Decision-making in limited resource settings US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice US Medical PG questions for Decision-making in limited resource settings. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Decision-making in limited resource settings US Medical PG Question 1: A 22-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance 1 hour after a motor vehicle accident. He did not require any circulatory resuscitation at the scene, but he was intubated because he was unresponsive. He has no history of serious illnesses. He is on mechanical ventilation with no sedation. His blood pressure is 121/62 mm Hg, the pulse is 68/min, and the temperature is 36.5°C (97.7°F). His Glasgow coma scale (GCS) is 3. Early laboratory studies show no abnormalities. A search of the state donor registry shows that he has registered as an organ donor. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in evaluation?
- A. Evaluation of brainstem reflexes (Correct Answer)
- B. Brain MRI
- C. Electroencephalography
- D. Cerebral angiography
- E. Apnea test
Decision-making in limited resource settings Explanation: ***Evaluation of brainstem reflexes***
- In a patient with a **Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) of 3** and no response to noxious stimuli/sedation, assessment of **brainstem reflexes** is a critical step in determining brain death.
- This evaluation includes checking for pupillary light reflex, corneal reflex, vestibulo-ocular reflex (doll's eyes), oculocephalic reflex, and gag/cough reflexes to ascertain the complete absence of brainstem function.
*Brain MRI*
- While a brain MRI can provide detailed anatomical information regarding brain injury, it is **not the primary diagnostic test** for determining brain death.
- Brain death is a **clinical diagnosis** based on the irreversible loss of brain and brainstem function, which can be confirmed rapidly by clinical examination.
*Electroencephalography*
- **EEG** measures electrical activity in the brain and can show electrocerebral silence, which is consistent with brain death.
- However, EEG is **not always required** for the diagnosis of brain death and is often used as a confirmatory test in specific situations, such as when clinical examination is inconclusive or legal requirements necessitate it.
*Cerebral angiography*
- **Cerebral angiography** can demonstrate the absence of cerebral blood flow, which is a criterion for brain death.
- This is an **invasive procedure** and is generally reserved for situations where clinical examination tests are difficult to perform or interpret (e.g., severe facial trauma, drug intoxication), and is not the initial step.
*Apnea test*
- The **apnea test** is a critical component of the brain death evaluation, confirming the absence of spontaneous breathing response to hypercapnia.
- It is performed **after the absence of brainstem reflexes** has been established and all confounding factors (e.g., hypothermia, hypotension, sedatives) have been ruled out.
Decision-making in limited resource settings US Medical PG Question 2: A 33-year-old man is brought by ambulance to the emergency room after being a passenger in a motor vehicle accident. An empty bottle of whiskey was found in his front seat, and the patient admits to having been drinking all night. He has multiple lacerations and bruising on his face and scalp and a supportive cervical collar is placed. He is endorsing a significant headache and starts vomiting in the emergency room. His vitals, however, are stable, and he is transported to the CT scanner. While there, he states that he does not want to have a CT scan and asks to be released. What is the most appropriate course of action?
- A. Have the patient fill the appropriate forms and discharge against medical advice
- B. Explain to him that he is intoxicated and cannot make health care decisions, continue as planned (Correct Answer)
- C. Release the patient as requested
- D. Agree to not do the CT scan
- E. Call security
Decision-making in limited resource settings Explanation: ***Explain to him that he is intoxicated and cannot make health care decisions, continue as planned***
- The patient's **intoxication** (empty whiskey bottle, admitted drinking all night) and **head injury symptoms** (headache, vomiting after MVA) suggest he lacks the capacity to make informed medical decisions.
- When a patient lacks capacity, the medical team has an ethical and legal obligation to act in their **best interest**, which includes performing necessary diagnostic tests like a CT scan to rule out serious intracranial injuries.
*Have the patient fill the appropriate forms and discharge against medical advice*
- Discharging a patient against medical advice requires they have the **full capacity** to understand the risks and benefits of their decision, which is compromised by intoxication and head trauma.
- Doing so without ensuring capacity places the patient at significant risk and could have **legal implications** for the healthcare provider and institution.
