Back surface landmarks US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice US Medical PG questions for Back surface landmarks. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Back surface landmarks US Medical PG Question 1: A patient presents with difficulty extending their wrist following trauma to the posterior forearm. Which of the following muscles would be most affected by injury to the posterior interosseous nerve?
- A. Extensor carpi ulnaris
- B. Extensor carpi radialis brevis
- C. Extensor pollicis longus
- D. Extensor digitorum (Correct Answer)
Back surface landmarks Explanation: ***Extensor digitorum***
- The **posterior interosseous nerve (PIN)** innervates most muscles of the **posterior compartment of the forearm**, including the extensor digitorum. [1]
- Loss of function in the **extensor digitorum** would directly impair **extension of the fingers** and contribute significantly to difficulty extending the wrist. [1]
*Extensor carpi ulnaris*
- This muscle is also innervated by the **posterior interosseous nerve (PIN)** and contributes to **wrist extension** and **ulnar deviation**.
- While its innervation by the PIN is correct, injury to the PIN would affect this muscle, but the *extensor digitorum* is more broadly responsible for the stated primary symptom (difficulty extending the wrist), as its primary action is finger and thus wrist extension.
*Extensor carpi radialis brevis*
- While it is a **wrist extensor**, it is innervated by the **deep branch of the radial nerve** *before* it becomes the posterior interosseous nerve.
- Therefore, an isolated injury to the **posterior interosseous nerve** proper would typically spare the extensor carpi radialis brevis.
*Extensor pollicis longus*
- This muscle is indeed innervated by the **posterior interosseous nerve (PIN)** and acts to extend the **thumb**. [1]
- While it would be affected, the primary problem described is difficulty extending the *wrist*, for which the extensor digitorum plays a more significant and general role than the extensor pollicis longus.
Back surface landmarks US Medical PG Question 2: A 25-year-old man comes to the physician for severe back pain. He describes the pain as shooting and stabbing. On a 10-point scale, he rates the pain as a 9 to 10. The pain started after he lifted a heavy box at work; he works at a supermarket and recently switched from being a cashier to a storekeeper. The patient appears to be in severe distress. Vital signs are within normal limits. On physical examination, the spine is nontender without paravertebral muscle spasms. Range of motion is normal. A straight-leg raise test is negative. After the physical examination has been completed, the patient asks for a letter to his employer attesting to his inability to work as a storekeeper. Which of the following is the most appropriate response?
- A. “Yes. Since work may worsen your condition, I would prefer that you stay home a few days. I will write a letter to your employer to explain the situation.”
- B. You say you are in severe pain. However, the physical examination findings do not suggest a physical problem that can be addressed with medications or surgery. I'd like to meet on a regular basis to see how you're doing.
- C. I understand that you are uncomfortable, but the findings do not match the severity of your symptoms. Let's talk about the recent changes at your job. (Correct Answer)
- D. The physical exam findings do not match your symptoms, which suggests a psychological problem. I would be happy to refer you to a mental health professional.
- E. The physical exam findings suggest a psychological rather than a physical problem. But there is a good chance that we can address it with cognitive-behavioral therapy.
Back surface landmarks Explanation: ***"I understand that you are uncomfortable, but the findings do not match the severity of your symptoms. Let's talk about the recent changes at your job."***
- This response acknowledges the patient's reported discomfort while gently highlighting the **discrepancy between symptoms and objective findings**, which is crucial in cases of suspected **somatoform or functional pain**.
- It also opens communication about potential **psychosocial stressors** related to his job change, which could be contributing to his symptoms, without dismissing his pain or making a premature diagnosis.
*"You say you are in severe pain. However, the physical examination findings do not suggest a physical problem that can be addressed with medications or surgery. I'd like to meet on a regular basis to see how you're doing."*
- While this option correctly identifies the lack of physical findings, it can be perceived as dismissive of the patient's pain, potentially damaging the **physician-patient relationship**.
- Suggesting regular meetings without a clear plan for addressing his immediate concerns or exploring underlying issues might not be the most effective initial approach.
*“Yes. Since work may worsen your condition, I would prefer that you stay home a few days. I will write a letter to your employer to explain the situation.”*
- This response would **validate the patient's claim of severe pain** without objective evidence, potentially reinforcing illness behavior and avoiding addressing the underlying issue.
