Acuity-based time allocation US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice US Medical PG questions for Acuity-based time allocation. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Acuity-based time allocation US Medical PG Question 1: A 22-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his friends 30 minutes after falling down a flight of stairs. His friends report that they were at a college party, where he drank large amounts of alcohol. He is aggressive and restless. Examination shows tenderness to palpation and swelling of his right lower leg. An x-ray of the right leg shows a lower tibial shaft fracture. The physician recommends overnight observation and surgery the following morning. The patient refuses the suggested treatment and requests immediate discharge. Otherwise, he says, he will call his lawyer and sue the entire medical staff involved in his care. Which of the following is the most appropriate response by the physician?
- A. You can leave the hospital after signing a self-discharge against medical advice form.
- B. If you don't consent to treatment, I'll be forced to obtain consent from your parents.
- C. I understand that you want to go home, but I'll have to keep you here as long as you are intoxicated. (Correct Answer)
- D. Have you ever felt you should cut down on your drinking?
- E. I can't force you to stay here, but I'll have to inform your dean of this incident.
Acuity-based time allocation Explanation: ***I understand that you want to go home, but I'll have to keep you here as long as you are intoxicated.***
- An **intoxicated patient may lack decision-making capacity** to refuse medically necessary treatment for a serious injury.
- Before accepting a refusal of treatment or allowing AMA discharge, physicians must **assess the patient's capacity** to make informed decisions.
- Signs of impaired capacity include **acute intoxication, aggressive behavior, and restlessness**, all present in this patient.
- Temporarily holding a patient who lacks capacity and has a serious medical condition requiring urgent care is **legally and ethically justified** to prevent harm—this is NOT false imprisonment.
- Once the patient regains capacity (i.e., sobers up), his decision-making ability can be reassessed, and if he still refuses, AMA discharge can be offered.
*You can leave the hospital after signing a self-discharge against medical advice form.*
- While competent adults have the right to refuse treatment and leave AMA, this option is **premature** because it fails to address the patient's **impaired decision-making capacity** due to acute intoxication.
- A valid refusal requires **capacity to understand the risks and consequences** of leaving—offering AMA discharge without capacity assessment is inappropriate and potentially negligent.
*I can't force you to stay here, but I'll have to inform your dean of this incident.*
- Threatening to inform the patient's dean is a **breach of confidentiality** and an unprofessional response.
- Healthcare providers are bound by **patient confidentiality (HIPAA)**, and sharing this information without consent is unethical and illegal.
*If you don't consent to treatment, I'll be forced to obtain consent from your parents.*
- Since the patient is a **competent adult (age 22)**, his parents cannot give or withhold consent for his medical treatment.
- Parental consent is only required for **minors** or adults who have been legally declared **incompetent** through a court process.
*Have you ever felt you should cut down on your drinking?*
- While addressing alcohol use disorder is important, asking a **CAGE screening question** in this acute, high-stress situation is **inappropriate timing** and poor prioritization.
- The immediate priority is addressing the patient's **acute medical needs and impaired capacity**, not initiating a substance abuse screening.
Acuity-based time allocation US Medical PG Question 2: After the administration of an erroneous dose of intravenous phenytoin for recurrent seizures, a 9-year-old girl develops bradycardia and asystole. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation was initiated immediately. After 15 minutes, the blood pressure is 120/75 mm Hg, the pulse is 105/min, and the respirations are 14/min and spontaneous. She is taken to the critical care unit for monitoring and mechanical ventilation. She follows commands but requires sedation due to severe anxiety. Which of the following terms most accurately describes the unexpected occurrence in this patient?
- A. Active error
- B. Sentinel event (Correct Answer)
- C. Near miss
- D. Latent error
- E. Adverse event
Acuity-based time allocation Explanation: ***Sentinel event***
- A **sentinel event** is defined by the Joint Commission as an unexpected occurrence involving **death or serious physical or psychological injury**, or the risk thereof. In this case, the patient experienced **asystole** and required CPR, which constitutes a serious physical injury.
- While an adverse event occurred, the **severity** and the **need for extreme medical intervention** make it a sentinel event, triggering the need for a thorough investigation.
*Active error*
- An **active error** is a mistake made by a frontline worker (e.g., administering an erroneous dose). While present in this scenario, it is a type of error, not the overarching term for the **outcome** and **severity** of the event.
- Active errors are typically the **direct cause** of an adverse event, but the question asks for the term that most accurately describes the **unexpected occurrence** and its impact.
*Near miss*
- A **near miss** is an error that could have caused harm but did not, either by chance or through timely intervention. In this case, the patient **did experience harm** (bradycardia, asystole, CPR), so it is not a near miss.