*Release the patient as requested*
- Releasing an intoxicated patient with a potential **head injury** into the community is medically negligent and highly dangerous given the risk of worsening neurological status.
- Such an action disregards the principle of **beneficence** and the duty to prevent harm, especially when capacity is in question.
*Agree to not do the CT scan*
- Refusing a necessary diagnostic test like a **CT scan** for a patient with head trauma and altered mental status (due to intoxication) can lead to missed diagnoses of life-threatening conditions like intracranial hemorrhage.
- This decision would allow the patient to leave without proper assessment, potentially jeopardizing their life and violating the standard of care to **stabilize** and **diagnose**.
*Call security*
- While security might be needed if the patient becomes disruptive or aggressive, simply calling security without attempting to explain the situation or assess capacity doesn't address the primary medical and ethical dilemma.
- The immediate priority is to ensure the patient's well-being and assess their cognitive ability to make choices, with security being a secondary measure for **safety** if necessary.
Decision-making in limited resource settings US Medical PG Question 3: A 29-year-old man is admitted to the emergency department following a motorcycle accident. The patient is severely injured and requires life support after splenectomy and evacuation of a subdural hematoma. Past medical history is unremarkable. The patient’s family members, including wife, parents, siblings, and grandparents, are informed about the patient’s condition. The patient has no living will and there is no durable power of attorney. The patient must be put in an induced coma for an undetermined period of time. Which of the following is responsible for making medical decisions for the incapacitated patient?
- A. The spouse (Correct Answer)
- B. An older sibling
- C. Physician
- D. Legal guardian
- E. The parents
Decision-making in limited resource settings Explanation: ***The spouse***
- In the absence of a **living will** or **durable power of attorney**, the law typically designates the **spouse** as the primary decision-maker for an incapacitated patient.
- This hierarchy is established to ensure decisions are made by the individual most intimately connected and presumed to understand the patient's wishes.
*An older sibling*
- Siblings are generally further down the **hierarchy of surrogate decision-makers** than a spouse or parents.
- They would typically only be considered if higher-priority family members are unavailable or unwilling to make decisions.
*Physician*
- The physician's role is to provide medical care and guidance, not to make medical decisions for an incapacitated patient when family surrogates are available.
- Physicians only make decisions in **emergency situations** when no surrogate is immediately available and treatment is immediately necessary to save the patient's life or prevent serious harm.
*Legal guardian*
- A legal guardian is usually appointed by a **court** when there is no appropriate family member available or when there is a dispute among family members.
- In this scenario, with a spouse and other close family members present, a legal guardian would not be the first choice.
*The parents*
- While parents are close family members, they are typically considered **secondary to the spouse** in the hierarchy of surrogate decision-makers for an adult patient.
- They would usually only be the decision-makers if the patient were unmarried or the spouse were unavailable.
Decision-making in limited resource settings US Medical PG Question 4: After the administration of an erroneous dose of intravenous phenytoin for recurrent seizures, a 9-year-old girl develops bradycardia and asystole. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation was initiated immediately. After 15 minutes, the blood pressure is 120/75 mm Hg, the pulse is 105/min, and the respirations are 14/min and spontaneous. She is taken to the critical care unit for monitoring and mechanical ventilation. She follows commands but requires sedation due to severe anxiety. Which of the following terms most accurately describes the unexpected occurrence in this patient?
- A. Active error
- B. Sentinel event (Correct Answer)
- C. Near miss
- D. Latent error
- E. Adverse event
Decision-making in limited resource settings Explanation: ***Sentinel event***
- A **sentinel event** is defined by the Joint Commission as an unexpected occurrence involving **death or serious physical or psychological injury**, or the risk thereof. In this case, the patient experienced **asystole** and required CPR, which constitutes a serious physical injury.
- While an adverse event occurred, the **severity** and the **need for extreme medical intervention** make it a sentinel event, triggering the need for a thorough investigation.
*Active error*
- An **active error** is a mistake made by a frontline worker (e.g., administering an erroneous dose). While present in this scenario, it is a type of error, not the overarching term for the **outcome** and **severity** of the event.
- Active errors are typically the **direct cause** of an adverse event, but the question asks for the term that most accurately describes the **unexpected occurrence** and its impact.
