Guideline-directed medical therapy US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice US Medical PG questions for Guideline-directed medical therapy. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Guideline-directed medical therapy US Medical PG Question 1: A 55-year-old male is hospitalized for acute heart failure. The patient has a 20-year history of alcoholism and was diagnosed with diabetes mellitus type 2 (DM2) 5 years ago. Physical examination reveals ascites and engorged paraumbilical veins as well as 3+ pitting edema around both ankles. Liver function tests show elevations in gamma glutamyl transferase and aspartate transaminase (AST). Of the following medication, which most likely contributed to this patient's presentation?
- A. Glargine
- B. Pramlintide
- C. Pioglitazone (Correct Answer)
- D. Glipizide
- E. Metformin
Guideline-directed medical therapy Explanation: ***Pioglitazone***
- **Pioglitazone**, a thiazolidinedione, is known to cause **fluid retention** and can exacerbate or precipitate **congestive heart failure**.
- The patient's presentation with **ascites**, **pitting edema**, and **acute heart failure** is consistent with the adverse effects of this medication, especially in a patient with risk factors like alcoholism.
*Glargine*
- **Glargine** is a **long-acting insulin** analog primarily used to control blood glucose levels in diabetes.
- It does not typically cause **fluid retention** or worsen **heart failure** directly, making it an unlikely contributor to these specific symptoms.
*Pramlintide*
- **Pramlintide** is an **amylin analog** used to improve glycemic control by slowing gastric emptying and suppressing glucagon secretion.
- It is not associated with **fluid retention** or the exacerbation of **heart failure**.
*Glipizide*
- **Glipizide** is a **sulfonylurea** that stimulates insulin release from pancreatic beta cells.
- While it can cause hypoglycemia, it does not typically contribute to **fluid retention** or worsen **heart failure**.
*Metformin*
- **Metformin** is a **biguanide** that reduces hepatic glucose production and increases insulin sensitivity.
- It is generally considered **cardioprotective** and does not cause **fluid retention** or exacerbate **heart failure**.
Guideline-directed medical therapy US Medical PG Question 2: A 70-year-old Caucasian male visits your office regularly for treatment of New York Heart association class IV congestive heart failure. Which of the following medications would you add to this man's drug regimen in order to improve his overall survival?
- A. Spironolactone (Correct Answer)
- B. Furosemide
- C. Amiloride
- D. Acetazolamide
- E. Hydrochlorothiazide
Guideline-directed medical therapy Explanation: ***Spironolactone***
- **Spironolactone** is an **aldosterone antagonist** that has been shown to reduce mortality and morbidity in patients with **NYHA Class III and IV heart failure**.
- It works by blocking the harmful effects of **aldosterone** on the heart, such as **fibrosis** and remodeling, improving cardiac function and survival.
*Furosemide*
- **Furosemide** is a **loop diuretic** primarily used to relieve **symptoms of congestion** (edema, dyspnea) in heart failure by promoting fluid excretion.
- While it improves symptoms, **furosemide** alone does not significantly improve long-term survival in patients with heart failure.
*Amiloride*
- **Amiloride** is a **potassium-sparing diuretic** that works by blocking sodium channels in the collecting duct, leading to modest diuresis.
- It is often used to prevent **hypokalemia** caused by other diuretics but does not have the same proven mortality benefit in heart failure as spironolactone.
*Acetazolamide*
- **Acetazolamide** is a **carbonic anhydrase inhibitor** primarily used for glaucoma, metabolic alkalosis, and altitude sickness.
- It has a weaker diuretic effect and is not a commonly used or recommended medication for improving long-term survival in patients with heart failure.
*Hydrochlorothiazide*
- **Hydrochlorothiazide** is a **thiazide diuretic** primarily used for hypertension and mild to moderate edema.
- While it can help manage fluid retention, it does not offer the same mortality benefit in advanced heart failure as aldosterone antagonists like spironolactone.