*Latent error*
- A **latent error** is a hidden flaw in a system or process that does not immediately lead to an accident but creates the conditions for one. Examples include poor system design, inadequate training, or insufficient resources.
- While latent errors might have contributed to the erroneous dose being given, this term describes the **underlying systemic problems**, not the acute, serious patient outcome.
*Adverse event*
- An **adverse event** is any injury caused by medical management rather than the underlying disease. The patient indeed suffered an adverse event.
- However, **sentinel event** is a more specific and accurate term given the **extreme severity** (asystole, CPR) of the outcome, distinguishing it from less severe adverse events.
Acuity-based time allocation US Medical PG Question 3: A 42-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain. Her pain started last night during dinner and has persisted. This morning, the patient felt very ill and her husband called emergency medical services. The patient has a past medical history of obesity, diabetes, and depression. Her temperature is 104°F (40°C), blood pressure is 90/65 mmHg, pulse is 160/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam is notable for a very ill appearing woman. Her skin is mildly yellow, and she is in an antalgic position on the stretcher. Laboratory values are ordered as seen below.
Hemoglobin: 13 g/dL
Hematocrit: 38%
Leukocyte count: 14,500 cells/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 257,000/mm^3
Alkaline phosphatase: 227 U/L
Bilirubin, total: 11.3 mg/dL
Bilirubin, direct: 9.8 mg/dL
AST: 42 U/L
ALT: 31 U/L
The patient is started on antibiotics and IV fluids. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
- A. Nasogastric tube and NPO
- B. Supportive therapy followed by elective cholecystectomy
- C. FAST exam
- D. Emergency cholecystectomy
- E. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (Correct Answer)
Acuity-based time allocation Explanation: ***Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography***
- The patient's presentation with **fever**, **jaundice**, **abdominal pain**, **hypotension**, and **tachycardia** (Reynolds' pentad) indicates **acute cholangitis**.
- **ERCP** is the best next step for **biliary decompression** and stone extraction in severe obstructive cholangitis to reduce morbidity and mortality.
*Nasogastric tube and NPO*
- While **NPO** (nothing by mouth) is standard for acute abdominal pain, a **nasogastric tube** is not typically indicated as a primary intervention for cholangitis unless there's associated vomiting or gastric distention.
- This step addresses symptoms but does not treat the underlying **biliary obstruction** and infection.
*Supportive therapy followed by elective cholecystectomy*
- **Supportive therapy** with antibiotics and IV fluids is already initiated but is insufficient for severe cholangitis requiring **urgent biliary drainage**.
- **Elective cholecystectomy** is performed after the acute infection has resolved, but not as an immediate intervention for an unstable patient with acute cholangitis.
*FAST exam*
- A **Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma (FAST)** exam is primarily used to detect **free fluid** (hemoperitoneum) in trauma patients.
- It is not indicated for the diagnosis or management of **biliary obstruction** or cholangitis in a non-trauma setting.
*Emergency cholecystectomy*
- **Emergency cholecystectomy** is generally reserved for complications like **gangrenous cholecystitis** or perforation, or after initial stabilization in acute cholecystitis.
- For **acute cholangitis**, the priority is **biliary decompression** first, which is typically achieved through ERCP, before considering cholecystectomy.
Acuity-based time allocation US Medical PG Question 4: A 35-year-old male is brought into the emergency department for a trauma emergency. The emergency medical services states that the patient was wounded with a knife on his upper left thigh near the inguinal ligament. Upon examination in the trauma bay, the patient is awake and alert. His physical exam and FAST exam is normal other than the knife wound. Large bore intravenous lines are inserted into the patient for access and fluids are being administered. Pressure on the knife wound is being held by one of the physicians with adequate control of the bleeding, but the physician notices the blood was previously extravasating in a pulsatile manner. His vitals are BP 100/50, HR 110, T 97.8, RR 22. What is the next best step for this patient?
- A. CT lower extremities
- B. Radiograph lower extremities
- C. Coagulation studies and blood typing/crossmatch
- D. Tourniquet of proximal lower extremity
- E. Emergent surgery (Correct Answer)
Acuity-based time allocation Explanation: ***Emergent surgery***
- The pulsatile bleeding from a thigh wound near the inguinal ligament is highly suggestive of a major arterial injury, such as to the **femoral artery**.
- Given the potential for rapid blood loss and hemodynamic instability, **emergent surgical exploration and repair** are necessary to control the bleeding and prevent further compromise.