*Near miss*
- A **near miss** is an error that could have caused harm but did not, either by chance or through timely intervention. In this case, the patient **did experience harm** (bradycardia, asystole, CPR), so it is not a near miss.
*Latent error*
- A **latent error** is a hidden flaw in a system or process that does not immediately lead to an accident but creates the conditions for one. Examples include poor system design, inadequate training, or insufficient resources.
- While latent errors might have contributed to the erroneous dose being given, this term describes the **underlying systemic problems**, not the acute, serious patient outcome.
*Adverse event*
- An **adverse event** is any injury caused by medical management rather than the underlying disease. The patient indeed suffered an adverse event.
- However, **sentinel event** is a more specific and accurate term given the **extreme severity** (asystole, CPR) of the outcome, distinguishing it from less severe adverse events.
Decision-making in limited resource settings US Medical PG Question 5: A 28-year-old woman dies shortly after receiving a blood transfusion. Autopsy reveals widespread intravascular hemolysis and acute renal failure. Investigation reveals that she received type A blood, but her medical record indicates she was type O. In a malpractice lawsuit, which of the following elements must be proven?
- A. Duty, breach, causation, and damages (Correct Answer)
- B. Only duty and breach
- C. Only breach and causation
- D. Duty, breach, and damages
Decision-making in limited resource settings Explanation: ***Duty, breach, causation, and damages***
- In a medical malpractice lawsuit, all four elements—**duty, breach, causation, and damages**—must be proven for a successful claim.
- The healthcare provider had a **duty** to provide competent care, they **breached** that duty by administering the wrong blood type, this breach **caused** the patient's death and renal failure, and these injuries constitute **damages**.
*Only duty and breach*
- While **duty** and **breach** are necessary components, proving only these two is insufficient for a malpractice claim.
- It must also be demonstrated that the breach directly led to the patient's harm and resulted in legally recognized damages.
*Only breach and causation*
- This option omits the crucial elements of professional **duty** owed to the patient and the resulting **damages**.
- A claim cannot succeed without establishing that a duty existed and that quantifiable harm occurred.
*Duty, breach, and damages*
- This option misses the critical element of **causation**, which links the provider's breach of duty to the patient's injuries.
- Without proving that the breach *caused* the damages, even if a duty was owed and breached, and damages occurred, the claim would fail.
Decision-making in limited resource settings US Medical PG Question 6: A 3-week-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents because of a 3-day history of progressive lethargy and difficulty feeding. He was born at term and did not have difficulty feeding previously. His temperature is 39.4°C (103°F), pulse is 220/min, respirations are 45/min, and blood pressure is 50/30 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry on 100% oxygen shows an oxygen saturation of 97%. Examination shows dry mucous membranes, delayed capillary refill time, and cool skin with poor turgor. Despite multiple attempts by the nursing staff, they are unable to establish peripheral intravenous access. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- A. Intraosseous cannulation (Correct Answer)
- B. Ultrasound-guided antecubital vein cannulation
- C. Internal jugular vein cannulation
- D. Intramuscular epinephrine
- E. Rapid sequence intubation
Decision-making in limited resource settings Explanation: ***Intraosseous cannulation***
- This infant is in **pediatric septic shock** with signs of **poor perfusion** (delayed capillary refill, cool skin, poor turgor, hypotension) and **difficulty obtaining peripheral intravenous access**.
- **Intraosseous (IO) access** is recommended in pediatric emergencies when IV access cannot be established rapidly, providing a route for fluids, medications, and blood products.
*Ultrasound-guided antecubital vein cannulation*
- While ultrasound can improve success rates for peripheral IVs, the **critical condition** of this infant necessitates immediate vascular access, making IO a faster and more reliable option when peripheral attempts fail.
- Delaying definitive fluid resuscitation and medication administration to attempt a more technically challenging peripheral IV could worsen the patient's outcome.
*Internal jugular vein cannulation*
- **Central venous access (e.g., internal jugular)** is a more invasive and time-consuming procedure with higher risks (e.g., pneumothorax) and is not the first-line access in an emergent, unstable pediatric patient due to the time constraint.
