Common vs rare disease considerations US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice US Medical PG questions for Common vs rare disease considerations. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Common vs rare disease considerations US Medical PG Question 1: A study is performed to determine the prevalence of a particular rare fungal pneumonia. A sample population of 100 subjects is monitored for 4 months. Every month, the entire population is screened and the number of new cases is recorded for the group. The data from the study are given in the table below:
Time point New cases of fungal pneumonia
t = 0 months 10
t = 1 months 4
t = 2 months 2
t = 3 months 5
t = 4 months 4
Which of the following is correct regarding the prevalence of this rare fungal pneumonia in this sample population?
- A. The prevalence at time point 2 months is 2%.
- B. The prevalence at time point 3 months is 11%.
- C. The prevalence at the conclusion of the study is 15%.
- D. The prevalence and the incidence at time point 2 months are equal.
- E. The prevalence at the conclusion of the study is 25%. (Correct Answer)
Common vs rare disease considerations Explanation: ***The prevalence at the conclusion of the study is 25%***
- Prevalence is calculated by dividing the **total number of existing cases** by the total population at a specific point in time. At the conclusion of the study (t=4 months), the cumulative number of new cases is 10 + 4 + 2 + 5 + 4 = 25.
- The prevalence is therefore 25 cases / 100 subjects = **25%**.
*The prevalence at time point 2 months is 2%*
- At time point 2 months, the **cumulative number of new cases** is 10 (at t=0) + 4 (at t=1) + 2 (at t=2) = 16 cases.
- The prevalence at 2 months would be 16 cases / 100 subjects = **16%**, not 2%.
*The prevalence at time point 3 months is 11%*
- The cumulative number of new cases at time point 3 months is 10 (at t=0) + 4 (at t=1) + 2 (at t=2) + 5 (at t=3) = 21 cases.
- The prevalence at 3 months would be 21 cases / 100 subjects = **21%**, not 11%.
*The prevalence at the conclusion of the study is 15%*
- The cumulative number of new cases at the conclusion of the study (t=4 months) is 10 + 4 + 2 + 5 + 4 = **25 cases**.
- Therefore, the prevalence is 25 cases / 100 subjects = **25%**, not 15%.
*The prevalence and the incidence at time point 2 months are equal*
- **Incidence** refers to the number of *new* cases within a specified period, which at t=2 months is 2 cases.
- **Prevalence** at t=2 months is the cumulative number of cases (10+4+2 = 16 cases), so incidence (2%) and prevalence (16%) are **not equal**.
Common vs rare disease considerations US Medical PG Question 2: A geriatric investigator is evaluating the consistency of Alzheimer dementia diagnoses based on clinical symptoms. Patients with known chart diagnoses of Alzheimer dementia were evaluated by multiple physicians during a fixed time interval. Each evaluator was blinded to the others' assessments. The extent to which the diagnosis by one physician was replicated by another clinician examining the same patient is best described by which of the following terms?
- A. Validity
- B. Specificity
- C. Predictive value
- D. Sensitivity
- E. Precision (Correct Answer)
Common vs rare disease considerations Explanation: ***Precision***
- **Precision** refers to the consistency or reproducibility of a measurement or diagnosis. When multiple physicians reach the same diagnosis for the same patient, it indicates high precision.
- In this context, it specifically assesses **inter-rater reliability**, which is the extent to which different observers agree on the same assessment.
*Validity*
- **Validity** refers to the extent to which a test or measure accurately assesses what it is intended to measure. It is about the "truthfulness" of the diagnosis.
- While important for diagnosis, validity is about accuracy against a gold standard, not consistency among different observers.
*Specificity*
- **Specificity** is the ability of a test to correctly identify individuals who do *not* have the disease (true negatives).
- It measures the proportion of healthy individuals who are correctly identified as healthy by the test, which is not what is being evaluated here.
*Predictive value*
- **Predictive value** assesses the probability that a person *actually has* (positive predictive value) or *does not have* (negative predictive value) a disease given their test result.
- This concept relates to the diagnostic utility of a test in a population, not the consistency of different clinician diagnoses.
*Sensitivity*
- **Sensitivity** is the ability of a test to correctly identify individuals who *do* have the disease (true positives).
- It measures the proportion of diseased individuals who are correctly identified as diseased by the test, which is distinct from inter-rater agreement.
Common vs rare disease considerations US Medical PG Question 3: A 28-year-old woman dies shortly after receiving a blood transfusion. Autopsy reveals widespread intravascular hemolysis and acute renal failure. Investigation reveals that she received type A blood, but her medical record indicates she was type O. In a malpractice lawsuit, which of the following elements must be proven?