Guideline-directed medical therapy US Medical PG Question 3: A 46-year-old African American man presents to the physician with dyspnea on exertion for the past 2 months. He also has occasional episodes of coughing at night. He says that he has been healthy most of his life. He is a non-smoker and a non-alcoholic. He does not have hypercholesterolemia or ischemic heart disease. His father died due to congestive heart failure. On physical examination, the pulse rate was 116/min, the blood pressure was 164/96 mm Hg, and the respiratory rate was 20/min. Chest auscultation reveals bilateral fine crepitations at the lung bases. A complete diagnostic work-up suggests a diagnosis of hypertension with heart failure due to left ventricular dysfunction. Which of the following drug combinations is most likely to benefit the patient?
- A. Amlodipine-Atenolol
- B. Amlodipine-Valsartan
- C. Metoprolol-Atorvastatin
- D. Isosorbide dinitrate-Hydralazine (Correct Answer)
- E. Atenolol-Hydrochlorothiazide
Guideline-directed medical therapy Explanation: ***Isosorbide dinitrate-Hydralazine***
- This combination is specifically **guideline-recommended for self-identified African American patients with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF)** based on the A-HeFT trial, which demonstrated significant mortality benefit in this population.
- **Hydralazine reduces afterload** through direct arterial vasodilation, while **isosorbide dinitrate reduces preload** through venodilation, providing synergistic hemodynamic benefits that improve symptoms and survival.
- This combination is typically used as **adjunctive therapy** to standard HF medications (ACE inhibitors/ARBs, beta-blockers, diuretics).
*Amlodipine-Atenolol*
- **Atenolol, a non-selective beta-blocker**, lacks proven mortality benefit in heart failure and is not among the preferred beta-blockers (carvedilol, metoprolol succinate, or bisoprolol) for HFrEF management.
- **Amlodipine, a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker**, is not a first-line agent for heart failure treatment and does not provide mortality benefit in HFrEF, though it can be used for additional blood pressure control if needed.
*Amlodipine-Valsartan*
- **Valsartan is an ARB (angiotensin receptor blocker)**, which is indeed a cornerstone therapy for heart failure, but this combination does not provide the additional mortality benefit specifically demonstrated for African American patients with HFrEF.
- While guideline-directed medical therapy including ARBs is important, the **hydralazine-nitrate combination offers proven incremental benefit** in this specific patient population when added to standard therapy.
*Metoprolol-Atorvastatin*
- **Metoprolol succinate** is an appropriate beta-blocker for heart failure when titrated properly, but this combination lacks the specific mortality benefit proven for African American patients with HFrEF.
- **Atorvastatin is a statin** used for lipid management and cardiovascular risk reduction, but the patient has no documented hypercholesterolemia or ischemic heart disease, making this combination less appropriate.
- Statins do not directly address heart failure pathophysiology or provide mortality benefit in HFrEF in the absence of other indications.
*Atenolol-Hydrochlorothiazide*
- **Atenolol** is not a preferred beta-blocker for heart failure due to its lack of proven mortality benefit compared to carvedilol, metoprolol succinate, or bisoprolol.
- **Hydrochlorothiazide, a thiazide diuretic**, helps manage fluid overload and hypertension but does not offer the mortality reduction or comprehensive hemodynamic benefits of the hydralazine-nitrate combination specifically proven in this patient population.
Guideline-directed medical therapy US Medical PG Question 4: A 70-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 6-month-history of worsening shortness of breath on exertion and bouts of coughing while sleeping. He has hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Current medications include lisinopril, simvastatin, and insulin. The patient appears tired but in no acute distress. His pulse is 70/min, blood pressure is 140/85 mm Hg, and respirations are 25/min. He has crackles over both lower lung fields and 2+ pitting edema of the lower extremities. An ECG shows T wave inversions in leads V1 to V4. Which of the following agents is most likely to improve the patient's long-term survival?
- A. Dobutamine
- B. Amlodipine
- C. Digoxin
- D. Gemfibrozil
- E. Metoprolol (Correct Answer)
Guideline-directed medical therapy Explanation: ***Metoprolol***
- The patient's symptoms (shortness of breath on exertion, coughing while sleeping, crackles, edema) and medical history (hypertension, hyperlipidemia, diabetes) point to **chronic heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF)**. The patient is already on lisinopril (an ACE inhibitor), which is one cornerstone of HF therapy. Beta-blockers like metoprolol are another crucial medication class proven to improve **long-term survival in HFrEF** by reducing cardiac remodeling, myocardial oxygen demand, and arrhythmias.
