in an older male, along with signs of anemia and occult blood, raises concern for **colorectal cancer**, making imaging a critical next step to differentiate potential etiologies.
*Ceftriaxone and metronidazole*
- While this is a common antibiotic regimen for suspected **diverticulitis**, it should not be initiated without definitive imaging, especially given the patient's concerning systemic symptoms and signs of **anemia and occult bleeding**, which could indicate a more serious underlying condition.
- Empirical antibiotic therapy without a clear diagnosis could delay the identification of conditions like **colorectal cancer** or abscess, which require different management strategies.
*Ciprofloxacin and metronidazole*
- This is also a typical antibiotic combination for uncomplicated **diverticulitis**; however, giving antibiotics without confirmation of the diagnosis via imaging is inappropriate in this case due to the patient's **systemic symptoms** and signs of **GI bleeding**.
- Without imaging to rule out intestinal perforation or malignancy, starting antibiotics could mask symptoms or delay crucial diagnostic and therapeutic interventions.
*Colonoscopy*
- A **colonoscopy** is indicated to investigate the **positive fecal occult blood** and rule out colorectal malignancy, but it is generally *contraindicated* in the acute setting of suspected diverticulitis due to the risk of **perforation**.
- Imaging (like CT) should always precede colonoscopy when acute abdominal pain and inflammation are present to assess for safety and guide the timing of endoscopy.
*MRI abdomen*
- While **MRI provides excellent soft tissue delineation**, it is typically not the first-line imaging modality for acute abdominal pain presentations in the emergency department.
- **CT scans are faster, more readily available**, and provide comprehensive imaging of the bowel, mesentery, and surrounding structures, making them superior for initial evaluation of acute abdominal conditions like diverticulitis or perforation.
Intra-abdominal infections US Medical PG Question 7: A 28-year-old male presents to his primary care physician with complaints of intermittent abdominal pain and alternating bouts of constipation and diarrhea. His medical chart is not significant for any past medical problems or prior surgeries. He is not prescribed any current medications. Which of the following questions would be the most useful next question in eliciting further history from this patient?
- A. "Does the diarrhea typically precede the constipation, or vice-versa?"
- B. "Is the diarrhea foul-smelling?"
- C. "Please rate your abdominal pain on a scale of 1-10, with 10 being the worst pain of your life"
- D. "Are the symptoms worse in the morning or at night?"
- E. "Can you tell me more about the symptoms you have been experiencing?" (Correct Answer)
Intra-abdominal infections Explanation: ***Can you tell me more about the symptoms you have been experiencing?***
- This **open-ended question** encourages the patient to provide a **comprehensive narrative** of their symptoms, including details about onset, frequency, duration, alleviating/aggravating factors, and associated symptoms, which is crucial for diagnosis.
- In a patient presenting with vague, intermittent symptoms like alternating constipation and diarrhea, allowing them to elaborate freely can reveal important clues that might not be captured by more targeted questions.
*Does the diarrhea typically precede the constipation, or vice-versa?*
- While knowing the sequence of symptoms can be helpful in understanding the **pattern of bowel dysfunction**, it is a very specific question that might overlook other important aspects of the patient's experience.
- It prematurely narrows the focus without first obtaining a broad understanding of the patient's overall symptomatic picture.
*Is the diarrhea foul-smelling?*
- Foul-smelling diarrhea can indicate **malabsorption** or **bacterial overgrowth**, which are important to consider in some gastrointestinal conditions.
- However, this is a **specific symptom inquiry** that should follow a more general exploration of the patient's symptoms, as it may not be relevant if other crucial details are missed.
*Please rate your abdominal pain on a scale of 1-10, with 10 being the worst pain of your life*
- Quantifying pain intensity is useful for assessing the **severity of discomfort** and monitoring changes over time.
- However, for a patient with intermittent rather than acute, severe pain, understanding the **character, location, and triggers** of the pain is often more diagnostically valuable than just a numerical rating initially.
