Upper/Lower Limb

Upper/Lower Limb US Medical PG Question 1: A 52-year-old man with stage IV melanoma comes to the physician with his wife for a routine follow-up examination. He was recently diagnosed with new bone and brain metastases despite receiving aggressive chemotherapy but has not disclosed this to his wife. He has given verbal consent to discuss his prognosis with his wife and asks the doctor to inform her of his condition because he does not wish to do so himself. She is tearful and has many questions about his condition. Which of the following would be the most appropriate statement by the physician to begin the interview with the patient's wife?

• A. Have you discussed a living will or goals of care together?
• B. We should talk about how we can manage his symptoms with additional chemotherapy.
• C. Why do you think your husband has not discussed his medical condition with you?
• D. What is your understanding of your husband's current condition? (Correct Answer)
• E. Your husband has end-stage cancer, and his prognosis is poor.

Upper/Lower Limb Explanation: ***What is your understanding of your husband's current condition?*** - This statement initiates the conversation by **assessing the wife's current knowledge** and emotional state, which is crucial for delivering sensitive and appropriate information. - It allows the physician to tailor the discussion to her specific understanding and concerns, ensuring that information is delivered compassionately and effectively. *Have you discussed a living will or goals of care together?* - This question is too abrupt and **premature** as an opening, as the wife is clearly distressed and unaware of the full severity of her husband's condition. - Discussions about end-of-life planning should only occur after the patient's wife has a clear understanding of the diagnosis and prognosis, and has processed this information. *Your husband has end-stage cancer, and his prognosis is poor.* - While factual, this statement is **too blunt and lacks empathy** for an opening, especially given the wife's emotional state and lack of prior knowledge. - Delivering such devastating news directly without first assessing her understanding or providing context can be traumatic and impede effective communication. *We should talk about how we can manage his symptoms with additional chemotherapy.* - This statement implies a focus on further aggressive treatment which may not be appropriate given the **new bone and brain metastases** and aggressive prior chemotherapy, suggesting a limited benefit of more chemotherapy. - It also **diverts from the primary need to discuss the overall prognosis** and the patient's rapidly declining condition, which the doctor has been asked to convey. *Why do you think your husband has not discussed his medical condition with you?* - This question is **accusatory** and places blame on either the patient or the wife, which is inappropriate and unhelpful in a sensitive medical discussion. - It shifts the focus away from providing medical information and empathy towards a speculative and potentially confrontational topic.

Upper/Lower Limb US Medical PG Question 2: A 6-month-old male presents to the emergency department with his parents after his three-year-old brother hit him on the arm with a toy truck. His parents are concerned that the minor trauma caused an unusual amount of bruising. The patient has otherwise been developing well and meeting all his milestones. His parents report that he sleeps throughout the night and has just started to experiment with solid food. The patient’s older brother is in good health, but the patient’s mother reports that some members of her family have an unknown blood disorder. On physical exam, the patient is agitated and difficult to soothe. He has 2-3 inches of ecchymoses and swelling on the lateral aspect of the left forearm. The patient has a neurological exam within normal limits and pale skin with blue irises. An ophthalmologic evaluation is deferred. Which of the following is the best initial step?

• A. Genetic testing
• B. Complete blood count and coagulation panel (Correct Answer)
• C. Ensure the child's safety and alert the police
• D. Peripheral blood smear
• E. Hemoglobin electrophoresis