- Metoprolol is a **selective beta-1 adrenergic blocker** that slows heart rate, reduces blood pressure, and decreases myocardial contractility, leading to improved cardiac efficiency and reduced mortality in chronic heart failure. The three beta-blockers with proven mortality benefit are metoprolol succinate, carvedilol, and bisoprolol.
*Dobutamine*
- **Dobutamine** is an inotropic agent used for **acute decompensated heart failure** to improve cardiac output and relieve symptoms in hospitalized patients.
- It does not improve long-term survival and is typically used in the short term for patients with severe systolic dysfunction and hypoperfusion or cardiogenic shock.
*Amlodipine*
- **Amlodipine** is a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker primarily used for **hypertension and angina**.
- While it can lower blood pressure, it has **not been shown to improve long-term survival** in heart failure; some non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers (diltiazem, verapamil) may even worsen HF outcomes due to negative inotropic effects.
*Digoxin*
- **Digoxin** is a cardiac glycoside that improves symptoms and reduces hospitalizations in heart failure, particularly in patients with **atrial fibrillation** or persistent symptoms despite optimal therapy.
- However, it has **not been shown to improve long-term survival** in heart failure (DIG trial showed neutral mortality effect) and has a narrow therapeutic window requiring monitoring.
*Gemfibrozil*
- **Gemfibrozil** is a fibrate used to treat **hypertriglyceridemia**.
- It primarily affects lipid metabolism and has **no direct role in the management of heart failure** or in improving long-term survival in this context.
Guideline-directed medical therapy US Medical PG Question 5: A 70-year-old male presents for an annual exam. His past medical history is notable for shortness of breath when he sleeps, and upon exertion. Recently he has experienced dyspnea and lower extremity edema that seems to be worsening. Both of these symptoms have resolved since he was started on several medications and instructed to weigh himself daily. Which of the following is most likely a component of his medical management?
- A. Lidocaine
- B. Verapamil
- C. Carvedilol (Correct Answer)
- D. Aspirin
- E. Ibutilide
Guideline-directed medical therapy Explanation: ***Carvedilol***
- The patient exhibits classic symptoms of **heart failure**, such as **dyspnea on exertion**, **orthopnea** (shortness of breath when he sleeps), and **lower extremity edema**.
- **Beta-blockers** like carvedilol are essential for managing **chronic heart failure** by reducing myocardial oxygen demand and improving cardiac function.
*Lidocaine*
- **Lidocaine** is primarily an **antiarrhythmic drug** used for acute treatment of **ventricular arrhythmias**, not for chronic heart failure management.
- It works by blocking sodium channels and has no direct benefit in addressing the underlying pathophysiology of heart failure.
*Verapamil*
- **Verapamil** is a **non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker** typically used for hypertension, angina, and supraventricular tachyarrhythmias.
- It can have **negative inotropic effects**, which are generally contraindicated or used with extreme caution in patients with **systolic heart failure** due to its potential to worsen cardiac function.
*Aspirin*
- **Aspirin** is an **antiplatelet agent** used for primary or secondary prevention of **atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease** (e.g., in patients with coronary artery disease).
- It does not directly manage the symptoms or pathophysiology of **heart failure** unless there is a coexisting ischemic etiology.
*Ibutilide*
- **Ibutilide** is an **antiarrhythmic drug** specifically used for the rapid conversion of **atrial flutter and atrial fibrillation** of recent onset to sinus rhythm.
- It is not a medication used for the long-term management of **heart failure** symptoms described in the patient.
Guideline-directed medical therapy US Medical PG Question 6: A 63-year-old woman presents with dyspnea on exertion. She reports that she used to work in her garden without any symptoms, but recently she started to note dyspnea and fatigue after working for 20–30 minutes. She has type 2 diabetes mellitus diagnosed 2 years ago but she does not take any medications preferring natural remedies. She also has arterial hypertension and takes torsemide 20 mg daily. The weight is 88 kg and the height is 164 cm. The vital signs include: blood pressure is 140/85 mm Hg, heart rate is 90/min, respiratory rate is 14/min, and the temperature is 36.6℃ (97.9℉). Physical examination is remarkable for increased adiposity, pitting pedal edema, and present S3. Echocardiography shows a left ventricular ejection fraction of 51%. The combination of which of the following medications would be a proper addition to the patient’s therapy?