- A. Duty, breach, causation, and damages (Correct Answer)
- B. Only duty and breach
- C. Only breach and causation
- D. Duty, breach, and damages
Common vs rare disease considerations Explanation: ***Duty, breach, causation, and damages***
- In a medical malpractice lawsuit, all four elements—**duty, breach, causation, and damages**—must be proven for a successful claim.
- The healthcare provider had a **duty** to provide competent care, they **breached** that duty by administering the wrong blood type, this breach **caused** the patient's death and renal failure, and these injuries constitute **damages**.
*Only duty and breach*
- While **duty** and **breach** are necessary components, proving only these two is insufficient for a malpractice claim.
- It must also be demonstrated that the breach directly led to the patient's harm and resulted in legally recognized damages.
*Only breach and causation*
- This option omits the crucial elements of professional **duty** owed to the patient and the resulting **damages**.
- A claim cannot succeed without establishing that a duty existed and that quantifiable harm occurred.
*Duty, breach, and damages*
- This option misses the critical element of **causation**, which links the provider's breach of duty to the patient's injuries.
- Without proving that the breach *caused* the damages, even if a duty was owed and breached, and damages occurred, the claim would fail.
Common vs rare disease considerations US Medical PG Question 4: A 3-year-old is brought to the pediatrician by his mother because she is concerned about recent changes to his behavior. She states that he has seemed to regress in his motor development and has been having occasional brief episodes of uncontrollable shaking. During the subsequent work up, a muscle biopsy is obtained which demonstrates red ragged fibers and a presumptive diagnosis of a genetic disease made. The mother asks if her other son will be affected. What should be the physician's response?
- A. There is a 50% chance he will be affected
- B. There is a 100% chance he will be affected, and the severity will be the same
- C. There is a 25% chance he will be affected
- D. There is a 100% chance he will be affected, but the severity may be different (Correct Answer)
- E. He will be unaffected
Common vs rare disease considerations Explanation: ***There is a 100% chance he will be affected, but the severity may be different***
- The patient's symptoms (motor regression, seizures, red ragged fibers on muscle biopsy) are classic for a **mitochondrial disorder**, which are inherited via **maternal inheritance**.
- All children of an affected mother will inherit the affected mitochondria; however, the **heteroplasmy** (proportion of mutated mitochondria inherited) can vary, leading to different disease severities.
*There is a 50% chance he will be affected*
- This inheritance pattern is typical for **autosomal dominant** disorders, or occasionally X-linked disorders in males.
- Mitochondrial disorders do not follow autosomal dominant inheritance, as they are exclusively inherited from the mother.
*There is a 100% chance he will be affected, and the severity will be the same*
- While there is a 100% chance of inheriting the mutated mitochondria from an affected mother, the **phenotypic expression and severity can vary widely** due to heteroplasmy.
- The proportion of mutated mitochondria can differ in various tissues and between offspring, leading to variable clinical manifestations.
*There is a 25% chance he will be affected*
- This represents the risk of inheritance for an **autosomal recessive** disorder when both parents are carriers.
- Mitochondrial inheritance does not follow an autosomal recessive pattern.
*He will be unaffected*
- This would only be true if the mother's mitochondrial DNA were not affected or if the inheritance pattern allowed for some children to be completely spared, which is not the case for mitochondrial disorders.
- Since the mother is the carrier of the mitochondrial mutation, all her children will inherit the mutated mitochondria.
Common vs rare disease considerations US Medical PG Question 5: A 28-year-old male presents to his primary care physician with complaints of intermittent abdominal pain and alternating bouts of constipation and diarrhea. His medical chart is not significant for any past medical problems or prior surgeries. He is not prescribed any current medications. Which of the following questions would be the most useful next question in eliciting further history from this patient?
- A. "Does the diarrhea typically precede the constipation, or vice-versa?"
- B. "Is the diarrhea foul-smelling?"
- C. "Please rate your abdominal pain on a scale of 1-10, with 10 being the worst pain of your life"
- D. "Are the symptoms worse in the morning or at night?"
- E. "Can you tell me more about the symptoms you have been experiencing?" (Correct Answer)
Common vs rare disease considerations Explanation: ***Can you tell me more about the symptoms you have been experiencing?***
- This **open-ended question** encourages the patient to provide a **comprehensive narrative** of their symptoms, including details about onset, frequency, duration, alleviating/aggravating factors, and associated symptoms, which is crucial for diagnosis.
- In a patient presenting with vague, intermittent symptoms like alternating constipation and diarrhea, allowing them to elaborate freely can reveal important clues that might not be captured by more targeted questions.
