Vestibular nuclei complex US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice US Medical PG questions for Vestibular nuclei complex. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Vestibular nuclei complex US Medical PG Question 1: A 55-year-old woman presents to her family physician with a 1-week history of dizziness. She experiences spinning sensations whenever she lies down and these sensations increase when she turns her head to the right. These episodes are transient, intermittent, last for less than a minute, occur multiple times in a day, and are associated with nausea. Between the episodes, she is fine and is able to perform her routine activities. She denies fever, hearing disturbances, diplopia, tinnitus, and recent flu or viral illness. Past medical history is significant for diabetes mellitus type 2, hypertension, and hypercholesterolemia. She does not use tobacco or alcohol. Her blood pressure is 124/78 mm Hg, the heart rate is 79/min, and the respiratory rate is 13/min. During the examination, when she is asked to lie supine from a sitting position with her head rotated towards the right side at 45°, horizontal nystagmus is observed. What is the next best step in the management of this patient?
- A. Dix-Hallpike maneuver
- B. Epley maneuver (Correct Answer)
- C. MRI of the brain with gadolinium
- D. Broad-spectrum antibiotics
- E. High dose steroids
Vestibular nuclei complex Explanation: ***Epley maneuver***
- The patient's presentation with **transient, positional vertigo** triggered by head movements, associated with nausea, and demonstrating **horizontal nystagmus** on positional testing is diagnostic of **Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo (BPPV)**.
- Since the diagnostic positional maneuver has already been performed and BPPV is confirmed, the **next best step is canalith repositioning** using the **Epley maneuver**.
- The Epley maneuver is the **gold standard treatment** for posterior canal BPPV with **70-90% success rate** after a single treatment session, and it directly addresses the underlying pathophysiology by relocating displaced otoconia.
- This is recommended as **first-line treatment** by the American Academy of Otolaryngology-Head and Neck Surgery guidelines.
*Dix-Hallpike maneuver*
- The **Dix-Hallpike maneuver** is primarily a **diagnostic test** to confirm BPPV and identify the affected semicircular canal.
- The question stem describes that a positional maneuver has already been performed with nystagmus observed, effectively confirming the diagnosis.
- While repeating the diagnostic test might be considered, it is not the next management step once BPPV is confirmed.
*MRI of the brain with gadolinium*
- This investigation is generally reserved for patients with suspected **central causes of vertigo** or other neurological deficits.
- The patient's symptoms are highly suggestive of a peripheral vestibular disorder, and the absence of **ataxia, diplopia, dysarthria**, or other focal neurological signs makes a brain MRI unnecessary at this stage.
*Broad-spectrum antibiotics*
- Antibiotics are used to treat **bacterial infections**, such as bacterial labyrinthitis or meningitis, which can cause vertigo.
- The patient denies fever, recent infections, or other signs of infection, making antibiotic therapy inappropriate for this presentation.
*High dose steroids*
- Corticosteroids are sometimes used in conditions like **vestibular neuritis** or **Meniere's disease** to reduce inflammation.
- The patient's symptoms are not consistent with these conditions; the positional nature of her vertigo and lack of continuous symptoms point away from an inflammatory process.
- Vestibular suppressants (meclizine) may provide symptomatic relief but are **adjunctive** rather than definitive treatment for BPPV.
Vestibular nuclei complex US Medical PG Question 2: A 55-year-old woman presents to the physician with repeated episodes of dizziness for the last 3 months, which are triggered by rising from a supine position and by lying down. The episodes are sudden and usually last for less than 30 seconds. During the episode, she feels as if she is suddenly thrown into a rolling spin. She has no symptoms in the period between episodes. The patient denies having headaches, vomiting, deafness, ear discharge or ear pain. There is no history of a known medical disorder or prolonged consumption of a specific drug. The vital signs are within normal limits. On physical examination, when the physician asks the woman to turn her head 45° to the right, and then to rapidly move from the sitting to the supine position, self-limited rotatory nystagmus is observed following her return to the sitting position. The rest of the neurological examination is normal. Which of the following is the treatment of choice for the condition of this patient?
