Rapid assessment techniques US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice US Medical PG questions for Rapid assessment techniques. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Rapid assessment techniques US Medical PG Question 1: A group of neurologists develop a new blood test for Alzheimer's. They are optimistic about the test, as they have found that for any given patient, the test repeatedly produces very similar results. However, they find that the new test results are not necessarily consistent with the gold standard of diagnosis. How would this new test most accurately be described?
- A. Valid and reliable
- B. Reliable (Correct Answer)
- C. Valid
- D. Biased
- E. Neither valid nor reliable
Rapid assessment techniques Explanation: ***Reliable***
- The test produces **similar results repeatedly** upon repeated measures, indicating high **reliability** or **precision**.
- Reliability refers to the **consistency** of a measure, even if it is not accurate.
*Valid and reliable*
- While the test is **reliable**, it is explicitly stated that the results are **not consistent with the gold standard**, meaning it lacks **validity**.
- A test must be both **consistent** (reliable) and **accurate** (valid) to be described as valid and reliable.
*Valid*
- **Validity** refers to the **accuracy** of a test, or how well it measures what it is supposed to measure.
- The test is explicitly stated to **not be consistent with the gold standard**, indicating a lack of agreement with the true measure of Alzheimer's.
*Biased*
- **Bias** refers to a **systematic error** in measurement that can lead to consistently high or low results compared to the true value.
- While the test might be biased due to its lack of consistency with the gold standard, "biased" is not the most accurate single descriptor of its measurement properties given the information provided.
*Neither valid nor reliable*
- The test is described as producing **very similar results repeatedly**, which directly indicates it has **high reliability**.
- Therefore, stating it is neither valid nor reliable is incorrect, as it possesses reliability.
Rapid assessment techniques US Medical PG Question 2: A 24-year-old man presents to the emergency department after a motor vehicle collision. He was in the front seat and unrestrained driver in a head on collision. His temperature is 99.2°F (37.3°C), blood pressure is 90/65 mmHg, pulse is 152/min, respirations are 16/min, and oxygen saturation is 100% on room air. Physical exam is notable for a young man who opens his eyes spontaneously and is looking around. He answers questions with inappropriate responses but discernible words. He withdraws from pain but does not have purposeful movement. Which of the following is this patient's Glasgow coma scale?
- A. 9
- B. 15
- C. 7
- D. 11 (Correct Answer)
- E. 13
Rapid assessment techniques Explanation: ***11***
- **Eye-opening (E)**: The patient opens his eyes spontaneously, scoring **E4**.
- **Verbal response (V)**: He gives inappropriate responses but discernible words, scoring **V3**.
- **Motor response (M)**: He withdraws from pain but does not have purposeful movement, scoring **M4**.
- Therefore, the total Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is **E4 + V3 + M4 = 11**.
*9*
- This score would imply a lower verbal or motor response, such as **incomprehensible sounds (V2)** or **abnormal flexion (M3)**, which is not consistent with the patient's presentation.
- For example, E4 + V2 + M3 would equal 9.
*15*
- A GCS of 15 indicates **normal neurological function**, meaning the patient would be fully oriented, obey commands, and open eyes spontaneously, which is not the case here.
- This score is for a patient who is fully conscious and responsive.
*7*
- A GCS of 7 suggests a **severe brain injury**, which would typically present with a much poorer response, such as **no verbal response (V1)** or **abnormal extension (M2)**.
- For example, E4 + V1 + M2 would equal 7.
*13*
- This score would mean a higher level of consciousness, such as **confused conversation (V4)** or **localizing pain (M5)**, which is better than the patient's described responses.
- For example, E4 + V4 + M5 would equal 13.
Rapid assessment techniques US Medical PG Question 3: A 79-year-old woman who lives alone is brought to the emergency department by her neighbor because of worsening confusion over the last 2 days. Due to her level of confusion, she is unable to answer questions appropriately. She has had type 2 diabetes mellitus for 29 years for which she takes metformin. Vital signs include: blood pressure 111/72 mm Hg, temperature 38.5°C (101.3°F), and pulse 100/min. Her fingerstick blood glucose is 210 mg/dL. On physical examination, she is not oriented to time or place and mistakes the nursing assistant for her cousin. Laboratory results are shown:
Hemoglobin 13 g/dL
Leukocyte count 16,000/mm3
Segmented neutrophils 70%
Eosinophils 1%
Basophils 0.3%
Lymphocytes 25%
Monocytes 4%
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Brief psychotic disorder
- B. Alzheimer's dementia
- C. Delirium (Correct Answer)
- D. Depression
- E. Delusional disorder
Rapid assessment techniques Explanation: **Delirium**
- The patient presents with **acute-onset confusion**, **disorientation** to time and place, and **misidentification of individuals**, all fluctuating symptoms characteristic of delirium.