- A. Metoprolol and indapamide
- B. Enalapril and bisoprolol (Correct Answer)
- C. Spironolactone and fosinopril
- D. Indapamide and amlodipine
- E. Valsartan and spironolactone
Guideline-directed medical therapy Explanation: ***Enalapril and bisoprolol***
- This patient presents with **heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF)**, characterized by symptoms of heart failure (dyspnea, fatigue, edema, S3 sound) with an LVEF >50%. She also has **uncontrolled hypertension** (BP 140/85) and a **heart rate of 90/min**.
- **Important:** Unlike HFrEF, **ACE inhibitors and beta-blockers have NOT demonstrated mortality benefit in HFpEF** (CHARM-Preserved, PEP-CHF trials). However, they remain important for **blood pressure control** and **symptom management** in patients with HFpEF and comorbid hypertension.
- **Enalapril** (ACE inhibitor) helps control blood pressure through reduction of preload and afterload. **Bisoprolol** (beta-blocker) provides **heart rate control** (patient's HR is 90/min) and further blood pressure reduction. Both medications address her inadequately controlled hypertension while managing symptoms.
- **Note:** Current guidelines emphasize SGLT2 inhibitors as first-line therapy for HFpEF (not offered here), along with diuretics for volume management (patient is already on torsemide) and aggressive treatment of comorbidities like hypertension and diabetes.
*Metoprolol and indapamide*
- Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that could help with rate and blood pressure control. However, **indapamide is a thiazide-like diuretic** that is redundant since the patient is already on **torsemide** (a loop diuretic) for volume management.
- This combination lacks an **ACE inhibitor or ARB** for optimal blood pressure control and neurohormonal modulation, which is important even in HFpEF for managing hypertension and its consequences.
*Spironolactone and fosinopril*
- **Spironolactone** (mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist) showed modest benefit in reducing HF hospitalizations in the TOPCAT trial for HFpEF. **Fosinopril** is an ACE inhibitor appropriate for blood pressure control.
- However, the patient has a **heart rate of 90/min**, indicating need for **rate control** which neither spironolactone nor fosinopril provides. A **beta-blocker would be more appropriate** to address both rate control and blood pressure.
- Additionally, while spironolactone has some evidence in HFpEF, the combination with an ACE inhibitor **without rate control** is suboptimal for this patient's presentation.
*Indapamide and amlodipine*
- **Indapamide** (thiazide-like diuretic) is **redundant** since the patient is already on torsemide. **Amlodipine** (calcium channel blocker) is effective for hypertension but can cause **peripheral edema**, which this patient already has (pitting pedal edema).
- **Calcium channel blockers are not recommended in heart failure** due to lack of mortality benefit and potential to worsen fluid retention. This combination does not address the underlying HFpEF pathophysiology or provide optimal symptom management.
*Valsartan and spironolactone*
- **Valsartan** (ARB) is appropriate for blood pressure control and is an alternative to ACE inhibitors. **Spironolactone** has modest evidence for reducing hospitalizations in HFpEF (TOPCAT trial).
- However, similar to the fosinopril/spironolactone combination, this lacks a **beta-blocker for heart rate control** (patient's HR is 90/min). Rate control is important for optimizing diastolic filling time in HFpEF and controlling blood pressure.
- While this combination has theoretical benefits, **enalapril and bisoprolol** better addresses both blood pressure control and rate control simultaneously.