- A. Oral prednisolone for 2 weeks and follow-up
- B. Singular neurectomy
- C. Posterior canal occlusion
- D. Canalith repositioning (Correct Answer)
- E. Oral meclizine for 6 weeks and follow-up
Vestibular nuclei complex Explanation: ***Canalith repositioning***
- The patient's symptoms (short-lasting, positional dizziness, rolling spin sensation, absence of other neurological symptoms, and positive **Dix-Hallpike maneuver** with **rotatory nystagmus**) are characteristic of **Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo (BPPV)**.
- **Canalith repositioning maneuvers** (e.g., Epley maneuver) are the treatment of choice as they aim to move dislodged otoconia out of the semicircular canals.
*Oral prednisolone for 2 weeks and follow-up*
- **Prednisolone** is a corticosteroid used for inflammatory conditions, but it is **not indicated for BPPV**, which is a mechanical problem.
- While corticosteroids might be used in other vestibular disorders like Meniere's disease or vestibular neuritis, they would not address the underlying cause of BPPV.
*Singular neurectomy*
- **Singular neurectomy** is a surgical procedure that involves cutting the singular nerve (posterior ampullary nerve).
- This is a highly invasive treatment reserved for **intractable BPPV** that has failed multiple conservative treatments, and it carries risks such as hearing loss.
*Posterior canal occlusion*
- **Posterior canal occlusion** is a surgical procedure that involves plugging the posterior semicircular canal.
- This is a surgical option for **severe, refractory BPPV** that has not responded to canalith repositioning maneuvers, and it is more invasive than repositioning.
*Oral meclizine for 6 weeks and follow-up*
- **Meclizine** is an antihistamine used to relieve symptoms of nausea, vomiting, and dizziness associated with vertigo.
- While it can help alleviate symptoms, it does **not treat the underlying cause of BPPV** and is typically used for symptomatic relief, not as a definitive treatment.
Vestibular nuclei complex US Medical PG Question 3: A 25-year-old woman presents to the physician with a complaint of several episodes of headaches in the past 4 weeks that are affecting her school performance. These episodes are getting progressively worse, and over-the-counter medications do not seem to help. She also mentions having to raise her head each time to look at the board while taking notes; she cannot simply glance up with just her eyes. She has no significant past medical or family history and was otherwise well prior to this visit. Physical examination shows an upward gaze palsy and convergence-retraction nystagmus. What structure is most likely to be affected in this patient?
- A. Aqueduct of Sylvius
- B. Inferior colliculi
- C. 3rd ventricle
- D. Tegmentum
- E. Corpora quadrigemina (Correct Answer)
Vestibular nuclei complex Explanation: ***Corpora quadrigemina***
- The patient presents with classic **Parinaud syndrome** (dorsal midbrain syndrome), characterized by **upward gaze palsy** and **convergence-retraction nystagmus**.
- These specific oculomotor signs result from direct damage to the **superior colliculi** and **pretectal area**, which are anatomical components of the **corpora quadrigemina** in the tectal region of the midbrain.
- The superior colliculi control vertical gaze, and the pretectal area coordinates pupillary reflexes and convergence movements. Compression or infiltration of this region (commonly by pineal tumors) produces the characteristic eye movement abnormalities.
- Progressive headaches indicate increased intracranial pressure, often from associated **aqueduct obstruction** causing hydrocephalus, which in turn compresses the tectal structures.
*Aqueduct of Sylvius*
- While obstruction of the aqueduct of Sylvius commonly **causes** Parinaud syndrome by leading to hydrocephalus and mass effect, the aqueduct itself is a CSF pathway and does not directly produce the eye movement abnormalities.
- The question asks which structure is "**affected**" - the affected structure producing these specific symptoms is the tectal region (corpora quadrigemina), not the obstructed aqueduct.
- This is an important distinction: the aqueduct is obstructed, but the corpora quadrigemina is compressed/affected.
*Inferior colliculi*
- The inferior colliculi are part of the corpora quadrigemina but serve the **auditory pathway**, not visual or oculomotor functions.
- Isolated lesions here would cause hearing deficits, not upward gaze palsy or convergence-retraction nystagmus.
*3rd ventricle*
- Lesions obstructing the third ventricle can cause hydrocephalus and headaches but do not directly affect the midbrain tectum unless they extend posteriorly.
- Third ventricular masses more commonly produce **endocrine disturbances** (hypothalamic-pituitary axis dysfunction) rather than the specific dorsal midbrain syndrome seen here.