Upper/Lower Limb Explanation: ***Complete blood count and coagulation panel*** - The unusual amount of **bruising** after minor trauma, along with a family history of an unknown blood disorder, strongly suggests a potential **bleeding disorder**. A **CBC** and a **coagulation panel** (PT, aPTT, fibrinogen) are essential initial steps to evaluate for abnormalities in platelets, clotting factors, or other hematologic conditions. - These tests can help narrow down the differential diagnosis between **platelet dysfunction**, **coagulopathies** (like hemophilia or von Willebrand disease), or other less common bleeding disorders, guiding further specific investigations. - **Important consideration:** The presence of **blue sclera** (described as "blue irises") raises concern for **osteogenesis imperfecta (OI)**, a connective tissue disorder causing bone fragility. However, initial hematologic screening is still appropriate given the family history of blood disorder and presentation of excessive bruising. If coagulation studies are normal, imaging and further workup for OI would be indicated. *Genetic testing* - While a genetic component is plausible given the patient's family history and clinical presentation (blue sclera may suggest osteogenesis imperfecta), **genetic testing** is typically performed *after* initial laboratory workup has identified a specific type of bleeding or inherited disorder. - Starting with genetic testing without basic hematologic parameters is not the most efficient or cost-effective initial diagnostic approach. *Ensure the child's safety and alert the police* - While child abuse should always be considered in cases of unexplained or excessive bruising, the presence of a **family history of a blood disorder** and the **blue sclera** (suggesting possible osteogenesis imperfecta) make **medical causes** more immediate concerns for initial investigation. - Pursuing a medical workup first often clarifies whether abuse is the primary explanation, although child protective services should be notified if suspicion remains high after medical evaluation. *Peripheral blood smear* - A **peripheral blood smear** provides information on red blood cell morphology, platelet size and number, and white blood cell differential. While useful in assessing for some hematologic conditions, it is often performed *after* a CBC has indicated abnormalities or in conjunction with specialized testing. - It would not be the *best initial step* as it doesn't directly assess clotting factor function, which is critical in evaluating significant bruising severity. *Hemoglobin electrophoresis* - **Hemoglobin electrophoresis** is used to diagnose **hemoglobinopathies** like sickle cell anemia or thalassemia. - The patient's symptoms (easy bruising) are not characteristic of hemoglobinopathies, and while he has pale skin, this test would not be the initial step to investigate a bleeding disorder.

Upper/Lower Limb US Medical PG Question 3: A 31-year-old woman presents with difficulty walking and climbing stairs for the last 3 weeks. She has no history of trauma. The physical examination reveals a waddling gait with the trunk swaying from side-to-side towards the weight-bearing limb. When she stands on her right leg, the pelvis on the left side falls. When she stands on her left leg, the pelvis remains level. Which of the following nerves is most likely injured in this patient?

• A. Right inferior gluteal nerve
• B. Right obturator nerve
• C. Right superior gluteal nerve (Correct Answer)
• D. Right femoral nerve
• E. Left femoral nerve

Upper/Lower Limb Explanation: ***Right superior gluteal nerve*** - The presentation of a **waddling gait** and the **Trendelenburg sign** (pelvis dropping on the unsupported side) is characteristic of **gluteus medius** and **minimus** weakness. - These muscles are innervated by the **superior gluteal nerve**. In this case, when the patient stands on her right leg, the left pelvis falls, indicating weakness of the right gluteus medius/minimus. *Right inferior gluteal nerve* - The **inferior gluteal nerve** innervates the **gluteus maximus**, which is primarily responsible for hip extension. - Damage to this nerve would primarily lead to difficulty with **climbing stairs** and rising from a seated position, but not typically the specific pelvic drop described. *Right obturator nerve* - The **obturator nerve** innervates the **adductor muscles** of the thigh. - Damage would result in weakness of hip adduction and **medial thigh sensory deficits**, which are not the primary symptoms here. *Right femoral nerve* - The **femoral nerve** innervates the **quadriceps femoris** and the **sartorius**, responsible for knee extension and hip flexion. - Injury would cause difficulty with **knee extension** and **hip flexion**, potentially leading to knee buckling or instability, which is not consistent with the Trendelenburg sign observed. *Left femoral nerve* - Injury to the left femoral nerve would affect the **left quadriceps** and **sartorius** muscles. - This would cause weakness in extending the left knee and flexing the left hip, which is not consistent with the observed **right-sided gluteal weakness** indicated by the Trendelenburg sign on the right.

