Analytical vs non-analytical reasoning US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice US Medical PG questions for Analytical vs non-analytical reasoning. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Analytical vs non-analytical reasoning US Medical PG Question 1: Two dizygotic twins present to the university clinic because they believe they are being poisoned through the school's cafeteria food. They have brought these concerns up in the past, but no other students or cafeteria staff support this belief. Both of them are average students with strong and weak subject areas as demonstrated by their course grade-books. They have no known medical conditions and are not known to abuse illicit substances. Which statement best describes the condition these patients have?
- A. A trial separation is likely to worsen symptoms.
- B. The disorder is its own disease entity in DSM-5.
- C. Antipsychotic medications are rarely beneficial.
- D. Can affect two or more closely related individuals. (Correct Answer)
- E. Cognitive behavioral therapy is a good first-line.
Analytical vs non-analytical reasoning Explanation: ***Can affect two or more closely related individuals.***
- The shared delusional belief in **folie à deux**, also known as **shared psychotic disorder**, typically occurs in two or more people who are closely associated.
- In this case, the **dizygotic twins** sharing the same delusional belief about being poisoned from cafeteria food fits this pattern.
*A trial separation is likely to worsen symptoms.*
- **Separating the individuals** involved in **folie à deux** is often a crucial step in treatment, as it can help break the cycle of shared delusion and allow for individual therapy.
- Separation typically IMPROVES rather than worsens symptoms by removing the reinforcement of the shared delusion.
*The disorder is its own disease entity in DSM-5.*
- In the **DSM-5**, **folie à deux** is no longer considered a separate diagnostic category.
- Instead, it is classified under **Other Specified Schizophrenia Spectrum and Other Psychotic Disorder** or **Unspecified Schizophrenia Spectrum and Other Psychotic Disorder**, with the specific context of shared delusion noted.
*Antipsychotic medications are rarely beneficial.*
- **Antipsychotics** are actually commonly used in treating folie à deux, particularly for the **primary individual** who initially developed the delusion.
- They can be an important component of treatment, often combined with separation and psychotherapy.
*Cognitive behavioral therapy is a good first-line.*
- **Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT)** can be beneficial, particularly after separation, to help individuals challenge and reframe their delusional beliefs.
- However, the **first-line intervention** for shared psychotic disorder is **separation of the involved individuals**, followed by individual therapy (which may include CBT) and medication as needed.
Analytical vs non-analytical reasoning US Medical PG Question 2: A geriatric investigator is evaluating the consistency of Alzheimer dementia diagnoses based on clinical symptoms. Patients with known chart diagnoses of Alzheimer dementia were evaluated by multiple physicians during a fixed time interval. Each evaluator was blinded to the others' assessments. The extent to which the diagnosis by one physician was replicated by another clinician examining the same patient is best described by which of the following terms?
- A. Validity
- B. Specificity
- C. Predictive value
- D. Sensitivity
- E. Precision (Correct Answer)
Analytical vs non-analytical reasoning Explanation: ***Precision***
- **Precision** refers to the consistency or reproducibility of a measurement or diagnosis. When multiple physicians reach the same diagnosis for the same patient, it indicates high precision.
- In this context, it specifically assesses **inter-rater reliability**, which is the extent to which different observers agree on the same assessment.
*Validity*
- **Validity** refers to the extent to which a test or measure accurately assesses what it is intended to measure. It is about the "truthfulness" of the diagnosis.
- While important for diagnosis, validity is about accuracy against a gold standard, not consistency among different observers.
*Specificity*
- **Specificity** is the ability of a test to correctly identify individuals who do *not* have the disease (true negatives).
- It measures the proportion of healthy individuals who are correctly identified as healthy by the test, which is not what is being evaluated here.
*Predictive value*
- **Predictive value** assesses the probability that a person *actually has* (positive predictive value) or *does not have* (negative predictive value) a disease given their test result.
- This concept relates to the diagnostic utility of a test in a population, not the consistency of different clinician diagnoses.