*Tegmentum*
- The tegmentum is the ventral portion of the midbrain containing the **red nucleus**, **substantia nigra**, and **cranial nerve nuclei (III, IV)**.
- Tegmental lesions produce different oculomotor deficits (e.g., internuclear ophthalmoplegia, third nerve palsy) and movement disorders, not the dorsal midbrain syndrome pattern of Parinaud.
Vestibular nuclei complex US Medical PG Question 4: An 82-year-old male visits his primary care physician for a check-up. He reports that he is in his usual state of health. His only new complaint is that he feels as if the room is spinning, which has affected his ability to live independently. He is currently on lisinopril, metformin, aspirin, warfarin, metoprolol, and simvastatin and says that he has been taking them as prescribed. On presentation, his temperature is 98.8°F (37°C), blood pressure is 150/93 mmHg, pulse is 82/min, and respirations are 12/min. On exam he has a left facial droop and his speech is slightly garbled. Eye exam reveals nystagmus with certain characteristics. The type of nystagmus seen in this patient would most likely also be seen in which of the following diseases?
- A. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
- B. Multiple sclerosis (Correct Answer)
- C. Meniere disease
- D. Vestibular neuritis
- E. Aminoglycoside toxicity
Vestibular nuclei complex Explanation: ***Multiple sclerosis***
- This patient's presentation (acute vertigo, left facial droop, dysarthria, and nystagmus in an elderly patient with vascular risk factors) is most consistent with a **brainstem stroke** affecting the posterior circulation.
- The nystagmus in this case is **central nystagmus**, characterized by being non-fatigable, multidirectional, and not suppressed by visual fixation—typical of **CNS lesions** affecting the brainstem or cerebellum.
- **Multiple sclerosis** also causes **central nystagmus** due to demyelinating plaques in the brainstem, cerebellum, or medial longitudinal fasciculus, making it the condition that would exhibit the same type of nystagmus pattern.
- Both brainstem stroke and MS produce central vestibular dysfunction with similar nystagmus characteristics.
*Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo*
- BPPV causes **peripheral nystagmus** that is fatigable, triggered by specific head positions, and typically resolves within 30-60 seconds.
- The nystagmus is usually **rotatory or torsional** and follows a predictable pattern with the Dix-Hallpike maneuver.
- This patient's persistent symptoms and additional neurological signs (facial droop, dysarthria) indicate a **central, not peripheral**, cause.
*Meniere disease*
- Meniere's disease causes **peripheral nystagmus** associated with episodic vertigo, fluctuating hearing loss, tinnitus, and aural fullness.
- The nystagmus in Meniere's is typically **horizontal** during acute attacks but does not present with focal neurological deficits like facial weakness or speech changes.
- This patient lacks the classic auditory symptoms and has clear signs of a **central lesion**.
*Vestibular neuritis*
- Vestibular neuritis results from inflammation of the vestibular nerve, causing **peripheral nystagmus** that is horizontal-torsional, unidirectional, and enhanced without visual fixation.
- It typically presents with acute severe vertigo following a viral illness, without other neurological signs.
- The presence of **facial droop and dysarthria** in this patient rules out a purely peripheral vestibular disorder.
*Aminoglycoside toxicity*
- Aminoglycosides cause **bilateral vestibulotoxicity**, leading to oscillopsia, chronic dysequilibrium, and possible hearing loss, but not acute vertigo with nystagmus.
- When present, the vestibular dysfunction is typically **bilateral and symmetric**, without spontaneous nystagmus at rest.
- This patient is not on aminoglycosides, and his presentation with focal neurological signs points to a **central structural lesion** rather than toxic peripheral vestibulopathy.
Vestibular nuclei complex US Medical PG Question 5: A 70-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with sudden episodes of dizziness that resolve in certain positions. On further questioning she describes a false sense of motion with occasional spinning sensation consistent with vertigo. She denies any recent illnesses or hearing loss aside from presbycusis. Her vital signs are normal. During the physical exam the patient reports an episode of vertigo after transitioning from sitting to supine and horizontal nystagmus is concurrently noted. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Vestibular migraine
- B. Vestibular neuritis
- C. Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo (BPPV) (Correct Answer)
- D. Meniere's disease
- E. Labyrinthitis
Vestibular nuclei complex Explanation: ***Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo (BPPV)***
- The presentation of sudden **positional vertigo** and **positional nystagmus** (triggered by changing from sitting to supine) in an elderly patient is classic for BPPV.