Upper/Lower Limb US Medical PG Question 4: A 51-year-old woman comes to the physician because of progressively worsening lower back pain. The pain radiates down the right leg to the lateral side of the foot. She has had no trauma, urinary incontinence, or fever. An MRI of the lumbar spine shows disc degeneration and herniation at the level of L5–S1. Which of the following is the most likely finding on physical examination?

• A. Difficulty walking on heels
• B. Exaggerated patellar tendon reflex
• C. Diminished sensation of the anus and genitalia
• D. Diminished sensation of the anterior lateral thigh
• E. Weak Achilles tendon reflex (Correct Answer)

Upper/Lower Limb Explanation: ***Weak Achilles tendon reflex*** - A herniated disc at **L5-S1** typically compresses the **S1 nerve root**, which is responsible for the **Achilles tendon reflex**. - **S1 radiculopathy** presents with weakness in plantarflexion, diminished or absent Achilles reflex, and sensory loss in the **lateral foot** (matching the patient's symptoms). *Difficulty walking on heels* - Difficulty walking on heels (**dorsiflexion weakness**) is primarily associated with **L4-L5 disc herniation** compressing the **L5 nerve root**. - This symptom indicates **L5 radiculopathy**, which affects the tibialis anterior muscle, not S1. *Exaggerated patellar tendon reflex* - An exaggerated patellar tendon reflex (**hyperreflexia**) indicates an **upper motor neuron lesion** or spinal cord compression above the lumbar region. - A disc herniation at **L5-S1** causes a **lower motor neuron lesion** with diminished reflexes, not hyperreflexia. *Diminished sensation of the anus and genitalia* - This symptom, along with urinary incontinence and saddle anesthesia, is characteristic of **cauda equina syndrome**, a surgical emergency. - The patient lacks urinary incontinence and the specific unilateral pain pattern points to isolated **S1 radiculopathy**, not cauda equina syndrome. *Diminished sensation of the anterior lateral thigh* - Sensory loss in the **anterior lateral thigh** is associated with compression of the **lateral femoral cutaneous nerve** or **L2-L4 nerve roots**. - This pattern is not consistent with **L5-S1 disc herniation**, which causes sensory changes in the lateral foot and posterior leg.

Upper/Lower Limb US Medical PG Question 5: A 41-year-old woman presents with back pain for the past 2 days. She says that the pain radiates down along the posterior right thigh and leg. She says the pain started suddenly after lifting a heavy box 2 days ago. Past medical history is irrelevant. Physical examination reveals a straight leg raise (SLR) test restricted to 30°, inability to walk on her toes, decreased sensation along the lateral border of her right foot, and diminished ankle jerk on the same side. Which of the following nerve roots is most likely compressed?

• A. Fourth lumbar nerve root (L4)
• B. Second sacral nerve root (S2)
• C. Third sacral nerve root (S3)
• D. Fifth lumbar nerve root (L5)
• E. First sacral nerve root (S1) (Correct Answer)

Upper/Lower Limb Explanation: ***First sacral nerve root (S1)*** - **Inability to walk on toes** (weakness of gastrocnemius and soleus), **decreased sensation along the lateral border of the foot**, and a **diminished ankle jerk** are classic signs of S1 radiculopathy. - The radiating pain down the posterior leg, restricted straight leg raise due to a sudden onset after lifting, points towards a **disc herniation** compressing the S1 nerve root. *Fourth lumbar nerve root (L4)* - Compression of L4 typically causes **weakness in knee extension** (quadriceps), diminished patellar reflex, and sensory loss over the medial aspect of the shin. - The patient's symptoms (inability to walk on toes, diminished ankle jerk) are not consistent with L4 nerve root involvement. *Second sacral nerve root (S2)* - S2 radiculopathy primarily affects sensation in the posterior thigh and calf and can cause **weakness in knee flexion** and **plantarflexion**, but the complete constellation of symptoms (especially ankle jerk reflex) is more indicative of S1. - Isolated S2 compression without S1 involvement is less common with these specific signs. *Third sacral nerve root (S3)* - S3 nerve root compression typically presents with **perineal numbness** and issues with bowel or bladder function due to its involvement in these functions. - The described motor and sensory deficits are not characteristic of S3 radiculopathy. *Fifth lumbar nerve root (L5)* - L5 radiculopathy is characterized by **weakness in foot dorsiflexion** (foot drop) and toe extension, leading to inability to walk on heels, and sensory loss on the dorsum of the foot. - While L5 compression can cause radiating pain and a restricted straight leg raise, the specific deficit of **inability to walk on toes** and a **diminished ankle jerk** are not typical of L5 involvement.