*Are the symptoms worse in the morning or at night?*
- Diurnal variation can be relevant in certain conditions, such as inflammatory bowel diseases where nocturnal symptoms might be more concerning, or functional disorders whose symptoms might be stress-related.
- This is another **specific question** that should come after gathering a more complete initial picture of the patient's symptoms to ensure no key information is overlooked.
Intra-abdominal infections US Medical PG Question 8: A 12-month-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his mother for several hours of crying and severe abdominal pain, followed by dark and bloody stools in the last hour. The mother reports that she did not note any vomiting or fevers leading up to this incident. She does report that the boy and his 7-year-old sister recently had “stomach bugs” but that both have been fine and that the sister has gone back to school. The boy was born by spontaneous vaginal delivery at 39 weeks and 5 days after a normal pregnancy. His temperature is 100.4°F (38.0°C), blood pressure is 96/72 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, respirations are 22/min. Which of the following was most likely to play a role in the pathogenesis of this patient’s disease?
- A. Vascular malformation
- B. Hyperplasia of Peyer patches (Correct Answer)
- C. Embolism to the mesenteric vessels
- D. Intestinal mass
- E. Failure of neural crest migration
Intra-abdominal infections Explanation: ***Hyperplasia of Peyer patches***
- The presentation of a 12-month-old with **severe abdominal pain**, **crying spells**, and **dark, bloody stools** (likely **currant jelly stools**) is highly suggestive of **intussusception**.
- In children, intussusception is most commonly idiopathic, but often associated with recent viral illnesses causing **lymphoid hyperplasia** (Peyer patches) in the ileum, which then acts as a lead point for telescoping.
*Vascular malformation*
- This condition is a less common cause of rectal bleeding in infants and children and typically presents with **painless rectal bleeding**.
- It does not explain the acute, severe abdominal pain and signs of obstruction seen in intussusception.
*Embolism to the mesenteric vessels*
- **Mesenteric ischemia** due to embolism is rare in this age group and usually associated with underlying cardiac conditions or clotting disorders.
- While it can cause severe abdominal pain and bloody stools, the cyclical nature of pain and absence of significant risk factors make it less likely.
*Intestinal mass*
- Although an intestinal mass can be a lead point for intussusception (especially in older children or adults), it is a less common cause in uncomplicated cases in infants compared to **Peyer patch hyperplasia**.
- An intestinal mass would typically remain a fixed mass, and symptoms might be more chronic or progress differently.
*Failure of neural crest migration*
- This describes the pathogenesis of **Hirschsprung disease**, which presents with constipation, abdominal distention, and failure to pass meconium, rather than acute severe abdominal pain and bloody stools.
- The symptoms in this patient are acute and more indicative of an obstructive process like intussusception.
Intra-abdominal infections US Medical PG Question 9: A 52-year-old-woman presents to an urgent care clinic with right upper quadrant pain for the past few hours. She admits to having similar episodes of pain in the past but milder than today. Past medical history is insignificant. She took an antacid, but it did not help. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F ), respirations are 16/min, pulse is 78/min, and blood pressure is 122/98 mm Hg. Physical examination is normal, and she says that her pain has subsided. The urgent care provider suspects she has cholecystitis, so she undergoes a limited abdominal ultrasound to confirm it. However, no evidence of cholecystitis is seen with ultrasound, but adenomyomatosis of the gallbladder is incidentally noted. The patient has no clinical features suspicious for malignancy. What is the next best step in the management of this patient?
- A. No further treatment required (Correct Answer)
- B. Barium swallow study
- C. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography
- D. Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography
- E. Cholecystectomy
Intra-abdominal infections Explanation: ***No further treatment required***
- The patient's **RUQ pain** has subsided, and the ultrasound, while revealing **adenomyomatosis**, showed no signs of **acute cholecystitis** or malignancy. Given the resolution of symptoms and benign incidental finding, no immediate further treatment is indicated.