*Sensitivity*
- **Sensitivity** is the ability of a test to correctly identify individuals who *do* have the disease (true positives).
- It measures the proportion of diseased individuals who are correctly identified as diseased by the test, which is distinct from inter-rater agreement.
Analytical vs non-analytical reasoning US Medical PG Question 3: A 52-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 3-week history of a cough and hoarseness. He reports that the cough is worse when he lies down after lunch. His temperature is 37.5°C (99.5°F); the remainder of his vital signs are within normal limits. Because the physician has recently been seeing several patients with the common cold, the diagnosis of a viral upper respiratory tract infection readily comes to mind. The physician fails to consider the diagnosis of gastroesophageal reflux disease, which the patient is later found to have. Which of the following most accurately describes the cognitive bias that the physician had?
- A. Framing
- B. Anchoring
- C. Visceral
- D. Confirmation
- E. Availability (Correct Answer)
Analytical vs non-analytical reasoning Explanation: ***Availability***
- The physician recently seeing several patients with the common cold led to this diagnosis readily coming to mind, demonstrating how easily recalled examples can disproportionately influence diagnosis.
- This bias occurs when easily recalled instances or information (like recent cases of common cold) are used to estimate the likelihood or frequency of an event, even if other more relevant data exist.
*Framing*
- This bias occurs when the way information is presented (e.g., as a gain or a loss) influences a decision, rather than the intrinsic characteristics of the options themselves.
- The scenario does not involve the presentation of information in different ways to sway the physician's judgment.
*Anchoring*
- This bias involves relying too heavily on an initial piece of information (the "anchor") when making subsequent judgments, often leading to insufficient adjustment away from that anchor.
- While the physician initially considered a viral URI, the setup is more about the ease of recall influencing the decision rather than being stuck on an initial data point.
*Visceral*
- This is not a commonly recognized cognitive bias in the context of medical decision-making; "visceral" largely refers to emotional or intuitive feelings rather than a structured cognitive bias.
- Cognitive biases describe systematic patterns of deviation from norm or rationality in judgment, not merely emotional responses.
*Confirmation*
- This bias involves seeking, interpreting, favoring, and recalling information in a way that confirms one's pre-existing beliefs or hypotheses.
- The physician did not actively seek information to confirm the common cold diagnosis; rather, the diagnosis came to mind due to recent encounters, which aligns with availability bias.
Analytical vs non-analytical reasoning US Medical PG Question 4: Two studies are reviewed for submission to an oncology journal. In Study A, a novel MRI technology is evaluated as a screening tool for ovarian cancer. The authors find that the mean survival time is 4 years in the control group and 10 years in the MRI-screened group. In Study B, cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) and a novel antidepressant are used to treat patients with comorbid pancreatic cancer and major depression. Patients receiving the new drug are told that they are expected to have quick resolution of their depression, while those who do not receive the drug are not told anything about their prognosis. Which of the following describes the likely type of bias in Study A and Study B?
- A. Latency Bias; Golem effect
- B. Confounding; Golem effect
- C. Lead time bias; Golem effect
- D. Lead time bias; Pygmalion effect (Correct Answer)
- E. Latency bias; Pygmalion effect
Analytical vs non-analytical reasoning Explanation: ***Lead time bias; Pygmalion effect***
- In Study A, the MRI technology detects ovarian cancer earlier, artificially making the survival time appear longer simply due to earlier diagnosis, not necessarily improved outcomes, which is characteristic of **lead time bias**.
- In Study B, the patients receiving the new drug are told to expect quick resolution of their depression, leading to increased expectation of improvement, which describes the **Pygmalion effect** (a form of observer-expectancy effect where higher expectations lead to increased performance).
*Latency Bias; Golem effect*
- **Latency bias** refers to a delay in the manifestation of an outcome, which is not the primary issue in Study A's screening context.
- The **Golem effect** is a form of negative self-fulfilling prophecy where lower expectations placed upon individuals by superiors/researchers lead to poorer performance, which is opposite to what is described in Study B.