Upper/Lower Limb US Medical PG Question 6: A 65-year-old man is admitted to the hospital because of a 1-month history of fatigue, intermittent fever, and weakness. Results from a peripheral blood smear taken during his evaluation are indicative of possible acute myeloid leukemia. Bone marrow aspiration and subsequent cytogenetic studies confirm the diagnosis. The physician sets aside an appointed time-slot and arranges a meeting in a quiet office to inform him about the diagnosis and discuss his options. He has been encouraged to bring someone along to the appointment if he wanted. He comes to your office at the appointed time with his daughter. He appears relaxed, with a full range of affect. Which of the following is the most appropriate opening statement in this situation?

• A. Your lab reports show that you have an acute myeloid leukemia
• B. What is your understanding of the reasons we did bone marrow aspiration and cytogenetic studies? (Correct Answer)
• C. You must be curious and maybe even anxious about the results of your tests.
• D. I may need to refer you to a blood cancer specialist because of your diagnosis. You may need chemotherapy or radiotherapy, which we are not equipped for.
• E. Would you like to know all the details of your diagnosis, or would you prefer I just explain to you what our options are?

Upper/Lower Limb Explanation: ***"What is your understanding of the reasons we did bone marrow aspiration and cytogenetic studies?"*** - This **open-ended question** allows the patient to express their current knowledge and perceptions, which helps the physician tailor the discussion. - It establishes a **patient-centered approach**, respecting the patient's existing understanding and preparing them for further information. *"You must be curious and maybe even anxious about the results of your tests."* - While empathic, this statement makes an **assumption about the patient's feelings** rather than inviting them to share their own. - It is often better to ask directly or use more open-ended questions that allow the patient to express their true emotions, especially given their **relaxed demeanor**. *"I may need to refer you to a blood cancer specialist because of your diagnosis. You may need chemotherapy or radiotherapy, which we are not equipped for.”"* - This statement immediately introduces **overwhelming and potentially alarming information** (referral, chemotherapy, radiotherapy) without first establishing the diagnosis or assessing the patient's readiness to receive it. - It prematurely jumps to treatment and logistics, potentially causing **unnecessary distress** before the patient has processed the core diagnosis. *"Would you like to know all the details of your diagnosis, or would you prefer I just explain to you what our options are?""* - While it attempts to assess the patient's preference for information, this question is a **closed-ended "either/or" choice** that might limit the patient's ability to express nuanced needs. - It also prematurely introduces the idea of "options" without first explaining the diagnosis in an understandable context. *"Your lab reports show that you have an acute myeloid leukemia"* - This is a **direct and blunt delivery of a serious diagnosis** without any preparatory context or assessment of the patient's existing knowledge or emotional state. - Delivering such news abruptly can be shocking and overwhelming, potentially **hindering effective communication** and rapport building.

Upper/Lower Limb US Medical PG Question 7: A 45-year-old man is brought to the emergency department following a motor vehicle collision. He reports right hip pain and numbness along the right thigh. Physical examination shows decreased sensation to light touch over a small area of the proximal medial thigh. X-rays of the pelvis show a displaced pelvic ring fracture. Further evaluation of this patient is most likely to show which of the following findings?