- Providing a doctor's note for inability to work without a clear diagnostic basis or understanding of the pain's origin is **medically inappropriate** and could set a precedent for future such requests.
*"The physical exam findings do not match your symptoms, which suggests a psychological problem. I would be happy to refer you to a mental health professional."*
- Directly labeling the problem as "psychological" can be **stigmatizing and alienating** to the patient, leading to distrust and resistance to care.
- While a psychological component might be present, immediately referring to mental health without further exploration of the patient's situation or current stressors is premature and lacks empathy.
*"The physical exam findings suggest a psychological rather than a physical problem. But there is a good chance that we can address it with cognitive-behavioral therapy."*
- Similar to the previous option, explicitly stating a "psychological problem" can be **stigmatizing**.
- Jumping directly to recommending **cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)** without a comprehensive discussion and patient buy-in is premature and may lead to non-compliance.
Back surface landmarks US Medical PG Question 3: A 22-year-old man is rushed to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident. The patient states that he feels weakness and numbness in both of his legs. He also reports pain in his lower back. His airway, breathing, and circulation is intact, and he is conversational. Neurologic exam is significant for bilateral lower extremity flaccid paralysis and impaired pain and temperature sensation up to T10-T11 with normal vibration sense. A computerized tomography scan of the spine is performed which shows a vertebral burst fracture of the vertebral body at the level of T11. Which of the following findings is most likely present in this patient?
- A. Intact vibration sense
- B. Bowel incontinence (Correct Answer)
- C. Flaccid paralysis at the level of the lesion
- D. Spasticity below the lesion
- E. Impaired proprioception sense
Back surface landmarks Explanation: ***Bowel incontinence***
- The presented symptoms of acute **bilateral lower extremity flaccid paralysis**, **impaired pain and temperature sensation**, and a T11 **vertebral burst fracture** are highly indicative of **anterior cord syndrome**.
- **Anterior cord syndrome** characteristically involves damage to the **anterior two-thirds of the spinal cord**, affecting the **corticospinal tracts** (motor control), **spinothalamic tracts** (pain and temperature sensation), and the **autonomic fibers** that control bladder and bowel function, leading to **bowel and bladder dysfunction**.
*Intact vibration sense*
- The sensation of **vibration** and **proprioception** is carried by the **dorsal columns** (posterior part of the spinal cord), which are typically **spared** in **anterior cord syndrome**.
- Therefore, **intact vibration sense** is an expected finding, but the question asks for the **most likely finding** that represents a significant complication of the syndrome.
*Flaccid paralysis at the level of the lesion*
- While **flaccid paralysis** is present in the lower extremities, it occurs **below the level of the lesion** due to damage to the descending motor tracts (corticospinal tracts).
- Flaccid paralysis *at* the level of the lesion would typically involve damage to the **lower motor neurons** at that specific segment, which is not the primary feature described for a burst fracture causing **anterior cord syndrome**.
*Spasticity below the lesion*
- **Spasticity** typically develops much **later** in spinal cord injuries, after the initial phase of **spinal shock** resolves (usually weeks to months).
- In the acute phase following a significant spinal cord injury, **flaccid paralysis** is the more common finding below the lesion, reflecting spinal shock.
*Impaired proprioception sense*
- Similar to vibration sense, **proprioception** is primarily mediated by the **dorsal columns**, which are generally **spared** in **anterior cord syndrome**.
- Therefore, **proprioception** would likely be **intact**, not impaired, in this specific type of spinal cord injury.
Back surface landmarks US Medical PG Question 4: A 24-year-old man presents to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident. The patient was at a stop when he was rear-ended from behind by a vehicle traveling at 11 miles per hour. The patient complains of severe back pain but states he otherwise feels well. The patient is currently seeing a physical therapist who is giving him exercises to alleviate the back pain that is present every morning, relived by activity, and worse with inactivity. He is a student at the university and is struggling with his grades. His temperature is 98.4°F (36.9°C), blood pressure is 117/78 mmHg, pulse is 116/min, respirations are 12/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Physical exam demonstrates a decreased range of motion of the patient's spine and tenderness to palpation over the vertebrae. The rest of the exam is deferred due to pain. The patient is requesting a note to excuse him from final exams and work. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
- A. Spondylolisthesis
- B. Malingering
- C. Herniated nucleus pulposus
- D. Vertebral fracture
- E. Musculoskeletal strain (Correct Answer)
Back surface landmarks Explanation: ***Musculoskeletal strain***
- The patient has a **pre-existing chronic back pain condition** (morning stiffness relieved by activity) that is being managed with physical therapy, suggesting a baseline musculoskeletal issue.