*Confounding; Golem effect*
- **Confounding** occurs when an unmeasured third variable is associated with both the exposure and the outcome, distorting the observed relationship; while confounding is common, the scenario in Study A specifically points to a screening effect on survival time.
- As mentioned, the **Golem effect** refers to negative expectations leading to poorer outcomes, which is not present in Study B.
*Lead time bias; Golem effect*
- **Lead time bias** correctly identifies the issue in Study A, as explaining the apparently longer survival as a result of earlier detection.
- However, the **Golem effect** incorrectly describes the scenario in Study B, where positive expectations are given, not negative ones.
*Latency bias; Pygmalion effect*
- **Latency bias** is not the primary bias described in Study A; the immediate impact of early detection on survival statistics points to lead time bias.
- The **Pygmalion effect** correctly describes the bias in Study B, where positive expectations from the researchers influence patient outcomes.
Analytical vs non-analytical reasoning US Medical PG Question 5: An academic medical center in the United States is approached by a pharmaceutical company to run a small clinical trial to test the effectiveness of its new drug, compound X. The company wants to know if the measured hemoglobin a1c (Hba1c) of patients with type 2 diabetes receiving metformin and compound X would be lower than that of control subjects receiving only metformin. After a year of study and data analysis, researchers conclude that the control and treatment groups did not differ significantly in their Hba1c levels.
However, parallel clinical trials in several other countries found that compound X led to a significant decrease in Hba1c. Interested in the discrepancy between these findings, the company funded a larger study in the United States, which confirmed that compound X decreased Hba1c levels. After compound X was approved by the FDA, and after several years of use in the general population, outcomes data confirmed that it effectively lowered Hba1c levels and increased overall survival. What term best describes the discrepant findings in the initial clinical trial run by institution A?
- A. Type I error
- B. Hawthorne effect
- C. Type II error (Correct Answer)
- D. Publication bias
- E. Confirmation bias
Analytical vs non-analytical reasoning Explanation: ***Type II error***
- A **Type II error** occurs when a study fails to **reject a false null hypothesis**, meaning it concludes there is no significant difference or effect when one actually exists.
- In this case, the initial US trial incorrectly concluded that Compound X had no significant effect on HbA1c, while subsequent larger studies and real-world data proved it did.
*Type I error*
- A **Type I error** (alpha error) occurs when a study incorrectly **rejects a true null hypothesis**, concluding there is a significant difference or effect when there isn't.
- This scenario describes the opposite: the initial study failed to find an effect that genuinely existed, indicating a Type II error, not a Type I error.
*Hawthorne effect*
- The **Hawthorne effect** is a type of reactivity in which individuals modify an aspect of their behavior in response to their awareness of being observed.
- This effect does not explain the initial trial's failure to detect a real drug effect; rather, it relates to participants changing behavior due to study participation itself.
*Publication bias*
- **Publication bias** occurs when studies with positive or statistically significant results are more likely to be published than those with negative or non-significant results.
- While relevant to the literature as a whole, it doesn't explain the discrepancy in findings within a single drug's development where a real effect was initially missed.
*Confirmation bias*
- **Confirmation bias** is the tendency to search for, interpret, favor, and recall information in a way that confirms one's preexisting beliefs or hypotheses.
- This bias would likely lead researchers to *find* an effect if they expected one, or to disregard data that contradicts their beliefs, which is not what happened in the initial trial.
Analytical vs non-analytical reasoning US Medical PG Question 6: A 67-year-old man comes to the physician for a routine examination. He does not take any medications. He drinks 6 to 7 bottles of beer every night, and says he often has a shot of whiskey in the morning “for my headache.” He was recently fired from his job for arriving late. He says there is nothing wrong with his drinking but expresses frustration at his best friend no longer returning his calls. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial response by the physician?
- A. I'm sorry that your friend no longer returns your calls. What do you think your friend is worried about? (Correct Answer)
- B. I'm sorry to hear you lost your job. I am concerned about the amount of alcohol you are drinking.