• A. Sensory deficit of the dorsal foot
• B. Absent cremasteric reflex
• C. Impaired hip extension
• D. Impaired adduction of the hip (Correct Answer)
• E. Impaired extension of the knee

Upper/Lower Limb Explanation: ***Impaired adduction of the hip*** - The patient's **numbness along the right thigh** and **decreased sensation to light touch over the proximal medial thigh**, combined with a **pelvic ring fracture**, points to probable injury of the **obturator nerve**. - The **obturator nerve** innervates the **adductor muscles** of the hip, and its injury would result in impaired hip adduction and sensory deficits in the medial thigh. *Sensory deficit of the dorsal foot* - A sensory deficit on the **dorsal foot** is typically associated with injury to the **peroneal nerve**, which is less likely to be affected by a pelvic ring fracture leading to medial thigh numbness. - Peroneal nerve injury often results from trauma to the **lateral knee** or prolonged compression. *Absent cremasteric reflex* - An absent **cremasteric reflex** suggests injury to the **ilioinguinal** or **genitofemoral nerves**, or spinal cord injury at the L1-L2 level. - While these nerves can be affected by pelvic trauma, the specific sensory deficit described (proximal medial thigh) aligns more with obturator nerve involvement. *Impaired hip extension* - **Hip extension** is primarily controlled by the **gluteus maximus** and **hamstrings**, which are innervated by the **inferior gluteal nerve** and **sciatic nerve**, respectively. - Injury to these nerves or muscles would not typically cause numbness in the proximal medial thigh. *Impaired extension of the knee* - **Knee extension** is mediated by the **quadriceps femoris** muscle group, innervated by the **femoral nerve**. - While the femoral nerve can be injured in severe pelvic trauma, the sensory distribution described does not match the typical sensory deficits of femoral nerve injury (anterior and medial thigh, medial leg).

Upper/Lower Limb US Medical PG Question 8: A 35-year-old man is brought to the trauma bay by ambulance after sustaining a gunshot wound to the right arm. The patient is in excruciating pain and states that he can't move or feel his hand. The patient states that he has no other medical conditions. On exam, the patient's temperature is 98.4°F (36.9°C), blood pressure is 140/86 mmHg, pulse is 112/min, and respirations are 14/min. The patient is alert and his Glasgow coma scale is 15. On exam, he has a single wound on his right forearm without continued bleeding. The patient has preserved motor and sensation in his right elbow; however, he is unable to extend his wrist or extend his fingers further. He is able to clench his hand, but this is limited by pain. On sensory exam, the patient has no sensation to the first dorsal web space but has preserved sensation on most of the volar surface. Which of the following structures is most likely injured?

• A. Recurrent motor branch of the median nerve
• B. Main median nerve
• C. Lower trunk
• D. Ulnar nerve
• E. Radial nerve (Correct Answer)

Upper/Lower Limb Explanation: ***Radial nerve*** - The inability to **extend the wrist and fingers** (wrist drop) is a classic sign of **radial nerve injury**, as it innervates the extensors of the forearm and hand. - **Loss of sensation in the first dorsal web space** is also characteristic of radial nerve damage, as this area is supplied by the superficial radial nerve. *Recurrent motor branch of the median nerve* - This nerve primarily innervates the **thenar muscles** (flexor pollicis brevis, abductor pollicis brevis, opponens pollicis), affecting **thumb opposition**. - Injury would primarily lead to **weakness in thumb movements**, not wrist or finger extension, and would spare sensation in the first dorsal web space. *Main median nerve* - The median nerve primarily innervates the **flexors of the forearm and hand**, and contributes to sensation on the **volar aspect of the thumb**, index, middle, and radial half of the ring finger. - Injury would cause difficulty with **flexion of the wrist and fingers**, and loss of sensation on the volar surface, which is largely preserved in this patient. *Lower trunk* - The lower trunk of the brachial plexus (C8-T1) gives rise to the ulnar nerve and part of the median nerve, affecting **flexion of the wrist and fingers**, and intrinsic hand muscles. - Injury would result in more widespread weakness affecting the **intrinsic hand muscles** and flexion, and would include sensory loss in the **ulnar nerve distribution**, which is not described. *Ulnar nerve* - The ulnar nerve primarily innervates the **intrinsic hand muscles** (excluding the thenar group) and the **flexor carpi ulnaris** and **medial half of flexor digitorum profundus**. - Injury would typically cause **weakness in intrinsic hand functions** (e.g., finger abduction/adduction, ring and little finger flexion) and sensory loss on the **ulnar side of the hand**, not the dorsal web space.

