Central nervous system infections US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice US Medical PG questions for Central nervous system infections. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Central nervous system infections US Medical PG Question 1: A 10-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents because of a dull persistent headache beginning that morning. He has nausea and has vomited twice. During the past four days, the patient has had left-sided ear pain and fever, but his parents did not seek medical attention. He is from Thailand and is visiting his relatives in the United States for the summer. There is no personal or family history of serious illness. He is at the 45th percentile for height and 40th percentile for weight. He appears irritable. His temperature is 38.5°C (101.3°F), pulse is 110/min, and blood pressure is 98/58 mm Hg. The pupils are equal and reactive to light. Lateral gaze of the left eye is limited. The left tympanic membrane is erythematous with purulent discharge. There is no nuchal rigidity. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- A. Intravenous ceftriaxone and clindamycin therapy
- B. Lumbar puncture
- C. MRI of the brain (Correct Answer)
- D. Intravenous cefazolin and metronidazole therapy
- E. Cranial burr hole evacuation
Central nervous system infections Explanation: ***MRI of the brain***
- The patient's presentation with **headache**, **nausea**, **vomiting**, recent **ear infection** (otitis media), **fever**, and **abducens nerve palsy** (limited lateral gaze of the left eye) is highly suggestive of an intracranial complication, such as a **brain abscess** or **epidural abscess**, secondary to the uncontrolled otitis media.
- An MRI of the brain is the **most sensitive and specific imaging modality** for detecting intracranial abscesses, which are critical to diagnose promptly due to their potential for surgical drainage and targeted antibiotic therapy.
*Intravenous ceftriaxone and clindamycin therapy*
- While broad-spectrum antibiotics are necessary, they should be initiated **after establishing a definitive diagnosis and ruling out conditions requiring immediate surgical intervention**.
- Without imaging, there's a risk of delaying crucial surgical management for a contained abscess or empyema.
*Lumbar puncture*
- A lumbar puncture is **contraindicated** in the presence of focal neurological deficits (like **abducens nerve palsy**) and symptoms of **increased intracranial pressure** (headache, nausea, vomiting), as it carries a significant risk of **herniation** if there's a mass lesion.
- Imaging should always precede LP in such cases.
*Intravenous cefazolin and metronidazole therapy*
- Cefazolin has **poor penetration into the CNS**, making it an inadequate choice for suspected intracranial infection.
- While metronidazole targets anaerobes common in brain abscesses, the overall regimen is not optimal, and imaging is still the priority.
*Cranial burr hole evacuation*
- This is a definitive surgical treatment for a brain abscess but should only be performed **after the abscess has been localized and characterized by imaging**.
- Performing a burr hole without prior imaging would be a blind procedure and is not the appropriate next step in diagnosis and management.
Central nervous system infections US Medical PG Question 2: A 15-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency department by ambulance from school. He started the day with some body aches and joint pain but then had several episodes of vomiting and started complaining of a terrible headache. The school nurse called for emergency services. The boy was born at 39 weeks gestation via spontaneous vaginal delivery. He is up to date on all vaccines and is meeting all developmental milestones. Past medical history is noncontributory. He is a good student and enjoys sports. At the hospital, his blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg, heart rate is 105/min, respiratory rate is 21/min, and his temperature is 38.9°C (102.0°F). On physical exam, he appears drowsy with neck stiffness and sensitivity to light. Kernig’s sign is positive. An ophthalmic exam is performed followed by a lumbar puncture. An aliquot of cerebrospinal fluid is sent to microbiology. A gram stain shows gram-negative diplococci. A smear is prepared on blood agar and grows round, smooth, convex colonies with clearly defined edges. Which of the following would identify the described pathogen?
- A. Oxidase-positive and ferments glucose and maltose (Correct Answer)
- B. Oxidase-positive test and ferments glucose only
- C. Catalase-negative and oxidase-positive
- D. No growth on Thayer-Martin medium
- E. Growth in anaerobic conditions
Central nervous system infections Explanation: ***Oxidase-positive and ferments glucose and maltose***
- The patient's symptoms (fever, headache, neck stiffness, sensitivity to light, positive Kernig's sign) are classic for **meningitis**, and the CSF showing **gram-negative diplococci** points to *Neisseria meningitidis*.
- *Neisseria meningitidis* is identified by its positive **oxidase test** and its ability to ferment both **glucose and maltose**.