- **IO access** is a quicker and safer route for immediate life-saving interventions in pediatric emergencies.
*Intramuscular epinephrine*
- **Intramuscular epinephrine** is primarily used for the treatment of **anaphylaxis** or in certain cardiac arrest algorithms, neither of which is the primary concern here.
- This patient is in septic shock requiring fluid resuscitation and likely antibiotics, which cannot be adequately delivered via intramuscular injection.
*Rapid sequence intubation*
- While intubation might be considered if the patient's respiratory status deteriorates further or for airway protection, the **immediate priority** is to address the **shock** and **poor perfusion** through vascular access and fluid resuscitation.
- **Intubation** alone will not correct the underlying circulatory collapse and shock state.
Decision-making in limited resource settings US Medical PG Question 7: A 1-minute-old newborn is being examined by the pediatric nurse. The nurse auscultates the heart and determines that the heart rate is 89/min. The respirations are spontaneous and regular. The chest and abdomen are both pink while the tips of the fingers and toes are blue. When the newborn’s foot is slapped the face grimaces and he cries loud and strong. When the arms are extended by the nurse they flex back quickly. What is this patient’s Apgar score?
- A. 5
- B. 10
- C. 8 (Correct Answer)
- D. 6
- E. 9
Decision-making in limited resource settings Explanation: ***8***
- The Apgar score is calculated by assigning 0, 1, or 2 points to five criteria: **Appearance**, **Pulse**, **Grimace (reflex irritability)**, **Activity (muscle tone)**, and **Respiration**.
- This newborn scores 1 point for **Appearance** (pink body, blue extremities/acrocyanosis), 1 point for **Pulse** (89/min, which is below 100), 2 points for **Grimace** (cries loud and strong), 2 points for **Activity** (arms flex back quickly), and 2 points for **Respiration** (spontaneous and regular), totaling **8**.
*5*
- An Apgar score of 5 would indicate a more compromised state, with lower scores in multiple categories.
- This newborn demonstrates strong respiratory effort, vigorous cry, and active muscle tone, all inconsistent with a score of 5.
*10*
- A perfect score of 10 is rare and would require the newborn to have a **pink appearance throughout** (including extremities), a heart rate over 100 bpm, strong cry, active movement, and vigorous breathing.
- This newborn has two findings preventing a score of 10: **acrocyanosis** (blue extremities) and **heart rate of 89/min** (below 100).
*6*
- An Apgar score of 6 would imply more significant compromise, such as weak respiratory effort, minimal response to stimulation, or poor muscle tone.
- This newborn's strong cry, vigorous grimace response, and quick flexion indicate better performance than a score of 6.
*9*
- A score of 9 would mean only one parameter scores 1 point, with all others scoring 2 points.
- This newborn has **two parameters scoring 1 point**: **Appearance** (acrocyanosis) and **Pulse** (89/min, below 100), making the maximum possible score 8, not 9.
Decision-making in limited resource settings US Medical PG Question 8: A previously healthy 44-year-old man is brought by his coworkers to the emergency department 45 minutes after he became light-headed and collapsed while working in the boiler room of a factory. He did not lose consciousness. His coworkers report that 30 minutes prior to collapsing, he told them he was nauseous and had a headache. The patient appears sweaty and lethargic. He is not oriented to time, place, or person. The patient’s vital signs are as follows: temperature 41°C (105.8°F); heart rate 133/min; respiratory rate 22/min; and blood pressure 90/52 mm Hg. Examination shows equal and reactive pupils. Deep tendon reflexes are 2+ bilaterally. His neck is supple. A 0.9% saline infusion is administered. A urinary catheter is inserted and dark brown urine is collected. The patient’s laboratory test results are as follows:
Laboratory test
Blood
Hemoglobin 15 g/dL
Leukocyte count 18,000/mm3
Platelet count 51,000/mm3
Serum
Na+ 149 mEq/L
K+ 5.0 mEq/L
Cl- 98 mEq/L
Urea nitrogen 42 mg/dL
Glucose 88 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.8 mg/dL
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST, GOT) 210
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT, GPT) 250
Creatine kinase 86,000 U/mL
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in patient management?