Guideline-directed medical therapy US Medical PG Question 7: A 58-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department after 2 days of shortness of breath, orthopnea, and lower limb edema. His past medical history is significant for hypertension and a myocardial infarction 3 years ago that required a coronary arterial bypass graft. He has not been able to take prescribed medicine in several months due to recent unemployment and issues with insurance. On admission, his blood pressure is 155/92 mmHg, heart rate is 102/min, respiratory rate is 24/min, and temperature is 36.4°C (97.5°F). On physical examination there are fine rales in both lungs, regular and rhythmic cardiac sounds with an S3 gallop and a grade II/VI holosystolic murmur. Initial laboratory tests are shown below:
Na+ 140 mEq/L
K+ 4.2 mEq/L
Cl- 105 mEq/L
BUN 20 mg/dL
Creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
The patient is stabilized and admitted to the hospital. The next day his blood pressure is 110/60 mmHg, heart rate is 110/min, respiratory rate is 18/min, and temperature is 36.4°C (97.5°F). This morning's laboratory tests are shown below:
Na+ 135 mEq/L
K+ 3.2 mEq/L
Cl- 102 mEq/L
BUN 45 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.7 mg/dL
Which of the following best explains the changes seen in this patient?
- A. Urinary tract obstruction
- B. Diuretic therapy (Correct Answer)
- C. Chronic renal failure
- D. Glomerular basement membrane damage
- E. Cholesterol emboli
Guideline-directed medical therapy Explanation: ***Diuretic therapy***
- The patient's initial presentation is consistent with **acute decompensated heart failure**, characterized by shortness of breath, orthopnea, lower limb edema, rales, S3 gallop, and a holosystolic murmur (likely mitral regurgitation due to ventricle dilation). The initial normal kidney function (BUN 20, creatinine 0.8) and electrolyte values support acute heart failure.
- The subsequent drop in blood pressure (155/92 to 110/60 mmHg), increase in heart rate (102 to 110/min), and significant rises in BUN (20 to 45 mg/dL) and creatinine (0.8 to 1.7 mg/dL) with a decrease in potassium (4.2 to 3.2 mEq/L) strongly suggest **diuretic-induced volume depletion** leading to worsened renal function (prerenal azotemia) and hypokalemia.
*Urinary tract obstruction*
- This would typically present with symptoms like **dysuria**, frequency, or hesitancy, and acute kidney injury with a more prominent rise in creatinine relative to BUN, none of which are described.
- Obstruction would be less likely to cause a significant drop in blood pressure and hypokalemia, as seen in this patient.
*Chronic renal failure*
- While kidney function has worsened, the initial labs showed normal kidney function, ruling out **chronic disease** as the cause of the acute deterioration.
- Chronic renal failure would typically present with elevated BUN and creatinine for an extended period, which is not the case here.
*Glomerular basement membrane damage*
- Conditions involving **glomerular damage**, such as glomerulonephritis, typically present with proteinuria, hematuria, and often hypertension, which are not detailed in this scenario.
- The acute changes in electrolytes and BUN/creatinine are more indicative of a **hemodynamic issue** rather than a primary glomerular pathology.
*Cholesterol emboli*
- While a patient with a history of CABG is at risk for **cholesterol emboli**, this condition typically causes acute kidney injury, livedo reticularis, eosinophilia, and digital ischemia, which are not described.
- It would not explain the rapid electrolyte shifts and clear signs of volume depletion seen in this patient.
Guideline-directed medical therapy US Medical PG Question 8: A 70-year-old man presents to a physician with a cough and difficulty breathing during the last 7 years. He has smoked since his teenage years and regularly inhales tiotropium, formoterol, and budesonide and takes oral theophylline. The number of exacerbations has been increasing over the last 6 months. His temperature is 37.2°C (99°F), the heart rate is 92/min, the blood pressure is 134/88 mm Hg and the respiratory rate is 26/min. On chest auscultation breath sounds are diffusely decreased and bilateral rhonchi are present. Pulse oximetry shows his resting oxygen saturation to be 88%. Chest radiogram shows a flattened diaphragm, hyperlucency of the lungs, and a long, narrow heart shadow. The physician explains this condition to the patient and emphasizes the importance of smoking cessation. In addition to this, which of the following is most likely to reduce the risk of mortality from the condition?