*Oxidase-positive test and ferments glucose only*
- This description corresponds to *Neisseria gonorrhoeae*, which primarily causes **gonorrhea** and occasionally meningitis due to disseminated infection but is less common in this age group and presentation.
- While *Neisseria gonorrhoeae* is also an **oxidase-positive gram-negative diplococcus**, it specifically ferments only *glucose*, not maltose.
*Catalase-negative and oxidase-positive*
- While *Neisseria meningitidis* is **oxidase-positive**, stating it is "catalase-negative" is incorrect; *Neisseria* species are actually **catalase-positive**.
- This option incorrectly describes a general metabolic property that would rule out *Neisseria meningitidis*.
*No growth on Thayer-Martin medium*
- Thayer-Martin medium is a **selective medium** specifically designed to isolate pathogenic *Neisseria species* by inhibiting the growth of commensal bacteria and fungi.
- Therefore, *Neisseria meningitidis* would **grow well** on Thayer-Martin medium, making "no growth" an incorrect identifier.
*Growth in anaerobic conditions*
- *Neisseria meningitidis* is an **obligate aerobe**, meaning it requires oxygen for growth.
- It would **not grow** in anaerobic conditions, making this statement false for identifying the described pathogen.
Central nervous system infections US Medical PG Question 3: A 26-year-old female with AIDS (CD4 count: 47) presents to the emergency department in severe pain. She states that over the past week she has been fatigued and has had a progressively worse headache and fever. These symptoms have failed to remit leading her to seek care in the ED. A lumbar puncture is performed which demonstrates an opening pressure of 285 mm H2O, increased lymphocytes, elevated protein, and decreased glucose. The emergency physician subsequently initiates treatment with IV amphotericin B and PO flucytosine. What additional treatment in the acute setting may be warranted in this patient?
- A. Serial lumbar punctures (Correct Answer)
- B. Fluconazole
- C. Mannitol
- D. Chloramphenicol
- E. Acetazolamide
Central nervous system infections Explanation: **Serial lumbar punctures**
- The elevated opening pressure (285 mm H2O) indicates **increased intracranial pressure (ICP)**, which is common in cryptococcal meningitis and can be life-threatening.
- Serial lumbar punctures can help to **reduce ICP** and relieve symptoms, improving outcomes in patients with cryptococcal meningitis.
*Fluconazole*
- Fluconazole is used for **maintenance therapy** to prevent relapse after the acute phase of cryptococcal meningitis has been controlled.
- It is generally **not recommended for initial acute treatment** in severe cases due to its fungistatic nature, making it less effective than the combination of amphotericin B and flucytosine.
*Mannitol*
- Mannitol is an **osmotic diuretic** sometimes used to acutely *reduce* ICP in cases of cerebral edema.
- While effective in some situations, it is **not the primary treatment for increased ICP** in cryptococcal meningitis, where repeated LPs are preferred to remove infected CSF and directly reduce pressure.
*Chloramphenicol*
- Chloramphenicol is an **antibiotic** primarily used to treat bacterial infections, not fungal infections.
- It has **no role in the treatment of fungal meningitis** caused by *Cryptococcus neoformans*.
*Acetazolamide*
- Acetazolamide is a **carbonic anhydrase inhibitor** that can reduce CSF production, thereby *reducing* ICP.
- While it can be used in some cases of elevated ICP, routine use in cryptococcal meningitis is **not standard practice**, and serial LPs are generally the preferred method for managing dangerously high ICP in this context due to their immediate efficacy.
Central nervous system infections US Medical PG Question 4: A 34-year-old woman presents with confusion, drowsiness, and headache. The patient’s husband says her symptoms began 2 days ago and have progressively worsened with an acute deterioration of her mental status 2 hours ago. The patient describes the headaches as severe, localized to the frontal and periorbital regions, and worse in the morning. Review of symptoms is significant for a mild, low-grade fever, fatigue, and nausea for the past week. Past medical history is significant for HIV infection for which she is not currently receiving therapy. Her CD4+ T cell count last month was 250/mm3. The blood pressure is 140/85 mm Hg, the pulse rate is 90/min, and the temperature is 37.7°C (100.0°F). On physical examination, the patient is conscious but drowsy. Papilledema is present. No pain is elicited with extension of the leg at the knee joint. The remainder of the physical examination is negative. Laboratory findings, including panculture, are ordered. A noncontrast CT scan of the head is negative and is followed by a lumbar puncture. CSF analysis is significant for:
Opening pressure 250 mm H2O (70-180 mm H2O)
Glucose 30 mg/dL (40-70 mg/dL)
Protein 100 mg/dL (<40 mg/dL)
Cell count 20/mm3 (0-5/mm3)
Which of the following additional findings would most likely be found in this patient?