*Does the diarrhea typically precede the constipation, or vice-versa?*
- While knowing the sequence of symptoms can be helpful in understanding the **pattern of bowel dysfunction**, it is a very specific question that might overlook other important aspects of the patient's experience.
- It prematurely narrows the focus without first obtaining a broad understanding of the patient's overall symptomatic picture.
*Is the diarrhea foul-smelling?*
- Foul-smelling diarrhea can indicate **malabsorption** or **bacterial overgrowth**, which are important to consider in some gastrointestinal conditions.
- However, this is a **specific symptom inquiry** that should follow a more general exploration of the patient's symptoms, as it may not be relevant if other crucial details are missed.
*Please rate your abdominal pain on a scale of 1-10, with 10 being the worst pain of your life*
- Quantifying pain intensity is useful for assessing the **severity of discomfort** and monitoring changes over time.
- However, for a patient with intermittent rather than acute, severe pain, understanding the **character, location, and triggers** of the pain is often more diagnostically valuable than just a numerical rating initially.
*Are the symptoms worse in the morning or at night?*
- Diurnal variation can be relevant in certain conditions, such as inflammatory bowel diseases where nocturnal symptoms might be more concerning, or functional disorders whose symptoms might be stress-related.
- This is another **specific question** that should come after gathering a more complete initial picture of the patient's symptoms to ensure no key information is overlooked.
Common vs rare disease considerations US Medical PG Question 6: A 35-year-old woman presents to her dermatologist with complaints of discoloration of the skin on her hands and wrists. She says her symptoms started about 6-months ago. Around this time, she recalls moving into her new house with her husband and children. She had to quit her job to relocate and says she is having difficulty maintaining a clean and happy household. She admits to being stressed most of the time. She was previously in good health. No significant past medical history. The patient is afebrile and vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination reveals patchy red, scaly skin on both hands. Upon further questioning, the patient admits to having to continuously wash her hands because she has this irrational idea that her hands are dirty. She tries her best to ignore these thoughts but eventually succumbs to wash her hands over and over to ease the anxiety. Which of the following statements is correct concerning this patient’s most likely condition?
- A. Symptoms are ego-dystonic (Correct Answer)
- B. The condition is associated with early onset dementia
- C. The condition rarely affects daily functioning
- D. The condition is readily treatable
- E. Patients generally lack insight
Common vs rare disease considerations Explanation: ***Symptoms are ego-dystonic***
- The patient's statement that she has "this irrational idea that her hands are dirty" and "tries her best to ignore these thoughts but eventually succumbs" indicates that her obsessive thoughts and compulsive behaviors are **ego-dystonic**, meaning they are inconsistent with her self-perception and desired way of functioning.
- This characteristic is a hallmark of **Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)**, where intrusive thoughts and repetitive behaviors are recognized as irrational or excessive by the individual.
*The condition is associated with early onset dementia*
- **Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)** is not associated with early-onset dementia; it primarily involves anxiety-related symptoms and behavioral patterns.
- While significant psychological stress can impact cognitive function, OCD itself does not typically lead to neurodegenerative conditions like dementia.
*The condition rarely affects daily functioning*
- The patient's admission that her symptoms led to "difficulty maintaining a clean and happy household" demonstrates that her condition **significantly impairs her daily functioning**.
- **OCD** is known to cause considerable distress and can severely interfere with social, occupational, and personal activities, often becoming very time-consuming.
*The condition is readily treatable*
- While OCD is treatable with therapies like **cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)**, specifically **exposure and response prevention (ERP)**, and medications such as **SSRIs**, it is generally considered a **chronic condition** that requires ongoing management and is not "readily treatable" in the sense of a quick and easy cure.
- The effectiveness of treatment varies, and many patients experience persistent symptoms, requiring long-term commitment to therapy.
*Patients generally lack insight*
- The patient's statement that she acknowledges her idea that her hands are dirty is "irrational" and that she "tries her best to ignore these thoughts" indicates a **recognition of the irrationality of her obsessions**, which suggests she has a good level of insight.
- Patients with OCD often have significant insight into their symptoms, which distinguishes it from psychotic disorders.