- C. I'm sorry to hear you lost your job. Drinking the amount of alcohol that you do can have very negative effects on your health.
- D. I'm sorry that your friend no longer returns your calls. It seems like your drinking is affecting your close relationships.
- E. I'm sorry that your friend no longer returns your calls. Do you feel that your drinking has affected your relationship with your friend?
Analytical vs non-analytical reasoning Explanation: ***"I'm sorry that your friend no longer returns your calls. What do you think your friend is worried about?"***
- This response acknowledges the patient's expressed **frustration** about his friend, which is a point of **distress** he has brought up.
- By asking what the friend is worried about, the physician invites the patient to reflect on the potential impact of his drinking from an external perspective, fostering **insight** without being confrontational.
*"I'm sorry to hear you lost your job. I am concerned about the amount of alcohol you are drinking."*
- While addressing the job loss is empathetic, immediately stating concern about his drinking can be confrontational and may lead the patient to become **defensive**, especially since he denies a problem.
- This approach might **shut down** further discussion rather than encourage it, as the patient has already stated "there is nothing wrong with his drinking."
*"I'm sorry to hear you lost your job. Drinking the amount of alcohol that you do can have very negative effects on your health."*
- This response is **judgmental** and directly highlights the negative consequences of his drinking, which the patient has already dismissed.
- Presenting medical facts about health effects at this stage, before establishing rapport and insight, is likely to be met with **resistance** and make the patient less receptive to further conversation.
*"I'm sorry that your friend no longer returns your calls. It seems like your drinking is affecting your close relationships."*
- This statement is a direct accusation, implying the physician knows the cause of the friend's actions and directly links it to the patient's drinking.
- Such a direct link is likely to be perceived as **judgmental** and can make the patient feel attacked, leading to defensiveness and a breakdown in communication.
*"I'm sorry that your friend no longer returns your calls. Do you feel that your drinking has affected your relationship with your friend?"*
- While this question is good, asking directly if his drinking has affected the relationship may elicit a **denial**, as the patient has already shown **lack of insight** regarding his drinking problem.
- A more open-ended question about what the friend is "worried about" is less threatening and more likely to encourage the patient to consider the connection himself.
Analytical vs non-analytical reasoning US Medical PG Question 7: A 65-year-old man is admitted to the hospital because of a 1-month history of fatigue, intermittent fever, and weakness. Results from a peripheral blood smear taken during his evaluation are indicative of possible acute myeloid leukemia. Bone marrow aspiration and subsequent cytogenetic studies confirm the diagnosis. The physician sets aside an appointed time-slot and arranges a meeting in a quiet office to inform him about the diagnosis and discuss his options. He has been encouraged to bring someone along to the appointment if he wanted. He comes to your office at the appointed time with his daughter. He appears relaxed, with a full range of affect. Which of the following is the most appropriate opening statement in this situation?
- A. Your lab reports show that you have an acute myeloid leukemia
- B. What is your understanding of the reasons we did bone marrow aspiration and cytogenetic studies? (Correct Answer)
- C. You must be curious and maybe even anxious about the results of your tests.
- D. I may need to refer you to a blood cancer specialist because of your diagnosis. You may need chemotherapy or radiotherapy, which we are not equipped for.
- E. Would you like to know all the details of your diagnosis, or would you prefer I just explain to you what our options are?
Analytical vs non-analytical reasoning Explanation: ***"What is your understanding of the reasons we did bone marrow aspiration and cytogenetic studies?"***
- This **open-ended question** allows the patient to express their current knowledge and perceptions, which helps the physician tailor the discussion.
- It establishes a **patient-centered approach**, respecting the patient's existing understanding and preparing them for further information.
*"You must be curious and maybe even anxious about the results of your tests."*
- While empathic, this statement makes an **assumption about the patient's feelings** rather than inviting them to share their own.
- It is often better to ask directly or use more open-ended questions that allow the patient to express their true emotions, especially given their **relaxed demeanor**.