- A. Gram-positive diplococci are present on microscopy
- B. CSF shows a positive acid-fast bacillus stain
- C. Multiple ring-enhancing lesions are seen on a CT scan
- D. CSF shows gram negative diplococci
- E. CSF India ink stain shows encapsulated yeast cells (Correct Answer)
Central nervous system infections Explanation: ***CSF India ink stain shows encapsulated yeast cells***
- The patient's presentation with **subacute meningitis symptoms** (headache, confusion, low-grade fever) in the setting of **untreated HIV infection** with a low CD4+ count (250/mm3) strongly suggests an opportunistic infection.
- The CSF findings of **elevated opening pressure**, **low glucose**, **high protein**, and **moderate pleocytosis** are classic for **cryptococcal meningitis**, for which the India ink stain is diagnostic for encapsulated yeast cells.
*Gram-positive diplococci are present on microscopy*
- This finding suggests **bacterial meningitis**, specifically caused by organisms like *Streptococcus pneumoniae*.
- While bacterial meningitis presents acutely with severe symptoms, the **subacute course** and moderate pleocytosis are less typical, and the patient's immune status points towards an opportunistic infection.
*CSF shows a positive acid-fast bacillus stain*
- A positive **acid-fast bacillus (AFB) stain** in CSF would indicate **tuberculous meningitis**.
- While tuberculous meningitis can present subacutely with similar CSF findings in HIV patients, it typically involves a more significant lymphocytic pleocytosis and a more pronounced chronic course than suggested by the acute worsening.
*Multiple ring-enhancing lesions are seen on a CT scan*
- **Multiple ring-enhancing lesions** on CT or MRI are characteristic of **Toxoplasma encephalopathy** or **CNS lymphoma** in HIV-positive patients.
- While these are common HIV-related CNS complications, the patient's primary presentation points to **meningitis** (inflammation of meninges with CSF abnormalities) rather than focal brain lesions without meningeal involvement.
*CSF shows gram negative diplococci*
- **Gram-negative diplococci** in CSF suggest **meningococcal meningitis** (*Neisseria meningitidis*).
- This typically presents as an **acute, severe bacterial meningitis** with rapid deterioration, usually in immunocompetent individuals or specific outbreaks, which doesn't align with the subacute onset and specific CSF profile for cryptococcus.
Central nervous system infections US Medical PG Question 5: A 21-year-old G3P2 woman presents to her obstetrician at 6 weeks gestation for routine prenatal care. Her past medical history includes obesity and gestational diabetes. She has had two spontaneous vaginal deliveries at term. One infant was macrosomic with hypoglycemia, but otherwise, she has had no complications. Her physician informs her that she must start taking a multivitamin with folic acid daily. The defect that folic acid supplementation protects against arises in tissue that is derived from which germ cell layer?
- A. Mesoderm
- B. Notochord
- C. Endoderm
- D. Mesenchyme
- E. Ectoderm (Correct Answer)
Central nervous system infections Explanation: ***Ectoderm***
- Folic acid supplementation primarily prevents **neural tube defects**, such as **spina bifida** and **anencephaly**.
- The **neural tube**, which forms the brain and spinal cord, is derived from the **ectoderm**.
*Mesoderm*
- The **mesoderm** gives rise to structures like muscle, bone, connective tissue, and the cardiovascular system.
- Defects in mesodermal development are not primarily prevented by folic acid supplementation.
*Notochord*
- The **notochord** is a transient embryonic structure that induces the formation of the neural plate from the ectoderm.
- While critical for nervous system development, it is not a germ cell layer itself, and defects in its development are not directly prevented by folic acid.
*Endoderm*
- The **endoderm** forms the lining of the gastrointestinal and respiratory tracts, as well as glands like the thyroid and pancreas.
- Anomalies of these internal organs are not the primary target of folic acid supplementation.