Upper/Lower Limb US Medical PG Question 9: A 13-year-old girl is brought to the physician by her father because of a 1-month history of pain in her right knee. She is a competitive volleyball player and has missed several games recently due to pain. Examination shows swelling distal to the right knee joint on the anterior surface of the proximal tibia; there is no overlying warmth or deformity. Extension of the right knee against resistance is painful. Which of the following structures is attached to the affected anterior tibial area?

• A. Patellar ligament (Correct Answer)
• B. Iliotibial band
• C. Pes anserinus tendon
• D. Quadriceps tendon
• E. Anterior cruciate ligament

Upper/Lower Limb Explanation: ***Patellar ligament*** - The symptoms described, particularly **pain in the right knee worse with activity** in a young, active individual with **swelling distal to the knee joint on the anterior surface of the proximal tibia**, are classic for **Osgood-Schlatter disease**. - This condition involves inflammation of the **patellar ligament** (also known as the patellar tendon) insertion onto the **tibial tuberosity**, which is the bony prominence on the anterior proximal tibia. *Iliotibial band* - The **iliotibial band (IT band)** runs along the lateral aspect of the thigh and inserts on the **lateral condyle of the tibia (Gerdy's tubercle)**, not the anterior proximal tibia. - **IT band syndrome** typically causes lateral knee pain, often seen in runners, and not central anterior tibial swelling. *Pes anserinus tendon* - The **pes anserinus tendon** is formed by the conjoined tendons of the **sartorius**, **gracilis**, and **semitendinosus muscles**, inserting on the **medial proximal tibia**. - Inflammation here (**pes anserinus bursitis/tendinitis**) would cause pain and swelling on the medial side of the knee, not the anterior aspect. *Quadriceps tendon* - The **quadriceps tendon** connects the quadriceps muscles to the **superior pole of the patella**, not the anterior proximal tibia. - Conditions affecting this tendon typically cause pain above or at the patella, not distal to the knee joint. *Anterior cruciate ligament* - The **anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)** is an intra-articular ligament that connects the **femur to the tibia within the knee joint**. - An **ACL injury** typically presents with acute pain, instability, and a "popping" sensation, not chronic swelling on the anterior aspect of the proximal tibia.

Upper/Lower Limb US Medical PG Question 10: A 48-year-old male presents to his primary care provider with a two-week history of low back pain and left leg pain. He reports that his symptoms started while he was working at his job as a construction worker. He has since experienced intermittent achy pain over his lumbar spine. He has also noticed pain radiating into his left leg and weakness in left ankle dorsiflexion. On exam, he demonstrates the following findings on strength testing of the left leg: 5/5 in knee extension, 4/5 in ankle dorsiflexion, 4/5 in great toe extension, 5/5 in ankle plantarflexion, and 5/5 in great toe flexion. The patellar reflexes are 5/5 bilaterally. He is able to toe walk but has difficulty with heel walking. Weakness in which of the following compartments of the leg is most likely causing this patient’s foot drop?