- The **low-speed motor vehicle accident** (11 mph) is unlikely to cause significant structural injury and more likely represents an **acute-on-chronic exacerbation** of his underlying musculoskeletal condition.
- While the chronic pattern (morning stiffness, improved with activity) raises consideration for inflammatory spondyloarthropathy, among the options provided, musculoskeletal strain best captures the **acute exacerbation of chronic mechanical back pain** in the context of minor trauma.
- The patient's request for excuse from exams may represent legitimate need for rest or possible secondary gain, but does not change the primary musculoskeletal diagnosis.
*Spondylolisthesis*
- This involves **anterior slippage of one vertebra over another** and typically presents with mechanical back pain that worsens with **extension and activity** (not relieved by activity as in this patient).
- There is no mention of the characteristic **step-off deformity** on palpation or radicular symptoms that often accompany symptomatic spondylolisthesis.
- The patient's chronic pain pattern of improvement with activity argues against this diagnosis.
*Malingering*
- **Malingering** involves intentional fabrication or gross exaggeration of symptoms for external gain (avoiding exams/work).
- However, this patient has **documented chronic back pain** with ongoing physical therapy, suggesting real underlying pathology rather than pure fabrication.
- While secondary gain may be a factor, the presence of actual pre-existing symptoms and objective findings (decreased ROM, tenderness) makes pure malingering less likely.
*Herniated nucleus pulposus*
- A **herniated disc** typically presents with acute **radicular pain** radiating into the lower extremities, often with neurological deficits (weakness, numbness, reflex changes).
- This patient's presentation is primarily **axial back pain** without mention of leg pain, paresthesias, or neurological deficits, making HNP unlikely.
- The chronic nature and activity-related improvement pattern is atypical for acute disc herniation.
*Vertebral fracture*
- **Vertebral compression fractures** require either significant trauma or underlying bone pathology (osteoporosis, malignancy).
- The **low-speed impact** (11 mph rear-end collision) in a young, otherwise healthy 24-year-old male is insufficient mechanism for vertebral fracture.
- While there is tenderness over vertebrae, the patient's stable vital signs (aside from mild tachycardia likely from pain/anxiety) and absence of neurological compromise make acute fracture very unlikely.
Back surface landmarks US Medical PG Question 5: A 56-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset severe headache, nausea, vomiting, and neck pain for the past 90 minutes. She describes her headache as a ‘thunderclap’, followed quickly by severe neck pain and stiffness, nausea and vomiting. She denies any loss of consciousness, seizure, or similar symptoms in the past. Her past medical history is significant for an episode 6 months ago where she suddenly had trouble putting weight on her right leg, which resolved within hours. The patient denies any history of smoking, alcohol or recreational drug use. On physical examination, the patient has significant nuchal rigidity. Her muscle strength in the lower extremities is 4/5 on the right and 5/5 on the left. The remainder of the physical examination is unremarkable. A noncontrast CT scan of the head is normal. Which of the following is the next best step in the management of this patient?
- A. Diffusion-weighted magnetic resonance imaging of the brain
- B. IV tPA
- C. Placement of a ventriculoperitoneal (VP) shunt
- D. T1/T2 MRI of the head
- E. Lumbar puncture (Correct Answer)
Back surface landmarks Explanation: ***Lumbar puncture***
- A **thunderclap headache**, nuchal rigidity, nausea, and vomiting despite a normal noncontrast CT scan, is highly suspicious for **subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH)**. A lumbar puncture is the next diagnostic step to look for **xanthochromia** or **red blood cells** in the cerebrospinal fluid.
- The previous episode of transient leg weakness could indicate a prior **warning leak** from an **aneurysm**, increasing the suspicion for SAH.
*Diffusion-weighted magnetic resonance imaging of the brain*
- This imaging is primarily used to detect **acute ischemic stroke**, which presents differently.
- While helpful for ischemic events, it is **not the primary diagnostic test** for suspected SAH after a normal CT.
*IV tPA*
- **Intravenous tissue plasminogen activator (IV tPA)** is a thrombolytic used in acute ischemic stroke, characterized by focal neurological deficits.