*Mesenchyme*
- **Mesenchyme** is embryonic connective tissue, largely derived from the mesoderm, but can also come from neural crest (ectoderm).
- It differentiates into connective tissues, blood, and lymphatic vessels; neural tube defects are not considered mesenchymal in origin.
Central nervous system infections US Medical PG Question 6: A 32-year-old woman presents with a 3-month history of intermittent blurred vision and problems walking. The patient states that she often feels “pins and needles” in her legs that cause her problems when she’s walking. The patient is afebrile, and her vital signs are within normal limits. An autoimmune disorder is suspected. Which of the following findings would most likely be present in this patient?
- A. Damaged myelin sheath and myelin-producing cells (Correct Answer)
- B. Absence of interneurons
- C. Destruction of blood-brain barrier
- D. Degeneration of anterior horn cells
- E. Decreased cerebrospinal fluid due to destruction of cells
Central nervous system infections Explanation: ***Damaged myelin sheath and myelin-producing cells***
- The patient's symptoms of intermittent **blurred vision** (optic neuritis), **problems walking** (ataxia, spasticity), and **paresthesias** ("pins and needles") are classical presentations of Multiple Sclerosis (MS).
- MS is characterized by multifocal areas of inflammation and **demyelination** in the central nervous system, where the **myelin sheath** surrounding axons is damaged, and the **oligodendrocytes** (myelin-producing cells) are attacked.
- This demyelination disrupts saltatory conduction, leading to the varied and intermittent neurological symptoms.
*Absence of interneurons*
- The absence of **interneurons** is typically associated with conditions like **spinal muscular atrophy** or certain **neuropathies**, which present with different clinical features (e.g., muscle weakness, atrophy) than those described.
- While interneurons are crucial for neuronal communication, their absence doesn't explain the *intermittent* and multifocal symptoms seen in this case.
*Destruction of blood-brain barrier*
- While **blood-brain barrier (BBB) breakdown** does occur in MS, it is a *consequence* of the inflammatory process rather than the primary *pathological finding* that directly explains the neurological symptoms.
- BBB destruction allows inflammatory cells to enter the CNS, contributing to demyelination, but the core issue remains the myelin damage itself.
*Degeneration of anterior horn cells*
- **Anterior horn cell degeneration** is the hallmark of **amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)** and **spinal muscular atrophy**, presenting with progressive muscle weakness, atrophy, and fasciculations.
- These conditions lack the sensory symptoms (paresthesias) and visual disturbances seen in this patient, and typically show a progressive rather than intermittent course.
*Decreased cerebrospinal fluid due to destruction of cells*
- **Decreased CSF volume** is not a characteristic feature of MS; in fact, CSF analysis often shows increased protein and **oligoclonal bands**.
- The destruction of cells in MS primarily affects myelin and oligodendrocytes, not cells responsible for CSF production or volume regulation.
Central nervous system infections US Medical PG Question 7: A 3-year-old boy is brought to the physician for the evaluation of recurrent skin lesions. The episodes of lesions started at the age of 3 months. He has also had several episodes of respiratory tract infections, enlarged lymph nodes, and recurrent fevers since birth. The boy attends daycare. The patient's immunizations are up-to-date. He is at the 5th percentile for length and 10th percentile for weight. He appears ill. Temperature is 38°C (100.4°F). Examination shows several raised, erythematous lesions of different sizes over the face, neck, groin, and extremities; some are purulent. Bilateral cervical and axillary lymphadenopathy are present. What is the most likely underlying mechanism of this patient's symptoms?
- A. Defective cytoplasmic tyrosine kinase
- B. NADPH oxidase deficiency (Correct Answer)
- C. Impaired signaling to actin cytoskeleton reorganization
- D. Defective neutrophil chemotaxis
- E. Impaired repair of double-strand DNA breaks
Central nervous system infections Explanation: ***NADPH oxidase deficiency***
- The recurrent skin abscesses (purulent lesions), respiratory tract infections, lymphadenopathy, and fevers point to chronic granulomatous disease (CGD), which is caused by a deficiency in **NADPH oxidase**.
- **NADPH oxidase** is essential for the production of reactive oxygen species (ROS) in phagocytes, which are critical for killing catalase-positive bacteria and fungi.