*CT lower extremities*
- While CT angiography could further delineate vascular injury, the presence of **active pulsatile bleeding** necessitates immediate surgical intervention rather than delaying for imaging.
- Delaying surgery for imaging risks **exsanguination** and worsening patient outcomes, especially with a blood pressure of **100/50 mmHg** and a heart rate of **110 bpm**, indicating early shock.
*Radiograph lower extremities*
- A radiograph would primarily visualize bone structures and foreign bodies but would not provide adequate information regarding the **vascular injury** and active bleeding.
- It would not change the urgent need for **surgical exploration** to address the pulsatile hemorrhage.
*Coagulation studies and blood typing/crossmatch*
- These are important preparatory steps for major surgery involving significant blood loss, but they should be carried out **concurrently with preparations for emergent surgery**, not instead of it.
- Delaying surgery to await these results would be inappropriate when facing **active arterial bleeding**.
*Tourniquet of proximal lower extremity*
- While a tourniquet can be used for temporary hemorrhage control, especially in an uncontrolled external hemorrhage, the current bleeding is being controlled by **direct pressure**.
- Applying a tourniquet could cause **ischemic damage** to the extremity if applied for too long, and for a deep stab wound, direct compression is often effective until surgical control can be achieved.
Acuity-based time allocation US Medical PG Question 5: A regional academic medical center has 10 cases of adenovirus in the span of a week among its ICU patients. A committee is formed to investigate this outbreak. They are tasked with identifying the patients and interviewing the care providers to understand how adenovirus could have been spread from patient to patient. This committee will review charts, talk to the care provider teams, and investigate current patient safety and sanitation measures in the ICU. The goal of the committee is to identify weaknesses in the current system and to put in place a plan to help prevent this sort of outbreak from reoccurring in the future. The committee is most likely using what type of analysis?
- A. Simulation
- B. Root cause analysis (Correct Answer)
- C. Algorithmic analysis
- D. Heuristic analysis
- E. Failure mode and effects analysis
Acuity-based time allocation Explanation: ***Root cause analysis***
- The committee's goal is to **identify weaknesses** in the current system and **prevent recurrence**, which aligns perfectly with the principles of **root cause analysis (RCA)**.
- RCA is a structured method for **identifying the underlying causes** of problems or incidents, rather than just addressing symptoms.
*Simulation*
- **Simulation** involves creating a model of a process or system to test different scenarios and predict outcomes.
- While useful for planning, it's not the primary method for investigating an actual past event or identifying causative factors after an outbreak has occurred.
*Algorithmic analysis*
- **Algorithmic analysis** is primarily used in computer science to evaluate the efficiency and complexity of algorithms.
- It does not apply to investigating the spread of infectious diseases or healthcare system failures.
*Heuristic analysis*
- **Heuristic analysis** involves using a rule of thumb or an educated guess to solve a problem quickly and efficiently, especially when perfect solutions are not feasible.
- This approach is less systematic and comprehensive than what is required to thoroughly investigate an outbreak and identify root causes.
*Failure mode and effects analysis*
- **Failure mode and effects analysis (FMEA)** is a proactive method used to identify **potential failure modes** in a system and their effects *before* an event occurs.
- The committee is investigating an **already existing problem**, making RCA more appropriate than FMEA, which is used for risk assessment of future processes.
Acuity-based time allocation US Medical PG Question 6: The patient declines the use of oxytocin or any other further testing and decides to await a spontaneous delivery. Five weeks later, she comes to the emergency department complaining of vaginal bleeding for 1 hour. Her pulse is 110/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 112/76 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of 97%. Pelvic examination shows active vaginal bleeding. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 12.8 g/dL
Leukocyte count 10,300/mm3
Platelet count 105,000/mm3
Prothrombin time 26 seconds (INR=1.8)
Serum
Na+ 139 mEq/L
K+ 4.1 mEq/L
Cl- 101 mEq/L
Urea nitrogen 42 mg/dL
Creatinine 2.8 mg/dL
Which of the following is the most likely underlying mechanism of this patient's symptoms?
- A. Infection with gram-negative bacteria
- B. Thromboplastin in maternal circulation (Correct Answer)
- C. Amniotic fluid in maternal circulation
- D. Separation of the placenta from the uterus
- E. Decreased synthesis of coagulation factors
Acuity-based time allocation Explanation: ***Thromboplastin in maternal circulation***
* This patient's presentation with **vaginal bleeding**, **elevated PT/INR**, and **thrombocytopenia** is highly suggestive of **disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)**, which can be triggered by placental abruption or retained products of conception releasing tissue thromboplastin.