*"I may need to refer you to a blood cancer specialist because of your diagnosis. You may need chemotherapy or radiotherapy, which we are not equipped for.”"*
- This statement immediately introduces **overwhelming and potentially alarming information** (referral, chemotherapy, radiotherapy) without first establishing the diagnosis or assessing the patient's readiness to receive it.
- It prematurely jumps to treatment and logistics, potentially causing **unnecessary distress** before the patient has processed the core diagnosis.
*"Would you like to know all the details of your diagnosis, or would you prefer I just explain to you what our options are?""*
- While it attempts to assess the patient's preference for information, this question is a **closed-ended "either/or" choice** that might limit the patient's ability to express nuanced needs.
- It also prematurely introduces the idea of "options" without first explaining the diagnosis in an understandable context.
*"Your lab reports show that you have an acute myeloid leukemia"*
- This is a **direct and blunt delivery of a serious diagnosis** without any preparatory context or assessment of the patient's existing knowledge or emotional state.
- Delivering such news abruptly can be shocking and overwhelming, potentially **hindering effective communication** and rapport building.
Analytical vs non-analytical reasoning US Medical PG Question 8: A 38-year-old woman is voted off the board of her garden club for tardiness and incomplete work on the spring fair. When she arrives home, her husband attempts to console her and she yells at him for constantly criticizing her. Which defense mechanism is the woman using?
- A. Displacement (Correct Answer)
- B. Intellectualization
- C. Reaction formation
- D. Projection
- E. Isolation of affect
Analytical vs non-analytical reasoning Explanation: ***Displacement***
- **Displacement** is a defense mechanism where an individual redirects their emotions, often anger or frustration, from their initial target to a less threatening substitute.
- In this scenario, the woman's anger at being voted off the board is **displaced** onto her husband, who is a safer target for her pent-up emotions.
*Intellectualization*
- **Intellectualization** involves focusing on the intellectual aspects of a situation to avoid emotional distress, using logic and reason to analyze a problem without experiencing its associated feelings.
- The woman is clearly expressing raw emotion (anger), not engaging in an objective, logical analysis of her board removal.
*Reaction formation*
- **Reaction formation** is a defense mechanism in which an individual outwardly expresses the opposite of their true feelings or impulses.
- There is no indication here that the woman is acting in a way contrary to her internal feelings; she is directly expressing her anger.
*Projection*
- **Projection** involves attributing one's own unacceptable thoughts, feelings, or impulses to another person.
- The woman is not accusing her husband of being angry or criticizing; she is directing her own anger at him.
*Isolation of affect*
- **Isolation of affect** occurs when an individual acknowledges a factual event but detaches from the emotional component of it.
- The woman is clearly experiencing and expressing strong emotions (anger), indicating that affect has not been isolated from the event.
Analytical vs non-analytical reasoning US Medical PG Question 9: A 53-year-old man presents with a 2-year-history of dull, nonspecific flank pain that subsides with rest. His past medical history is significant for hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. He has no allergies and takes no medications. His father died of kidney disease at the age of 51, and his mother has been treated for ovarian cancer. On presentation, his blood pressure is 168/98 mm Hg, and his heart rate is 102/min. Abdominal examination is significant for palpable bilateral renal masses. His laboratory tests are significant for creatinine of 2.0 mg/dL and a BUN of 22 mg/dL. Which of the following tests is most recommended in this patient?
- A. Chest X-ray
- B. Genetic testing for polycystic kidney disease
- C. CT scan of abdomen and pelvis
- D. 24-hour urine protein collection
- E. Renal ultrasound (Correct Answer)
Analytical vs non-analytical reasoning Explanation: ***Renal ultrasound***
- This patient presents with classic features of **autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD)**: bilateral palpable renal masses, hypertension, elevated creatinine, and a strong family history (father died of kidney disease at 51).
- **Renal ultrasound is the first-line imaging test** for diagnosing ADPKD due to its **non-invasiveness, no radiation exposure, high sensitivity for detecting cysts, and cost-effectiveness**.