*Defective cytoplasmic tyrosine kinase*
- This mechanism is associated with **X-linked agammaglobulinemia (Bruton's agammaglobulinemia)**, which primarily causes recurrent bacterial infections due to a lack of B cells and antibodies.
- While recurrent infections occur, the typical presentation involves encapsulated bacteria and lacks the widespread purulent skin lesions and lymphadenopathy seen in CGD.
*Impaired signaling to actin cytoskeleton reorganization*
- This defect is characteristic of **Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome**, leading to thrombocytopenia, eczema, and recurrent infections, particularly by encapsulated bacteria.
- The clinical picture of recurrent widespread skin abscesses and granuloma formation is not typical for Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome.
*Defective neutrophil chemotaxis*
- This can be seen in conditions like **leukocyte adhesion deficiency (LAD)** or **Chédiak-Higashi syndrome**.
- LAD presents with recurrent bacterial infections, impaired wound healing, and delayed umbilical cord separation, while Chédiak-Higashi involves partial oculocutaneous albinism and recurrent pyogenic infections, distinct from this patient's symptoms.
*Impaired repair of double-strand DNA breaks*
- This defect is associated with conditions like **ataxia-telangiectasia**, which involves cerebellar ataxia, telangiectasias, and immunodeficiency (T-cell and IgA deficiency).
- The patient's symptoms of recurrent purulent skin lesions and infections are not characteristic of the DNA repair defects seen in ataxia-telangiectasia.
Central nervous system infections US Medical PG Question 8: A 33-year-old man is brought to the emergency department 20 minutes after he fell from the roof of his house. On arrival, he is unresponsive to verbal and painful stimuli. His pulse is 72/min and blood pressure is 132/86 mm Hg. A CT scan of the head shows a fracture in the anterior cranial fossa and a 1-cm laceration in the left anterior orbital gyrus. If the patient survives, which of the following would ultimately be the most common cell type at the injured region of the frontal lobe?
- A. Microglia
- B. Oligodendrocytes
- C. Neurons
- D. Schwann cells
- E. Astrocytes (Correct Answer)
Central nervous system infections Explanation: ***Astrocytes***
- Following **neuronal injury**, astrocytes proliferate rapidly and form a **glial scar** around the damaged area to isolate it and prevent further spread of damage.
- This process, known as **astrogliosis**, leads to astrocytes becoming the most abundant cell type in the chronically injured region of the central nervous system.
*Microglia*
- **Microglia** are the brain's resident immune cells and are primarily involved in **phagocytosis** of cellular debris and pathogens after injury.
- While they are activated and proliferate early after injury, they typically do not become the most common cell type in the *chronically injured* region.
*Oligodendrocytes*
- **Oligodendrocytes** are responsible for forming the **myelin sheath** around axons in the central nervous system.
- They are often damaged during acute brain injury and do not typically proliferate to become the most common cell type in the scar tissue.
*Neurons*
- **Neurons** are the primary cells affected by acute brain injury, and many are irrecoverably lost at the site of trauma.
- The adult central nervous system has very limited capacity for neurogenesis, so neurons do not regenerate or become the most common cell type after injury.
*Schwann cells*
- **Schwann cells** are responsible for myelinating axons in the **peripheral nervous system (PNS)**.
- They are not found in the central nervous system (CNS) region of brain injury and therefore would not be involved in the repair or scarring process there.
Central nervous system infections US Medical PG Question 9: A researcher is studying receptors that respond to epinephrine in the body and discovers a particular subset that is expressed in presynaptic adrenergic nerve terminals. She discovers that upon activation, these receptors will lead to decreased sympathetic nervous system activity. She then studies the intracellular second messenger changes that occur when this receptor is activated. She records these changes and begins searching for analogous receptor pathways. Which of the following receptors would cause the most similar set of intracellular second messenger changes?
- A. Muscarinic cholinoreceptors in the gastrointestinal tract
- B. Growth hormone receptors in the musculoskeletal system
- C. Vasopressin receptors in the kidney
- D. Dopamine receptors in the brain (Correct Answer)
- E. Aldosterone receptors in the kidney
Central nervous system infections Explanation: ***Dopamine receptors in the brain***
- The described presynaptic receptors for epinephrine that decrease sympathetic activity are **alpha-2 adrenergic receptors**, which are **G inhibitory protein (Gi)-coupled receptors**.