- BPPV is caused by displaced **otoconia** within the semicircular canals, which inappropriately stimulate hair cells with head movements.
*Vestibular migraine*
- This condition involves recurrent vertigo attacks often associated with **migrainous headaches** or other migraine features (photophobia, phonophobia), which are not described here.
- While vertigo can be positional, the lack of headache or migraine history makes BPPV a more likely diagnosis.
*Vestibular neuritis*
- Typically presents with a **sudden onset of severe vertigo** that is constant and can last for days, often accompanied by **nausea and vomiting**, but without hearing loss.
- The vertigo in this case is *episodic* and *positional*, which does not fit the typical pattern of vestibular neuritis.
*Meniere's disease*
- Characterized by a classic triad of **episodic vertigo, fluctuating sensorineural hearing loss, and tinnitus**, often with aural fullness.
- While vertigo attacks can be sudden, the absence of **tinnitus** or *significant* hearing loss (beyond age-related presbycusis) makes Meniere's less likely.
*Labyrinthitis*
- Involves inflammation of the inner ear, presenting with **sudden, severe vertigo, nausea, and vomiting**, similar to vestibular neuritis, but also includes **unilateral hearing loss**.
- The patient specifically denies recent illnesses and significant hearing loss, which rules out labyrinthitis.
Vestibular nuclei complex US Medical PG Question 6: A 59-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a sudden-onset sensation that the room is spinning causing him to experience several episodes of nausea and vomiting. Upon arriving, the patient’s symptoms have resolved. He states his symptoms occurred as he was going to bed. He has never experienced this before, but felt extremely dizzy for roughly 3 minutes. He currently feels at his baseline. The patient is otherwise healthy and only has a history of eczema. His temperature is 97.7°F (36.5°C), blood pressure is 134/85 mmHg, pulse is 85/min, respirations are 13/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam is notable for a healthy man with a normal gait. The patient has a physiologic nystagmus and his cranial nerve exam is unremarkable. The patient’s head is turned to the left and he is laid back on the stretcher, which exacerbates severe symptoms with a nystagmus notable. The patient’s symptoms improve after 2 minutes of being in this position. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (Correct Answer)
- B. Vertebrobasilar stroke
- C. Labyrinthitis
- D. Vestibular neuritis
- E. Meniere disease
Vestibular nuclei complex Explanation: ***Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo***
- The sudden onset of **vertigo** that is triggered by specific **head movements** (e.g., lying in bed, Dix-Hallpike maneuver causing severe symptoms with nystagmus, resolving in 2 minutes) is highly characteristic of BPPV.
- The **transient nature** of the vertigo (3 minutes), resolution of symptoms, and absence of other neurological deficits further support this diagnosis.
*Vertebrobasilar stroke*
- A vertebrobasilar stroke would typically present with more persistent and severe neurological symptoms, such as **diplopia**, **dysarthria**, **ataxia**, or significant motor/sensory deficits.
- The patient's rapid resolution of symptoms and normal neurological exam upon presentation make a stroke less likely.
*Labyrinthitis*
- Labyrinthitis is characterized by sudden, severe, and **prolonged vertigo** (days to weeks) often accompanied by **hearing loss** and **tinnitus**, which are not reported in this case.
- The transient, position-triggered nature of the patient's symptoms does not fit labyrinthitis.
*Vestibular neuritis*
- Vestibular neuritis presents with an acute onset of **severe vertigo** that is usually **persistent** for days, associated with **nausea and vomiting**, but **without hearing loss**.
- Unlike BPPV, it is not typically triggered by specific head movements and continues for much longer periods.
*Meniere disease*
- Meniere disease classically involves recurrent episodes of **vertigo**, **tinnitus**, **fluctuating hearing loss**, and aural fullness.
- The isolated, transient, and position-triggered vertigo without any mention of hearing changes or tinnitus makes Meniere disease unlikely.