- A. Dantrolene
- B. Acetaminophen therapy
- C. Hemodialysis
- D. Ice water immersion (Correct Answer)
- E. Evaporative cooling
Decision-making in limited resource settings Explanation: ***Ice water immersion***
- This patient presents with signs and symptoms consistent with **heat stroke**, including high body temperature (41°C), altered mental status, and a history of working in a hot environment (boiler room). **Rapid aggressive cooling** is the most critical immediate intervention to prevent organ damage.
- **Ice water immersion** is the fastest and most effective cooling method for heat stroke, aiming to reduce core body temperature to less than 39°C (102.2°F) within 30 minutes.
*Dantrolene*
- **Dantrolene** is primarily used to treat **malignant hyperthermia** and **neuroleptic malignant syndrome**, conditions caused by abnormal calcium release in muscle cells, not environmental heat exposure.
- While both conditions involve hyperthermia, the underlying pathophysiology and triggers are different from heat stroke.
*Acetaminophen therapy*
- **Acetaminophen** is an antipyretic that works by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis in the central nervous system, affecting the hypothalamic thermoregulatory center.
- It is **ineffective** for the hyperthermia seen in heat stroke, which is due to a failure of thermoregulation rather than an altered hypothalamic set point, and could potentially worsen liver injury.
*Hemodialysis*
- **Hemodialysis** is indicated for severe **renal failure**, drug overdose, or certain electrolyte imbalances. Although this patient has acute kidney injury (elevated BUN and creatinine, dark urine suggestive of rhabdomyolysis), aggressive cooling is the immediate life-saving intervention for heat stroke.
- While renal support might be necessary later if kidney injury progresses, it is not the most appropriate *initial* next step for hyperthermia and altered mental status.
*Evaporative cooling*
- **Evaporative cooling** (e.g., spraying with lukewarm water and using fans) is a cooling method that can be effective, particularly in environments with low humidity.
- However, for severe heat stroke with a temperature as high as 41°C, **ice water immersion** provides a more rapid and aggressive temperature reduction, which is crucial for improving outcomes.
Decision-making in limited resource settings US Medical PG Question 9: A 69-year-old woman with acute myeloid leukemia comes to the physician to discuss future treatment plans. She expresses interest in learning more about an experimental therapy being offered for her condition. After the physician explains the mechanism of the drug and describes the risks and benefits, the patient then states that she is not ready to die. When the physician asks her what her understanding of the therapy is, she responds "I don't remember the details, but I just know that I definitely want to try it, because I don't want to die." Which of the following ethical principles is compromised in this physician's interaction with the patient?
- A. Patient competence
- B. Patient autonomy
- C. Decision-making capacity (Correct Answer)
- D. Information disclosure
- E. Therapeutic privilege
Decision-making in limited resource settings Explanation: ***Decision-making capacity***
- This refers to a patient's ability to **understand information relevant to a medical decision**, appreciate their situation, reason through options, and communicate a choice. The patient's statement indicates a lack of understanding of the details of the complex treatment, despite being explained.
- While she expresses a choice, her inability to recall details suggests she cannot adequately **weigh risks and benefits**, which is central to capacity.
*Patient competence*
- **Competence is a legal determination** made by a court, not by a physician in a clinical setting.
- Physicians assess **decision-making capacity**, which is a clinical judgment, whereas legal competence has broader implications.
*Patient autonomy*
- **Autonomy is the right of a patient to make their own choices** about their medical care. While the patient is attempting to exercise a choice, the issue here is whether she is able to make an adequately informed choice.
- For autonomy to be truly upheld, the patient must have the **capacity to make an informed decision**, which is compromised by her stated lack of understanding.
*Information disclosure*
- The physician *did* disclose information about the drug's mechanism, risks, and benefits, indicating that the act of disclosure itself was performed.
- The problem is not that information was withheld, but that the patient **did not retain or understand the disclosed information** sufficiently.
*Therapeutic privilege*
- **Therapeutic privilege** is when a physician withholds information from a patient if they believe the disclosure would cause significant harm.
- In this scenario, the physician *did* explain the treatment, so information was not withheld under privilege.
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