- Ultrasound can establish the diagnosis using **established diagnostic criteria** (Pei-Ravine criteria based on age and number of cysts) and is recommended by **KDIGO guidelines** as the initial imaging modality.
- In this patient with clear clinical features and palpable masses, ultrasound will readily confirm the diagnosis by demonstrating multiple bilateral renal cysts.
*24-hour urine protein collection*
- This test quantifies **proteinuria** to assess for glomerular damage.
- While proteinuria can occur in ADPKD, it is not a diagnostic test and would not help identify or characterize the bilateral renal masses in this presentation.
*Chest X-ray*
- A chest X-ray evaluates the **lungs and heart**.
- It provides no diagnostic information regarding renal masses or kidney pathology and is not indicated in this case.
*Genetic testing for polycystic kidney disease*
- **Genetic testing** (for PKD1 or PKD2 mutations) can confirm ADPKD definitively and is useful for family counseling and cases with uncertain imaging findings.
- However, it is **not the first-line test** and is typically performed *after* imaging has established the diagnosis, or in specific situations (e.g., young patients, potential living kidney donors, atypical presentations).
- In this patient with clear clinical and anticipated imaging findings, genetic testing is unnecessary for initial diagnosis.
*CT scan of abdomen and pelvis*
- CT scan provides excellent anatomic detail and is useful in ADPKD for **evaluating complications** such as cyst hemorrhage, infection, suspected malignancy, or for **preoperative planning**.
- However, it is **not the first-line diagnostic test** due to higher cost, radiation exposure, and the fact that ultrasound is equally effective for initial diagnosis.
- CT would be reserved for situations where ultrasound is inconclusive or when complications are suspected.
Analytical vs non-analytical reasoning US Medical PG Question 10: A 50-year-old woman presents with severe abdominal pain. Past medical history is significant for a peptic ulcer. Physical examination is limited because the patient will not allow abdominal palpation due to the pain. The attending makes a presumptive diagnosis of peritonitis. Which of the following non-invasive maneuvers would be most helpful in confirming the diagnosis of peritonitis in this patient?
- A. Rectal examination shows guaiac positive stool
- B. Forced cough elicits abdominal pain (Correct Answer)
- C. Hyperactive bowel sounds are heard on auscultation
- D. Bowel sounds are absent on auscultation
- E. Pain is aroused with gentle intensity/pressure at the costovertebral angle
Analytical vs non-analytical reasoning Explanation: ***Forced cough elicits abdominal pain***
- A forced cough increases **intra-abdominal pressure**, which in turn stretches the inflamed peritoneum.
- Elicitation of pain with coughing is a highly sensitive and specific sign for **peritoneal irritation** and helps confirm the diagnosis of peritonitis.
*Rectal examination shows guaiac positive stool*
- **Guaiac positive stool** indicates the presence of blood in the stool, which is a sign of gastrointestinal bleeding.
- While a peptic ulcer can cause bleeding, this finding does not directly confirm **peritonitis** or peritoneal inflammation.
*Hyperactive bowel sounds are heard on auscultation*
- **Hyperactive bowel sounds** are often associated with conditions like gastroenteritis or partial bowel obstruction.
- In peritonitis, bowel sounds are typically diminished or absent due to **ileus**, not hyperactive.
*Bowel sounds are absent on auscultation*
- While **absent bowel sounds** can be a sign of peritonitis due to paralytic ileus, this finding is not as specific or immediately helpful as eliciting pain with coughing in confirming the primary diagnosis in a patient already presumed to have peritonitis.
- The absence of bowel sounds can also be seen in other conditions and may take longer to develop consistently.
*Pain is aroused with gentle intensity/pressure at the costovertebral angle*
- Pain at the **costovertebral angle (CVA)** typically indicates inflammation of the kidney or surrounding structures, such as in pyelonephritis.
- This finding is specific to **renal pathology** and not directly related to generalized peritonitis.
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