- **Adenomyomatosis** is a benign condition of the gallbladder characterized by hyperplasia of the gallbladder wall with intramural diverticula (Rokitansky-Aschoff sinuses). In the absence of ongoing symptoms or suspicion of malignancy, it typically does not require intervention and is managed with observation only.
*Barium swallow study*
- A **barium swallow study** evaluates the **esophagus and stomach** and is not relevant for investigating gallbladder pathology or right upper quadrant pain.
- This study would be more appropriate for symptoms like **dysphagia**, odynophagia, or suspected esophageal strictures.
*Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography*
- **ERCP** is an invasive procedure primarily used for therapeutic interventions in the **biliary or pancreatic ducts**, such as stone removal or stent placement.
- It carries risks of **pancreatitis** and perforation and is not indicated for a patient with resolved symptoms and an incidental benign gallbladder finding.
*Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography*
- **MRCP** is a non-invasive imaging technique used to visualize the **biliary and pancreatic ducts** and is primarily indicated for suspected **choledocholithiasis** or **ductal abnormalities**.
- Since the patient's acute symptoms have resolved and the ultrasound was negative for choledocholithiasis, MRCP is not immediately necessary.
*Cholecystectomy*
- **Cholecystectomy** is the surgical removal of the gallbladder, typically reserved for symptomatic conditions like **cholelithiasis** causing recurrent pain or **acute cholecystitis**.
- Given that the patient's pain has resolved, and there is no evidence of acute inflammation or symptomatic gallstones, immediate surgery is unwarranted.
Intra-abdominal infections US Medical PG Question 10: A 49-year-old woman with a history of hepatitis C cirrhosis complicated by esophageal varices, ascites, and hepatic encephalopathy presents with 1 week of increasing abdominal discomfort. Currently, she takes lactulose, rifaximin, furosemide, and spironolactone. On physical examination, she has mild asterixis, generalized jaundice, and a distended abdomen with positive fluid wave. Diagnostic paracentesis yields a WBC count of 1196/uL with 85% neutrophils. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
- A. Cefotaxime (Correct Answer)
- B. Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt placement
- C. Large volume paracentesis with albumin
- D. Increased furosemide and spironolactone
- E. Metronidazole
Intra-abdominal infections Explanation: ***Cefotaxime***
- The patient presents with classic signs of **spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP)**: increasing abdominal discomfort in a cirrhotic patient with ascites, and a diagnostic paracentesis showing **ascitic fluid neutrophil count >250 cells/mm³** (1196 × 0.85 = 1016 neutrophils/μL).
- **Third-generation cephalosporins** like cefotaxime or ceftriaxone are the **first-line treatment** for SBP due to their broad-spectrum coverage against common enteric gram-negative bacteria (especially E. coli and Klebsiella).
- Treatment should be initiated promptly once SBP is diagnosed to reduce mortality.
*Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt placement*
- TIPS is primarily used for **refractory ascites** or **recurrent variceal bleeding** that is not responsive to medical management.
- It is **not indicated** for the acute treatment of SBP and would be inappropriate in the setting of active infection.
*Large volume paracentesis with albumin*
- Large volume paracentesis is used to relieve symptoms of **tense ascites** causing respiratory compromise or severe discomfort, not as a primary treatment for SBP.
- While albumin is often given with large volume paracentesis (>5L removed) to prevent post-paracentesis circulatory dysfunction, it does not treat the underlying bacterial infection.
*Increased furosemide and spironolactone*
- Diuretics like furosemide and spironolactone are used to manage **chronic ascites** by promoting fluid excretion.
- Increasing their dose will not address the active bacterial infection causing SBP and may worsen renal function in an acutely ill patient.
*Metronidazole*
- Metronidazole is primarily effective against **anaerobic bacteria** and some protozoa.
- While it might be considered in specific polymicrobial intra-abdominal infections, it is **not sufficient as monotherapy** for SBP, which commonly involves gram-negative aerobic bacteria like E. coli and Klebsiella species.
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