- It is **contraindicated** in SAH due to the significant risk of exacerbating intracranial bleeding.
*Placement of a ventriculoperitoneal (VP) shunt*
- A **VP shunt** is a surgical procedure to drain excess cerebrospinal fluid, typically used to treat **hydrocephalus**.
- This is a treatment for a complication (hydrocephalus) that may arise from SAH, but it is **not the initial diagnostic or management step** for an acute SAH.
*T1/T2 MRI of the head*
- While MRI can detect SAH, especially if performed with specific sequences (FLAIR), a **lumbar puncture is more sensitive for detecting SAH** when a CT scan is negative and clinical suspicion remains high.
- MRI is generally less accessible and more time-consuming than lumbar puncture in an emergency setting for suspected SAH.
Back surface landmarks US Medical PG Question 6: A 25-year-old man is admitted to the emergency department because of an episode of acute psychosis with suicidal ideation. He has no history of serious illness and currently takes no medications. Despite appropriate safety precautions, he manages to leave the examination room unattended. Shortly afterward, he is found lying outside the emergency department. A visitor reports that she saw the patient climbing up the facade of the hospital building. He does not respond to questions but points to his head when asked about pain. His pulse is 131/min, respirations are 22/min, and blood pressure is 95/61 mm Hg. Physical examination shows a 1-cm head laceration and an open fracture of the right tibia. He opens his eyes spontaneously. Pupils are equal, round, and reactive to light. Breath sounds are decreased over the right lung field, and the upper right hemithorax is hyperresonant to percussion. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- A. Obtain a chest x-ray
- B. Perform a needle thoracostomy (Correct Answer)
- C. Perform an endotracheal intubation
- D. Apply a cervical collar
- E. Perform an open reduction of the tibia fracture
Back surface landmarks Explanation: ***Perform a needle thoracostomy***
- The patient presents with **clinical signs of tension pneumothorax**: hypotension (95/61 mm Hg), tachycardia (131/min), decreased breath sounds, and hyperresonance over the right hemithorax following significant trauma from a fall.
- According to **ATLS (Advanced Trauma Life Support) principles**, the primary survey follows the **ABC priority**: Airway, Breathing, Circulation. A **tension pneumothorax is an immediately life-threatening condition** that compromises both breathing and circulation (obstructive shock).
- **Needle thoracostomy (needle decompression)** is the immediate, life-saving intervention for tension pneumothorax and must be performed **before** or concurrent with other interventions. This takes precedence over spinal immobilization when there is an immediate life threat.
- The clinical presentation strongly suggests tension physiology requiring immediate decompression; waiting for imaging would be inappropriate and potentially fatal.
*Apply a cervical collar*
- While **cervical spine protection** is important in this polytrauma patient with head injury and fall mechanism, it does **not take precedence over treating immediately life-threatening conditions** like tension pneumothorax.
- C-spine can be protected with **manual in-line stabilization** during the needle thoracostomy procedure.
- Modern trauma protocols emphasize that **life threats to airway, breathing, and circulation must be addressed immediately**, even if it requires brief spinal movement with appropriate precautions.
*Obtain a chest x-ray*
- **Tension pneumothorax is a clinical diagnosis** that requires immediate intervention without waiting for imaging confirmation.
- The combination of hypotension, tachycardia, decreased breath sounds, and hyperresonance in a trauma patient is sufficient to warrant emergent needle decompression.
- Delaying treatment for imaging in a hemodynamically unstable patient would be dangerous and violates patient safety principles.
*Perform an endotracheal intubation*
- While the patient has a **GCS of approximately 10** (eyes open spontaneously = 4, no verbal response = 1-2, localizes pain = 5-6), intubation is not the immediate priority.
- The **tension pneumothorax must be decompressed first** before attempting intubation, as positive pressure ventilation could worsen the tension pneumothorax and cause cardiovascular collapse.
- If intubation is needed, it should occur after needle decompression.
*Perform an open reduction of the tibia fracture*
- While the open tibia fracture requires urgent surgical management, it is **not immediately life-threatening** in the same timeframe as tension pneumothorax.
- According to ATLS principles, **life-threatening injuries are addressed before limb-threatening injuries**.
- The fracture should be stabilized temporarily, and definitive surgical management can occur after the patient is hemodynamically stable.