Vestibular nuclei complex US Medical PG Question 7: A 22-year-old woman comes to the physician because of hearing loss and unsteadiness while standing and walking for the past 2 months. She needs support from a wall to prevent herself from falling. She has not had any recent injuries and has no history of serious illness. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows an unsteady gait. She sways when asked to stand upright with her feet together. She is unable to hear fingers rubbing next to her ears or repeat words whispered in her ears bilaterally. An MRI of the brain shows a 3-cm tumor in the right cerebellopontine angle and a 4.5-cm tumor in the left cerebellopontine angle. This patient is most likely to develop which of the following in the future?
- A. Renal cell carcinoma
- B. Telangiectasias
- C. Optic glioma
- D. Meningioma (Correct Answer)
- E. Astrocytoma
Vestibular nuclei complex Explanation: ***Meningioma***
- This patient's bilateral **vestibular schwannomas** (tumors in the **cerebellopontine angle** causing hearing loss and unsteadiness) are highly suggestive of **Neurofibromatosis type 2 (NF2)**.
- Patients with NF2 are predisposed to developing multiple central nervous system tumors, with **meningiomas** being a common manifestation, alongside schwannomas and ependymomas.
*Renal cell carcinoma*
- This is not typically associated with **Neurofibromatosis type 2**, which primarily involves tumors of the nervous system.
- While various cancer syndromes exist, NF2 does not significantly increase the risk of **renal cell carcinoma**.
*Telangiectasias*
- **Telangiectasias** are dilated small blood vessels, often associated with conditions like **hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia** or **ataxia-telangiectasia**.
- They are not a characteristic feature or complication of **Neurofibromatosis type 2**.
*Optic glioma*
- **Optic gliomas** are a hallmark feature of **Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1)**, not NF2.
- NF1 is also associated with **café-au-lait spots** and **Lisch nodules**, which are distinct from the presentation of bilateral vestibular schwannomas.
*Astrocytoma*
- While NF2 patients can develop central nervous system tumors, **astrocytomas** are less common than **ependymomas** or **meningiomas** in this syndrome.
- The most characteristic brain tumors in NF2 are **vestibular schwannomas** and **meningiomas**.
Vestibular nuclei complex US Medical PG Question 8: A previously well 25-year-old woman was brought to the emergency department by her boyfriend because of progressive blurred vision. Examination of the eyes reveals loss of horizontal gaze, intact convergence, and nystagmus. A clinical diagnosis of multiple sclerosis is made and the patient is started on a course of corticosteroids. What is the most likely etiology for her eye examination findings?
- A. Loss of reticular formations
- B. Loss of bilateral medial longitudinal fasciculus (Correct Answer)
- C. Loss of frontal eye fields
- D. Loss of cranial nerve VI
- E. Loss of cranial nerve III
Vestibular nuclei complex Explanation: ***Loss of bilateral medial longitudinal fasciculus***
- This constellation of symptoms, including **loss of horizontal gaze (specifically adduction deficits)** with intact convergence and nystagmus, is characteristic of **internuclear ophthalmoplegia (INO)**.
- INO is caused by a lesion in the **medial longitudinal fasciculus (MLF)**, which connects the abducens nucleus (CN VI) to the contralateral oculomotor nucleus (CN III) to coordinate horizontal gaze.
- **Bilateral MLF involvement** is highly characteristic of **multiple sclerosis** in young adults, particularly young women, as demyelinating plaques frequently affect these structures in the brainstem.
- The key clinical finding is **impaired adduction on attempted lateral gaze** with **contralateral abducting nystagmus**, while **convergence remains intact** (since convergence uses a different pathway).
*Loss of reticular formations*
- Damage to the **pontine reticular formation** (paramedian pontine reticular formation or PPRF) would typically lead to a **conjugate gaze palsy** (inability to move both eyes past the midline) rather than INO.
- This would affect both eyes moving together in the same direction, not the dissociated eye movements seen in INO.
*Loss of frontal eye fields*
- Lesions in the **frontal eye fields** (Brodmann area 8) result in a temporary **conjugate gaze deviation** towards the side of the lesion and an inability to perform voluntary saccades to the contralateral side.
- This does not explain the specific findings of adduction deficit in one eye with preserved convergence.
*Loss of cranial nerve VI*
- A lesion of **cranial nerve VI (abducens nerve)** would cause paralysis of the **lateral rectus muscle**, leading to an inability to **abduct** the affected eye and potentially esotropia.