- Gi-coupled receptors **inhibit adenylyl cyclase**, leading to a **decrease in intracellular cAMP**, a signaling pathway shared by **D2 dopamine receptors**.
*Muscarinic cholinoreceptors in the gastrointestinal tract*
- Most muscarinic receptors (M1 and M3) in the GI tract are **Gq-coupled**, leading to an **increase in phospholipase C (PLC) activity**, ultimately increasing intracellular **IP3 and DAG** and promoting smooth muscle contraction.
- This mechanism is distinct from the **Gi-mediated inhibition of cAMP** described for the presynaptic adrenergic receptor.
*Growth hormone receptors in the musculoskeletal system*
- Growth hormone receptors are **tyrosine kinase-associated receptors** (specifically, they are linked to **JAK/STAT pathways**), not G protein-coupled receptors.
- Their intracellular signaling involves **protein phosphorylation cascades**, which are fundamentally different from second messenger changes involving cAMP.
*Vasopressin receptors in the kidney*
- Vasopressin (ADH) acts on **V2 receptors** in the kidney, which are **G stimulatory protein (Gs)-coupled receptors**.
- Activation of V2 receptors leads to an **increase in adenylyl cyclase activity** and thus an **increase in intracellular cAMP**, the opposite effect of the described Gi-coupled receptor.
*Aldosterone receptors in the kidney*
- Aldosterone receptors are **intracellular steroid hormone receptors** that directly bind to DNA and regulate gene transcription.
- They do not engage in rapid intracellular second messenger changes like G protein-coupled receptors, but rather alter **protein synthesis** over hours to days.
Central nervous system infections US Medical PG Question 10: A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a fever and weakness. He states his symptoms started yesterday and have been gradually worsening. The patient has a past medical history of obesity, diabetes, alcohol abuse, as well as a 30 pack-year smoking history. He lives in a nursing home and has presented multiple times in the past for ulcers and delirium. His temperature is 103°F (39.4°C), blood pressure is 122/88 mmHg, pulse is 129/min, respirations are 24/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Physical exam is notable for a murmur. The patient is started on vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam and is admitted to the medicine floor. During his hospital stay, blood cultures grow Streptococcus bovis and his antibiotics are appropriately altered. A transesophageal echocardiograph is within normal limits. The patient’s fever decreases and his symptoms improve. Which of the following is also necessary in this patient?
- A. Addiction medicine referral
- B. Colonoscopy (Correct Answer)
- C. Social work consult for elder abuse
- D. Repeat blood cultures for contamination concern
- E. Replace the patient’s central line and repeat echocardiography
Central nervous system infections Explanation: ***Colonoscopy***
- The isolation of **_Streptococcus bovis_** (now often referred to as _Streptococcus gallolyticus_) from blood cultures is highly associated with **colorectal neoplasms** or other gastrointestinal pathologies.
- A comprehensive workup, including a **colonoscopy**, is crucial to identify the underlying source of bacteremia and screen for malignancy.
*Addiction medicine referral*
- While the patient has a history of **alcohol abuse**, there is no indication that his current presentation or the discovery of _Streptococcus bovis_ necessitates an immediate addiction medicine referral as the primary next step from an acute management perspective.
- Addiction management is an important long-term consideration but not the most pressing diagnostic need.
*Social work consult for elder abuse*
- The patient lives in a **nursing home** and has a history of delirium and frequent hospitalizations for ulcers, which can be concerning. However, there are no specific signs or symptoms presented in this vignette that directly suggest elder abuse as the reason for his current _S. bovis_ bacteremia, making it a less immediate priority compared to diagnosing the source of infection.
- While a general social work assessment might be beneficial for a vulnerable patient in a nursing home, it is not the most necessary intervention based on the microbiological finding.
*Repeat blood cultures for contamination concern*
- The question states that **_Streptococcus bovis_** blood cultures "grew" and antibiotics were "appropriately altered," suggesting a confirmed infection rather than contamination.
- Furthermore, _S. bovis_ is a known pathogen with specific associations and is not typically considered a common contaminant in the same vein as coagulase-negative staphylococci.
*Replace the patient’s central line and repeat echocardiography*
- The patient's **transesophageal echocardiogram (TEE) was normal**, ruling out endocarditis as the source of bacteremia in this case.
- There is no mention of a central line, and even if there were, the normal TEE and the specific pathogen (_S. bovis_) point towards a gastrointestinal source.
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