- The presence of **fever** (38.5°C), **leukocytosis** (16,000/mm³ with neutrophilia), and **hyperglycemia** (210 mg/dL) suggests an underlying acute medical condition (e.g., infection) as a precipitating factor for delirium in a vulnerable elderly patient with diabetes.
*Brief psychotic disorder*
- This disorder is characterized by the sudden onset of **psychotic symptoms** (e.g., delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech) lasting less than 1 month, but it is not typically associated with an acute medical illness or systemic signs like fever and leukocytosis.
- While the patient exhibits confusion, the clinical picture points more strongly to an acute organic cause rather than a primary psychiatric disorder.
*Alzheimer's dementia*
- Alzheimer's dementia typically manifests as a **gradual, progressive decline** in cognitive function over months to years, not an acute change in mental status over 2 days.
- Although advanced dementia can present with confusion and disorientation, the acute onset, fluctuating nature, and signs of an underlying infection make delirium more likely.
*Depression*
- Depression in the elderly can sometimes cause **cognitive slowing** or **"pseudodementia,"** but it does not typically present with acute disorientation, fever, or leukocytosis.
- The patient's presentation is more consistent with an acute confusional state rather than altered mood or anhedonia associated with depression.
*Delusional disorder*
- Delusional disorder involves **persistent, non-bizarre delusions** without other prominent psychotic symptoms or significant impairment in functioning, typically developing over a longer period.
- The patient's global confusion, disorientation, and acute medical signs are inconsistent with a primary delusional disorder.
Rapid assessment techniques US Medical PG Question 4: A patient presents to the emergency room in an obtunded state. The patient is a known nurse within the hospital system and has no history of any medical problems. A finger stick blood glucose is drawn showing a blood glucose of 25 mg/dL.
The patient's daughter immediately arrives at the hospital stating that her mother has been depressed recently and that she found empty syringes in the bathroom at the mother's home. Which of the following is the test that will likely reveal the diagnosis?
- A. Fasting blood glucose
- B. Urine metanephrines
- C. Genetic testing
- D. 24 hr cortisol
- E. C-peptide level (Correct Answer)
Rapid assessment techniques Explanation: ***C-peptide level***
- A **low C-peptide level** in the presence of **hypoglycemia** and high insulin levels confirms the diagnosis of **exogenous insulin administration** (factitious hypoglycemia).
- **C-peptide** is cleaved from **proinsulin** in equimolar amounts with endogenous insulin, making it an excellent marker to differentiate endogenous insulin production from exogenous insulin injection.
- In this case: **Low C-peptide + High insulin + Hypoglycemia** = exogenous insulin administration.
*Fasting blood glucose*
- The patient already has documented **hypoglycemia (25 mg/dL)**, so an additional fasting blood glucose test would not provide further diagnostic information about the **cause** of hypoglycemia.
- A single fasting blood glucose level indicates current glucose status but **does not differentiate** between endogenous insulin overproduction (insulinoma) and exogenous insulin administration.
*Urine metanephrines*
- **Urine metanephrines** are used to diagnose **pheochromocytoma**, a catecholamine-secreting tumor of the adrenal medulla.
- Pheochromocytoma presents with **hypertension**, palpitations, headaches, and diaphoresis—**not hypoglycemia**.
- This test is not relevant to the differential diagnosis of hypoglycemia.
*Genetic testing*
- **Genetic testing** might be considered for rare hereditary causes of hypoglycemia, such as congenital hyperinsulinism or genetic insulinoma syndromes (e.g., MEN1).
- Given the clinical context (depressed nurse with access to insulin and empty syringes found at home), **exogenous insulin administration** is far more likely than a genetic condition.
- Genetic testing is not the appropriate initial diagnostic step in this scenario.
*24 hr cortisol*
- A **24-hour urinary cortisol** test is used to diagnose **Cushing's syndrome** (cortisol excess), not hypoglycemia.
- While **adrenal insufficiency** (cortisol deficiency) can cause hypoglycemia, it typically presents with **hypotension**, **hyponatremia**, **hyperkalemia**, and **hyperpigmentation**—features not described in this case.
- The clinical presentation strongly suggests insulin-related hypoglycemia rather than adrenal insufficiency.
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