- A. Roflumilast
- B. Low-dose oral prednisone
- C. Pulmonary rehabilitation
- D. Supplemental oxygen (Correct Answer)
- E. Prophylactic azithromycin
Guideline-directed medical therapy Explanation: ***Supplemental oxygen***
- The patient's **resting oxygen saturation of 88%** indicates significant hypoxemia, which, if chronic, places a high burden on the cardiovascular system and is a strong predictor of premature mortality in **COPD**.
- **Long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT)** for at least 15 hours a day has been shown to improve survival in patients with severe chronic hypoxemia due to COPD.
*Roflumilast*
- **Roflumilast** is a phosphodiesterase-4 inhibitor that reduces inflammation and is used to decrease exacerbations in severe COPD associated with chronic bronchitis and a history of frequent exacerbations.
- While it can improve lung function and reduce exacerbations, it has not been shown to reduce mortality directly.
*Low-dose oral prednisone*
- **Oral corticosteroids** are primarily used for acute exacerbations of COPD, not for long-term maintenance due to significant systemic side effects like osteoporosis, muscle weakness, and increased infection risk.
- While they can temporarily reduce inflammation, chronic low-dose use is not recommended for mortality benefit and may cause harm in the long run.
*Pulmonary rehabilitation*
- **Pulmonary rehabilitation** is a comprehensive program that improves exercise tolerance, dyspnea, and quality of life in patients with COPD.
- It does not directly reduce mortality but significantly improves functional status and potentially reduces hospitalizations.
*Prophylactic azithromycin*
- **Prophylactic azithromycin** can reduce the frequency of exacerbations in select patients with severe COPD, likely due to its anti-inflammatory and immunomodulatory properties, as well as its bactericidal effect.
- Similar to roflumilast, it reduces exacerbations but has not been shown to reduce mortality directly in COPD patients.
Guideline-directed medical therapy US Medical PG Question 9: Background and Methods:
Aldosterone is important in the pathophysiology of heart failure. In a double-blind study, we enrolled 1,663 patients who had severe heart failure, a left ventricular ejection fraction of no more than 35 percent, and were being treated with an angiotensin-converting-enzyme inhibitor, a loop diuretic, and in most cases digoxin. A total of 822 patients were randomly assigned to receive 25 mg of spironolactone daily and 841 to receive placebo. The primary endpoint was death from all causes.
Results:
The trial was discontinued early, after a mean follow-up period of 24 months, because an interim analysis determined that spironolactone was efficacious. There were 386 deaths in the placebo group (46%) and 284 in the spironolactone group (35%; relative risk of death, 0.70; 95% confidence interval, 0.60 to 0.82; p<0.001). This 30 percent reduction in the risk of death among patients in the spironolactone group was attributed to a lower risk of both death from progressive heart failure and sudden death from cardiac causes. The frequency of hospitalization for worsening heart failure was 35% lower in the spironolactone group than in the placebo group (relative risk of hospitalization, 0.65; 95% confidence interval, 0.54 to 0.77; p<0.001). In addition, patients who received spironolactone had a significant improvement in the symptoms of heart failure, as assessed on the basis of the New York Heart Association functional class (p<0.001). Gynecomastia was reported in 10% of men who were treated with spironolactone, as compared with 1% of men in the placebo group (p<0.001). The incidence of serious hyperkalemia was minimal in both groups of patients.
Which of the following statements represents the most accurate interpretation of the results from the aforementioned clinical trial?
- A. The incidence of both gynecomastia and hyperkalemia was elevated in patients treated with spironolactone
- B. Spironolactone, in addition to standard therapy, substantially reduces the risk of morbidity and death in patients with severe heart failure (Correct Answer)
- C. Spironolactone did not improve all-cause morbidity and mortality in patients with severe heart failure
- D. Given the large sample size of this clinical trial, the results are likely generalizable to all patients with heart failure
- E. The addition of spironolactone significantly improved symptoms of heart failure, but not overall mortality
Guideline-directed medical therapy Explanation: **Spironolactone, in addition to standard therapy, substantially reduces the risk of morbidity and death in patients with severe heart failure**
- The trial showed a **30% reduction in the risk of death** and a **35% lower frequency of hospitalization** for worsening heart failure in the spironolactone group (morbidity).
- Patients receiving spironolactone also had a **significant improvement in heart failure symptoms**, as assessed by the NYHA functional class.