• A. Lateral compartment
• B. Superficial posterior compartment
• C. Deep posterior compartment
• D. Anterior compartment (Correct Answer)
• E. Medial compartment

Upper/Lower Limb Explanation: ***Anterior compartment*** - Weakness in **ankle dorsiflexion** and **great toe extension**, coupled with difficulty **heel walking**, indicates a foot drop due to dysfunction of muscles in the anterior compartment, such as the **tibialis anterior**, **extensor hallucis longus**, and **extensor digitorum longus**. - These muscles are primarily innervated by the **deep fibular nerve**, which is susceptible to compression from conditions like **lumbar radiculopathy** (L4-L5 nerve root involvement). *Lateral compartment* - Muscles in the lateral compartment (**fibularis longus** and **brevis**) are responsible for **eversion** of the foot. - Weakness in this compartment would manifest as difficulty everting the foot, not primarily ankle dorsiflexion or great toe extension deficits. *Superficial posterior compartment* - This compartment contains muscles like the **gastrocnemius** and **soleus**, which are primarily responsible for **ankle plantarflexion**. - The patient exhibits 5/5 strength in ankle plantarflexion and is able to toe walk, indicating these muscles are functioning well. *Deep posterior compartment* - Muscles in the deep posterior compartment (**tibialis posterior**, **flexor digitorum longus**, **flexor hallucis longus**) are involved in **inversion** and **toe flexion**. - The patient has 5/5 strength in great toe flexion, suggesting intact function of these muscles, and his primary deficit is in dorsiflexion. *Medial compartment* - There is no distinct "medial compartment" of the leg in the anatomical sense comparable to the other listed compartments; rather, various muscles contribute to medial actions. - The symptoms described specifically point to weakness in dorsiflexion and toe extension, localizing the problem to the anterior compartment.

Upper/Lower Limb Flashcard 1 of 10

Question: In a supracondylar fracture of the humerus, anterolateral displacement of the proximal fracture fragment typically results in damage to the _____

Answer: radial nerve

Upper/Lower Limb Flashcard 2 of 10

Question: What kind of rotation do the following muscles allow the hip to do?_____Gluteus medius (F)Gluteus minimus (F)Tensor fascia lata (AB)

Answer: Internal rotation

Upper/Lower Limb Flashcard 3 of 10

Question: What action do the following muscles allow the hip to do?_____Iliopsoas (Iliacus + Psoas major / minor)Rectus femorisTensor fascia lataSartoriusPectineus

Answer: Hip flexion

Upper/Lower Limb Flashcard 4 of 10

Question: The inferior gluteal nerve is commonly injured due to _____.

Answer: posterior hip dislocation

Upper/Lower Limb Flashcard 5 of 10

Question: Volkmanns ischemic contracture is a result of scarring / stiffening / shortening of the _____ muscles

Answer: forearm

Upper/Lower Limb Flashcard 6 of 10

Question: The most common site for limb compartment syndrome is the _____ of the leg

Answer: anterior compartment

Upper/Lower Limb Flashcard 7 of 10

Question: Palsy of the deep radial nerve as it travels through the supinator canal most commonly manifests with "_____ drop"

Answer: finger

Upper/Lower Limb Flashcard 8 of 10

Question: Which finger/hand joints (3) are affected in osteoarthritis? _____

Answer: PIPs, DIPs, and 1st CMC

Upper/Lower Limb Flashcard 9 of 10

Question: What is the lateral border of the femoral triangle? _____

Answer: Sartorius muscle

Extra Information:  Watch associated Bootcamp video [https://app.bootcamp.com/med-school/gross-anatomy/videos/anterior-and-medial-thigh-knee?index=8] https://onlinemeded.org?ref=anki 

Upper/Lower Limb Flashcard 10 of 10

Question: Muscles of the _____ eminence are innervated by the ulnar nerve

Answer: hypothenar

Extra Information: Watch associated Bootcamp video [https://app.bootcamp.com/med-school/gross-anatomy/videos/hand?index=7] https://onlinemeded.org?ref=anki