Common vs rare disease considerations US Medical PG Question 7: A 35-year-old man presents to his primary care provider in Philadelphia with a skin rash on his right thigh. He reports that the rash appeared 3 days ago. He recently returned from a weeklong trip to his vacation home in central Pennsylvania. He denies pain, numbness, paresthesias, itchiness, or burning around the rash. He does not recall finding any ticks on his body. He otherwise feels well. His past medical history is notable for gout. He takes allopurinol. He is an avid hiker and spends 3 months out of the year hiking. He does not smoke and drinks alcohol socially. On exam, he has a bullseye-like circular erythematous rash on the anterolateral aspect of his right thigh. The doctor decides to perform a new serum test for Lyme disease that was trialed at the same hospital in Philadelphia, where it was shown to have a sensitivity of 91% and specificity of 94%. The prevalence of Lyme disease in the area is among the highest in the country. How would the sensitivity and specificity of this new test change if it were performed on a patient in Texas, an area with a very low prevalence of Lyme disease?
- A. Both sensitivity and specificity will decrease.
- B. Sensitivity will decrease, and specificity will increase.
- C. Both sensitivity and specificity will increase.
- D. Sensitivity and specificity will remain the same. (Correct Answer)
- E. Sensitivity will increase, and specificity will decrease.
Common vs rare disease considerations Explanation: ***Sensitivity and specificity will remain the same.***
- **Sensitivity** and **specificity** are **intrinsic properties** of a diagnostic test that describe its ability to correctly identify diseased and non-diseased individuals, respectively, independent of **disease prevalence**.
- While **predictive values (positive and negative predictive values)** are influenced by the **prevalence** of a disease in a given population, sensitivity and specificity are not. They reflect the test's performance characteristics regardless of how common the disease is in the population being tested.
*Both sensitivity and specificity will decrease.*
- This statement is incorrect because the **prevalence** of a disease does not alter the inherent ability of a test to correctly identify individuals with or without the disease; hence, sensitivity and specificity remain constant.
- A change in prevalence would affect the **positive and negative predictive values**, not the test's fundamental sensitivity and specificity.
*Sensitivity will decrease, and specificity will increase.*
- This is incorrect because sensitivity and specificity are fixed characteristics of the test itself, determined during its validation.
- The **prevalence** of the disease in a different population (e.g., Texas vs. Pennsylvania) does not change these intrinsic measures of test performance.
*Both sensitivity and specificity will increase.*
- This statement is incorrect as sensitivity and specificity are **independent** of **disease prevalence**. Better performance (higher sensitivity and specificity) would require a different, improved test, not merely testing in a different population.
- The **inherent accuracy** of the test does not spontaneously improve or worsen based on where it is applied.
*Sensitivity will increase, and specificity will decrease.*
- This is incorrect because, as explained, **sensitivity** and **specificity** are inherent qualities of the test and are not influenced by the **prevalence** of the disease within a population.
- Changes in prevalence affect the **likelihood of false positives and false negatives** when interpreting results, but not the test's fundamental ability to detect disease (sensitivity) or absence of disease (specificity).
Common vs rare disease considerations US Medical PG Question 8: A 57-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 6-month history of tinnitus and progressive hearing loss in the left ear. She has type 2 diabetes mellitus and Raynaud syndrome. Her current medications include metformin, nifedipine, and a multivitamin. She appears well. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. A vibrating tuning fork is placed on the left mastoid process. Immediately after the patient does not hear a tone, the tuning fork is held over the left ear and she reports hearing the tuning fork again. The same test is repeated on the right side and shows the same pattern. The vibration tuning fork is then placed on the middle of the forehead and the patient hears the sound louder in the right ear. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Acoustic neuroma (Correct Answer)
- B. Meningioma
- C. Cerumen impaction
- D. Ménière disease
- E. Presbycusis
Common vs rare disease considerations Explanation: ***Acoustic neuroma***
- The patient presents with **unilateral tinnitus** and **progressive sensorineural hearing loss** in the left ear, which is a classic presentation of an acoustic neuroma.
- The **Rinne test** results (air conduction > bone conduction bilaterally) indicate **no conductive hearing loss**, while the **Weber test lateralizing to the right ear** confirms **sensorineural hearing loss in the left ear**.
*Meningioma*
- While a meningioma could present with neurological symptoms, it typically does not selectively cause **unilateral tinnitus** and **hearing loss** in this specific pattern without other focal neurological deficits.
- Meningiomas are usually **slow-growing** and would likely present with mass effect symptoms, such as headache or seizures, depending on their location, which are not described here.
*Cerumen impaction*
- **Cerumen impaction** would cause a **conductive hearing loss**, where bone conduction would be *louder* than air conduction on the Rinne test (BC > AC).
- The patient's Rinne test results (AC > BC) are consistent with **sensorineural hearing loss**, not conductive.
*Ménière disease*
- **Ménière disease** is characterized by episodic **vertigo, tinnitus, fluctuating hearing loss**, and aural fullness.