- It would not cause an **adduction deficit** or the dissociated eye movements characteristic of INO.
*Loss of cranial nerve III*
- A lesion of **cranial nerve III (oculomotor nerve)** would result in a drooping eyelid (**ptosis**), outward and downward deviation of the eye, and pupillary dilation.
- This is a much more extensive deficit than the specific adduction problems described, and the pupillary findings are absent.
Vestibular nuclei complex US Medical PG Question 9: Fibers from the marked structure terminate at which of the following?
- A. Red nucleus (Correct Answer)
- B. Subthalamus
- C. Inferior olivary nucleus
- D. Fastigial nucleus
Vestibular nuclei complex Explanation: ***Red nucleus***
- The arrow points to the **superior cerebellar peduncle**, which contains efferent fibers from the **dentate nucleus** of the cerebellum.
- A major projection of the superior cerebellar peduncle is to the **contralateral red nucleus**, forming part of the **dentato-rubro-thalamic pathway**.
*Subthalamus*
- The subthalamus is part of the **diencephalon** and is involved in motor control as part of the **basal ganglia circuit**.
- It does not receive direct efferent projections from the cerebellum via the superior cerebellar peduncle.
*Inferior olivary nucleus*
- The inferior olivary nucleus is a major source of **climbing fibers** to the cerebellum, providing **afferent input** for motor learning and coordination.
- It does not receive direct efferent output from the cerebellum's deep nuclei via the superior cerebellar peduncle.
*Fastigial nucleus*
- The fastigial nucleus is one of the **deep cerebellar nuclei**, located medially.
- Its primary efferent projections are via the **inferior cerebellar peduncle** to the vestibular nuclei and reticular formation, not typically receiving fibers from the superior cerebellar peduncle.
Vestibular nuclei complex US Medical PG Question 10: An 86-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her niece because the patient felt like she was spinning and about to topple over. This occurred around 4 hours ago, and although symptoms have improved, she still feels like she is being pulled to the right side. The vital signs include: blood pressure 116/75 mm Hg, pulse 90/min, and SpO2 99% on room air. Physical examination reveals right-sided limb ataxia along with hypoalgesia and decreased temperature sensation on the right side of the face and left side of the body. An urgent non-contrast CT scan of the head shows no evidence of hemorrhage. What other finding is most likely to be present in this patient?
- A. Hemiparesis
- B. Deviated tongue
- C. Hemianopia
- D. Absent cough reflex
- E. Absent gag reflex (Correct Answer)
Vestibular nuclei complex Explanation: ***Absent gag reflex***
- The constellation of **vertigo**, **right-sided ataxia**, and **crossed sensory loss** (right face, left body) is characteristic of **Wallenberg syndrome** (lateral medullary infarction).
- This syndrome often involves the **nucleus ambiguus**, which controls the muscles of the **soft palate, pharynx, and larynx**, leading to an absent gag reflex, dysphagia, and hoarseness.
*Hemiparesis*
- **Hemiparesis** (weakness on one side of the body) is typically associated with lesions in the **corticospinal tracts** higher up in the brainstem or cerebral hemispheres.
- While stroke can cause hemiparesis, it is not a primary feature of Lateral Medullary Syndrome, which predominantly affects sensory and cerebellar pathways.
*Deviated tongue*
- **Tongue deviation** is seen with lesions of the **hypoglossal nerve (CN XII)** or its nucleus, which would typically cause the tongue to deviate towards the side of the lesion when protruded.
- Wallenberg syndrome primarily affects structures supplied by the **posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA)**, and the hypoglossal nucleus is usually spared.
*Hemianopia*
- **Hemianopia** (loss of half of the visual field) results from damage to the **optic tracts**, optic radiations, or the visual cortex in the occipital lobe.
- Lateral medullary infarction primarily affects the brainstem and cerebellum, far from the visual pathways responsible for hemianopia.
*Absent cough reflex*
- While dysphagia and an absent gag reflex are common in Wallenberg syndrome due to involvement of the nucleus ambiguus, an entirely **absent cough reflex** is a more severe indicator of brainstem dysfunction.
- The cough reflex is complex and involves cranial nerves IX, X, and the respiratory centers; while it can be impaired, an absent gag reflex is more specifically linked to the **nucleus ambiguus** lesion in this syndrome.
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