Back surface landmarks US Medical PG Question 7: A 40-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by a paramedic team from the scene of a motor vehicle accident where she was the driver. The patient was restrained by a seat belt and was unconscious at the scene. On physical examination, the patient appears to have multiple injuries involving the trunk and extremities. There are no penetrating injuries to the chest. As part of her trauma workup, a CT scan of the chest is ordered. At what vertebral level of the thorax is this image from?
- A. T1
- B. T6
- C. T4
- D. T5
- E. T8 (Correct Answer)
Back surface landmarks Explanation: ***T8***
- The CT image shows the **inferior vena cava (IVC)** located anterior and to the right of the aorta, and the **esophagus** located posterior to the aorta and slightly to the left. The **azygos vein** is seen to the right of the vertebral body and posterior to the esophagus.
- The **mainstem bronchi** are no longer visible, indicating a level below the carina. The presence of the IVC, aorta, esophagus, and azygos vein with the absence of mainstem bronchi is characteristic of the **T8 vertebral level**.
*T1*
- At the T1 level, the structures would primarily be the **trachea** anterior to the esophagus, with the main great vessels (e.g., brachiocephalic veins and arteries) visible, not the IVC.
- The mainstem bronchi would not yet be visualized at this higher level.
*T6*
- At the T6 level, the **trachea would have already bifurcated into the mainstem bronchi**, which would be prominent structures visible on the CT scan.
- While the aorta and esophagus would be present, the specific arrangement relative to the mainstem bronchi would differentiate it from T8.
*T4*
- The T4 level is typically associated with the **carina**, where the trachea bifurcates into the mainstem bronchi.
- The great vessels would be prominent, but the IVC in its more inferior course would not be as distinctly visualized in this configuration compared to T8.
*T5*
- At the T5 level, the **mainstem bronchi** would still be clearly visible, having just diverged from the trachea.
- While vessels like the aorta are present, the key differentiating factor from T8 is the presence of the mainstem bronchi.
Back surface landmarks US Medical PG Question 8: A 33-year-old pregnant woman at 38 weeks gestation requires emergency cesarean section. The obstetrician must perform a perimortem procedure due to maternal cardiac arrest. She makes a Pfannenstiel incision but encounters significant bleeding. The patient has a history of previous cesarean section with documented bladder injury. Considering the surface anatomy and previous surgery, evaluate the most likely source of bleeding and the anatomical relationship that increases risk in this scenario.
- A. External iliac vessels exposed due to loss of normal tissue planes from adhesions
- B. Superficial epigastric vessels in the subcutaneous tissue
- C. Inferior epigastric vessels injured due to lateral extension of the incision (Correct Answer)
- D. Uterine vessels injured due to lower segment extension
- E. Superior vesical arteries injured due to abnormal bladder position from scarring
Back surface landmarks Explanation: ***Inferior epigastric vessels injured due to lateral extension of the incision***
- A **Pfannenstiel incision** is a transverse incision performed 2-3 cm above the symphysis pubis; extending this incision too far laterally increases the risk of transecting the **inferior epigastric vessels**.
- These vessels are located deep to the **rectus abdominis** muscle but lateral to its midline, making them susceptible during emergency procedures where rapid extension of the surgical field is required.
*Uterine vessels injured due to lower segment extension*
- The **uterine vessels** are located within the **broad ligament** and are typically injured during the hysterotomy (uterine incision) phase rather than the initial abdominal wall approach.
- While heavy bleeding occurs if the uterine incision extends laterally into the **vascular pedicle**, it does not correlate with superficial anatomical landmarks of a Pfannenstiel incision.
*External iliac vessels exposed due to loss of normal tissue planes from adhesions*
- The **external iliac vessels** are retroperitoneal structures and are generally too deep and lateral to be the primary source of bleeding in a standard **Pfannenstiel incision**.
- Although **adhesions** can distort anatomy, injury to these vessels is more common in extensive pelvic lymphadenectomy or oncological surgeries rather than a perimortem C-section.
*Superficial epigastric vessels in the subcutaneous tissue*
- The **superficial epigastric vessels** run in the **Camper's fascia** and are commonly transected during the initial skin incision, but they rarely cause "significant" or life-threatening bleeding compared to deeper vessels.
- Bleeding from these vessels is usually easily controlled with cautery or pressure and does not represent the primary anatomical risk of lateral **Pfannenstiel extension**.