- The patient's symptoms are primarily **progressive hearing loss** and constant tinnitus, without the episodic vertigo typical of Ménière disease.
*Presbycusis*
- **Presbycusis** is **age-related bilateral sensorineural hearing loss**, typically symmetric and affecting high frequencies.
- The patient's symptoms are **unilateral** (affecting the left ear predominantly) and present with specific tuning fork findings that point to a localized lesion rather than general aging.
Common vs rare disease considerations US Medical PG Question 9: A female presents with a 1 × 1 cm thyroid swelling. What is the next best step in management?
- A. I-131
- B. TSH (Correct Answer)
- C. TSH & T4
- D. T3 & T4
- E. FNAC
Common vs rare disease considerations Explanation: ***Correct Option: TSH***
- **Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)** is the most sensitive initial test to assess thyroid function when a thyroid nodule is discovered.
- An abnormal TSH level (either high or low) can guide further investigation into whether the nodule is associated with a functional thyroid disorder.
- **TSH should be the first test** according to American Thyroid Association guidelines for thyroid nodule evaluation.
*Incorrect Option: I-131*
- **I-131 (radioactive iodine therapy)** is a treatment modality for hyperthyroidism or thyroid cancer, not a diagnostic step for initial thyroid swelling evaluation.
- Administering I-131 before assessing thyroid function would be inappropriate and could lead to unnecessary or harmful intervention.
*Incorrect Option: TSH & T4*
- While TSH is crucial, adding **T4 (thyroxine)** as an initial step is often not necessary if TSH is normal, as TSH alone effectively screens for primary thyroid dysfunction.
- Measuring both TSH and T4 is typically reserved for situations where TSH is abnormal or when central hypothyroidism is suspected.
*Incorrect Option: T3 & T4*
- Measuring **T3 (triiodothyronine)** along with T4 as an initial screening for a thyroid nodule is generally not recommended.
- T3 levels are primarily used to diagnose **hyperthyroidism** or to evaluate the severity of thyrotoxicosis after an abnormal TSH and T4 have been identified.
*Incorrect Option: FNAC*
- While **Fine Needle Aspiration Cytology (FNAC)** is an essential diagnostic tool for thyroid nodules, it is typically performed after TSH assessment.
- FNAC is indicated for nodules >1 cm with suspicious ultrasound features, but **functional assessment with TSH comes first** to rule out hyperfunctioning nodules.
Common vs rare disease considerations US Medical PG Question 10: What is the most appropriate initial investigation for a solitary thyroid nodule (STN)?
- A. I-123 scan
- B. Ultrasound (Correct Answer)
- C. Fine-needle aspiration (FNA) biopsy
- D. Thyroid function tests (TFTs)
- E. CT scan of the neck
Common vs rare disease considerations Explanation: ***Ultrasound***
- **Ultrasound** is the initial investigation of choice for a solitary thyroid nodule (STN) because it can differentiate between **solid, cystic, or mixed lesions**, assess nodule size, and identify suspicious features (e.g., microcalcifications, irregular margins, internal vascularity).
- It also helps to determine if there are other nodules not palpable on physical examination, allowing for a more complete assessment of the **thyroid gland**.
*Fine-needle aspiration (FNA) biopsy*
- **FNA biopsy** is the most accurate diagnostic tool for evaluating the malignant potential of a thyroid nodule, but it is typically performed *after* an initial ultrasound has characterized the nodule.
- It requires guidance (often by ultrasound) to obtain an adequate sample for cytological analysis, making ultrasound a prerequisite for optimal FNA performance.
*Thyroid function tests (TFTs)*
- **TFTs (TSH, T3, T4)** are important for assessing the functional status of the thyroid gland (e.g., hyperthyroidism or hypothyroidism) and can provide context for the nodule.
- However, TFTs do not directly evaluate the **morphology or malignant potential** of the nodule itself, making them less appropriate as an initial, stand-alone investigation for an STN.
*I-123 scan*
- An **I-123 scan** (radioactive iodine uptake and scan) is used to determine if a nodule is "hot" (hyperfunctioning/benign) or "cold" (non-functioning/potentially malignant).
- It is typically reserved for cases where **TSH levels are suppressed**, suggesting a hyperfunctioning nodule, and is not the first-line imaging modality for initial characterization of all STNs.
*CT scan of the neck*
- **CT scan** can visualize thyroid nodules and assess for extrathyroidal extension or lymphadenopathy, but it is **not recommended as an initial investigation** for STN.
- It involves **radiation exposure**, is more expensive than ultrasound, and provides **less detailed characterization** of nodule morphology compared to ultrasound, making it a less appropriate first-line modality.
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