*The incidence of both gynecomastia and hyperkalemia was elevated in patients treated with spironolactone*
- While **gynecomastia was elevated** (10% vs 1%), the incidence of **serious hyperkalemia was minimal** in both groups, contradicting the statement that hyperkalemia was elevated.
- The text explicitly states, "The incidence of serious hyperkalemia was minimal in both groups of patients."
*Spironolactone did not improve all-cause morbidity and mortality in patients with severe heart failure*
- This statement is **directly contradicted by the results**, which showed a significant reduction in all-cause mortality (30%) and improved morbidity (35% lower hospitalization, improved symptoms).
- The trial was, in fact, "discontinued early... because an interim analysis determined that spironolactone was efficacious."
*Given the large sample size of this clinical trial, the results are likely generalizable to all patients with heart failure*
- The study specifically enrolled patients with **severe heart failure** (ejection fraction ≤ 35%) who were already on **standard therapy** (ACE inhibitor, loop diuretic, digoxin).
- Therefore, the results are generalizable to this specific subgroup of severe heart failure patients, not necessarily *all* patients with heart failure.
*The addition of spironolactone significantly improved symptoms of heart failure, but not overall mortality*
- This statement is **incorrect** as the trial explicitly reported a **30% reduction in the risk of all-cause death** in the spironolactone group (mortality).
- Additionally, it did show improvement in symptoms, meaning the first part of the statement is true, but the latter part regarding mortality is false.
Guideline-directed medical therapy US Medical PG Question 10: A 78-year-old man presents to the clinic complaining of shortness of breath at rest and with exertion. He also complains of difficulty breathing while lying down. He also is concerned because he startles from sleep and feels like he is choking. These symptoms have been bothering him for the last several weeks and they are getting worse. He has been afebrile with no known sick contacts. 6 months ago, he had an acute myocardial infarction from which he recovered and until recently had felt well. He has a history of hyperlipidemia for which he takes atorvastatin. His temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F), the pulse is 85/min, the respiratory rate is 14/min, and the blood pressure is 110/75 mm Hg. On physical examination, his heart has a regular rate and rhythm. He has bilateral crackles in both lungs. An echocardiogram is performed and shows a left ventricular ejection fraction of 33%. What medication should be started?
- A. Captopril (Correct Answer)
- B. Levofloxacin
- C. Verapamil
- D. Niacin
- E. Nitroglycerin
Guideline-directed medical therapy Explanation: ***Captopril***
- The patient presents with classic symptoms of **heart failure** (shortness of breath at rest and with exertion, orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea), a history of **myocardial infarction**, and a **reduced left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of 33%**.
- **ACE inhibitors** like captopril are first-line agents for heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) as they **improve survival**, reduce hospitalizations, and alleviate symptoms by decreasing **afterload** and **preload**, and preventing cardiac remodeling.
*Levofloxacin*
- This is an **antibiotic** used to treat bacterial infections.
- While crackles can be present in pneumonia, the patient is **afebrile**, has no sick contacts, and the clinical picture, including orthopnea and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, points strongly to **heart failure**, not infection.
*Verapamil*
- **Verapamil** is a **non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker** predominantly used for rate control in arrhythmias or to treat hypertension and angina.
- It has a negative **inotropic effect** and can **worsen heart failure** in patients with reduced ejection fraction, making it contraindicated in this case.
*Niacin*
- **Niacin** is used to lower **LDL cholesterol** and raise **HDL cholesterol**, often for dyslipidemia.
- While the patient has a history of hyperlipidemia, his acute symptoms and low ejection fraction indicate a need for **heart failure treatment**, not additional lipid management.
*Nitroglycerin*
- **Nitroglycerin** is a **vasodilator** primarily used for **angina** or in acute heart failure to reduce preload and afterload.
- While it might provide temporary symptomatic relief in acute decompensated heart failure, it's not a long-term foundational therapy like ACE inhibitors for **chronic HFrEF** to improve survival and prevent progression.
More Guideline-directed medical therapy US Medical PG questions available in the OnCourse app. Practice MCQs, flashcards, and get detailed explanations.