*Superior vesical arteries injured due to abnormal bladder position from scarring*
- The **superior vesical arteries** supply the upper portion of the bladder; while at risk during dissection of a **scarred bladder flap**, they are not the source encountered during the abdominal wall incision.
- Previous **bladder injury** increases the risk of cystotomy, but the vascular supply to the bladder is located deep within the pelvic cavity, not at the level of the **rectus sheath**.
Back surface landmarks US Medical PG Question 9: A 71-year-old man with atrial fibrillation presents with sudden onset of severe abdominal pain out of proportion to physical findings. He has mild diffuse tenderness but no peritoneal signs. His lactate is 4.5 mmol/L. CT angiography shows occlusion of a major mesenteric vessel. The surgeon explains that the occluded vessel supplies the midgut from just distal to the second part of the duodenum to the proximal two-thirds of the transverse colon. Based on surface anatomy, at what vertebral level does this vessel originate?
- A. L3
- B. T12
- C. L1 (Correct Answer)
- D. L2
- E. T10
Back surface landmarks Explanation: ***L1***
- The clinical presentation describes **acute mesenteric ischemia** involving the **Superior Mesenteric Artery (SMA)**, which supplies the embryologic **midgut**.
- The SMA originates from the **abdominal aorta** behind the neck of the pancreas at the level of the **L1 vertebra**.
*T10*
- The **esophagus** passes through the diaphragm at the **T10 level** via the esophageal hiatus.
- No major abdominal vascular branches supplying the gastrointestinal tract originate at this specific thoracic level.
*T12*
- This is the level of the **celiac trunk**, which supplies the **foregut** structures including the stomach, liver, and spleen.
- It also marks the **aortic hiatus** where the aorta enters the abdominal cavity from the thorax.
*L2*
- This level corresponds to the origin of the **renal arteries** and the site where the **duodenojejunal flexure** is suspended by the ligament of Treitz.
- While the SMA is in close proximity, its distinct origin from the aorta is characteristically at the **L1 level**.
*L3*
- This is the level of origin for the **Inferior Mesenteric Artery (IMA)**, which supplies the **hindgut** including the distal third of the transverse colon.
- Clinical findings in this case point to midgut ischemia, which is associated with the **Superior Mesenteric Artery** rather than the IMA.
Back surface landmarks US Medical PG Question 10: A 25-year-old motorcyclist presents after a high-speed collision with facial trauma. Clinical examination reveals cerebrospinal fluid rhinorrhea, periorbital ecchymosis, and numbness over the cheek and upper teeth. CT shows a fracture extending through a foramen at the apex of the orbit. Based on the clinical presentation and surface anatomy, which foramen is most likely involved?
- A. Foramen rotundum (Correct Answer)
- B. Superior orbital fissure
- C. Infraorbital foramen
- D. Inferior orbital fissure
- E. Optic canal
Back surface landmarks Explanation: ***Foramen rotundum***
- The **foramen rotundum** transmits the **maxillary nerve (V2)**; trauma here explains the **numbness over the cheek** and **upper teeth** as these are within the V2 sensory distribution.
- Located at the **apex of the orbit**, this foramen communicates with the pterygopalatine fossa and is frequently involved in high-velocity fractures causing **middle cranial fossa** disruption and CSF rhinorrhea.
*Optic canal*
- The **optic canal** transmits the **optic nerve (CN II)** and the **ophthalmic artery**.
- Damage would result in **visual field defects** or blindness and an abnormal **pupillary light reflex**, rather than facial sensory loss.
*Superior orbital fissure*
- This fissure transmits **CN III, IV, VI** and the **ophthalmic nerve (V1)**; damage would cause **ophthalmoplegia** and forehead numbness.
- It does not carry the **V2 branch**, thus it cannot account for the loss of sensation in the **cheek and upper teeth**.
*Infraorbital foramen*
- While the **infraorbital nerve** (a branch of V2) passes here to supply the cheek, this foramen is on the **anterior surface of the maxilla**, not at the **apex of the orbit**.
- Trauma at this superficial site would not typically present with **CSF rhinorrhea**, which indicates a more deep-seated skull base fracture.
*Inferior orbital fissure*
- This fissure is located between the floor and lateral wall of the orbit but is not situated at the **apex** where the injury is described.
- While it transmits the **infraorbital nerve**, it is not a pathway through which a skull base injury leads to **CSF leakage** into the nasal cavity.
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