* The prior history of a prolonged gestation and refusal of intervention suggests potential for **placental insufficiency** or **intrauterine fetal demise**, both of which can lead to release of **thromboplastin** into the maternal circulation, activating the coagulation cascade and consuming clotting factors and platelets.
* *Infection with gram-negative bacteria*
* While **sepsis** from gram-negative bacteria can cause DIC, there are no overt signs of infection like fever, chills, or a significant rise in leukocyte count disproportionate to bleeding stress.
* The primary presentation is bleeding and coagulopathy, not systemic signs of infection.
* *Amniotic fluid in maternal circulation*
* **Amniotic fluid embolism** is a rare and catastrophic event, typically presenting with sudden **cardiovascular collapse**, **respiratory distress**, and **DIC**.
* This patient's vital signs and oxygen saturation are relatively stable, and she lacks the acute cardiorespiratory symptoms characteristic of amniotic fluid embolism.
* *Separation of the placenta from the uterus*
* **Placental abruption** (separation of the placenta) can cause vaginal bleeding and may
cause DIC by releasing tissue factor from the decidua into the maternal circulation.
* However, DIC itself is the mechanism of the coagulopathy, and the release of thromboplastin from the abrupted tissue is the more direct underlying cause of the coagulation cascade activation.
* *Decreased synthesis of coagulation factors*
* Conditions causing **decreased synthesis of coagulation factors** (e.g., severe **liver disease** or severe **vitamin K deficiency**) typically lead to coagulopathy over time.
* This patient's acute presentation with evidence of platelet consumption (thrombocytopenia) points towards a consumptive coagulopathy like DIC rather than impaired production.
Acuity-based time allocation US Medical PG Question 7: A 59-year-old woman comes to the physician because of left leg swelling that started after a transcontinental flight. A duplex ultrasound of the left leg shows a noncompressible popliteal vein. A drug is prescribed that inhibits the coagulation cascade. Two weeks later, laboratory studies show:
Platelet count 210,000/mm3
Partial thromboplastin time 28 seconds (normal: 25-35)
Prothrombin time 12 seconds (normal: 11-13)
Thrombin time 15 seconds (control: 15 seconds)
Which of the following drugs was most likely prescribed?
- A. Unfractionated heparin
- B. Apixaban
- C. Aspirin
- D. Warfarin
- E. Low molecular weight heparin (Correct Answer)
Acuity-based time allocation Explanation: ***Low molecular weight heparin***
- **LMWH (e.g., enoxaparin) is the first-line treatment for acute DVT** in ambulatory patients and is the most likely drug prescribed in this outpatient scenario
- LMWH enhances **antithrombin activity primarily against Factor Xa** (more than Factor IIa/thrombin), which is why it has **minimal effect on routine coagulation tests** (PT, PTT, TT)
- **Monitoring of LMWH is done via anti-Xa levels**, not PTT, PT, or TT, explaining why all these values remain normal two weeks after initiation
- The normal coagulation studies are **expected and consistent** with therapeutic LMWH use
*Unfractionated heparin*
- Unfractionated heparin (UFH) acts by enhancing **antithrombin activity against both Factor Xa and Factor IIa (thrombin)**, which significantly **prolongs PTT** (typically 1.5-2x control when therapeutic)
- UFH requires **IV administration and hospital monitoring**, making it unlikely for this ambulatory post-flight DVT patient
- If the patient were currently on UFH, the **PTT would be prolonged** (not normal as shown); if discontinued, this wouldn't be "the drug prescribed" for ongoing DVT treatment
*Apixaban*
- Apixaban is a **direct Factor Xa inhibitor** that would cause **mild prolongation of PT** and possibly PTT at therapeutic levels
- While it's a reasonable outpatient DVT treatment, the completely normal PT argues against current apixaban use
- Apixaban doesn't require routine monitoring, but when measured, coagulation times would typically show some abnormality
*Warfarin*
- Warfarin is a **vitamin K antagonist** that inhibits synthesis of factors II, VII, IX, and X, causing **significant PT/INR prolongation** (target INR 2-3 for DVT)
- The **normal PT (12 seconds) excludes warfarin** as the current medication
- Warfarin requires regular INR monitoring and would not show normal values at therapeutic doses
*Aspirin*
- Aspirin is an **antiplatelet agent** (COX-1 inhibitor) that affects platelet aggregation, **not the coagulation cascade**
- It has **no effect on PT, PTT, or TT** and is **inadequate monotherapy for DVT treatment**
- While it may have a role in extended VTE prevention, it would not be the primary drug prescribed for acute DVT
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