Screening & Prevention

Screening & Prevention UK Medical PG Question 1: A 76-year-old woman with dementia (MMSE 18/30), Parkinson's disease, type 2 diabetes, and recurrent falls is brought by her daughter for medication review. Current medications include: co-careldopa 25/100 three times daily, ropinirole 8mg three times daily, quetiapine 25mg twice daily, metformin 500mg twice daily, gliclazide 40mg twice daily, alendronic acid 70mg weekly, calcium/vitamin D, and PRN paracetamol. She has had three falls in the past two months. Her daughter reports increasing confusion and hallucinations. Blood glucose monitoring shows values between 4.8-8.2 mmol/L. Which medication intervention should be prioritised?

• A. Reduce co-careldopa dose as dopaminergic medications contribute to hallucinations and falls
• B. Stop quetiapine immediately as antipsychotics worsen Parkinson's disease motor symptoms
• C. Review and rationalise diabetes medications given risk of hypoglycaemia contributing to falls
• D. Stop alendronic acid as bisphosphonates increase fall risk in elderly patients
• E. Reduce ropinirole as dopamine agonists cause hallucinations and should be withdrawn first (Correct Answer)

Screening & Prevention Explanation: ***Reduce ropinirole as dopamine agonists cause hallucinations and should be withdrawn first*** - **Dopamine agonists** like ropinirole carry a much higher risk of inducing **visual hallucinations** and confusion compared to levodopa, especially in patients with cognitive impairment. - Management guidelines for Parkinson’s psychosis prioritize the **gradual withdrawal** of dopamine agonists before altering levodopa therapy to minimize neuropsychiatric side effects while preserving motor function. *Reduce co-careldopa dose as dopaminergic medications contribute to hallucinations and falls* - While levodopa can contribute to hallucinations, it is the **gold standard** for motor control and is less frequently the primary cause of psychosis than dopamine agonists. - Reducing **co-careldopa** before reducing ropinirole might severely compromise the patient's mobility and increase the risk of **motor fluctuations**. *Stop quetiapine immediately as antipsychotics worsen Parkinson's disease motor symptoms* - **Quetiapine** is one of the few antipsychotics used in Parkinson's because it has a low affinity for **D2 receptors**, making it less likely to worsen motor symptoms. - Abruptly stopping it may cause a rebound of psychiatric symptoms; the priority is to remove the **precipitating factor** (ropinirole) rather than the treatment for the symptoms. *Review and rationalise diabetes medications given risk of hypoglycaemia contributing to falls* - The patient's blood glucose readings (4.8-8.2 mmol/L) indicate **tight control**, but she is not currently experiencing clinical **hypoglycemia** that would explain acute hallucinations. - While preventing hypoglycemia is important for fall prevention, it does not address the primary complaint of **visual hallucinations** and increasing confusion. *Stop alendronic acid as bisphosphonates increase fall risk in elderly patients* - **Alendronic acid** is used to prevent fractures and does not have a known association with an increased **risk of falls** or hallucinations. - It is generally continued in elderly patients with high fracture risk unless there are specific contraindications like **esophageal disorders** or severe renal impairment.

Screening & Prevention UK Medical PG Question 2: A 72-year-old man with chronic kidney disease stage 4 (eGFR 24 ml/min/1.73m²), type 2 diabetes, hypertension, and gout presents for medication review. His current medications include: metformin 1g twice daily, gliclazide 80mg twice daily, ramipril 10mg once daily, amlodipine 10mg once daily, aspirin 75mg once daily, atorvastatin 80mg once daily, allopurinol 100mg once daily, and omeprazole 20mg once daily. His HbA1c is 58 mmol/mol, and he reports intermittent episodes of feeling 'shaky and sweaty'. Which medication requires MOST urgent modification?

• A. Allopurinol should be increased to 300mg daily for adequate urate control
• B. Metformin should be stopped immediately due to risk of lactic acidosis (Correct Answer)
• C. Ramipril should be reduced due to advanced chronic kidney disease
• D. Gliclazide should be reviewed and reduced due to hypoglycaemia risk
• E. Aspirin should be stopped as cardiovascular protection is inadequate at this dose

Screening & Prevention Explanation: ***Metformin should be stopped immediately due to risk of lactic acidosis***- **Metformin** is primarily cleared by the kidneys and is **contraindicated** when the **eGFR falls below 30 ml/min/1.73m²** (CKD Stage 4). The patient's eGFR is 24.- Continued use in this setting significantly increases the risk of **metformin-associated lactic acidosis (MALA)**, a severe and life-threatening metabolic emergency requiring urgent discontinuation.*Allopurinol should be increased to 300mg daily for adequate urate control*- Increasing **allopurinol** to 300mg in a patient with an **eGFR of 24 ml/min/1.73m²** is inappropriate and risky, as it can lead to severe toxicity, including **allopurinol hypersensitivity syndrome**.- The current dose of **100mg daily** is generally considered the maximum safe dose for patients with this level of **renal impairment**.*Ramipril should be reduced due to advanced chronic kidney disease*- **ACE inhibitors** like **ramipril** are often beneficial in CKD for **renoprotection** and blood pressure control, provided there is no acute kidney injury or severe hyperkalemia.- While renal function and electrolytes require close monitoring, discontinuing metformin due to the immediate and severe risk of **lactic acidosis** takes precedence.*Gliclazide should be reviewed and reduced due to hypoglycaemia risk*- The patient's symptoms of feeling "shaky and sweaty" are classic for **hypoglycaemia**, likely exacerbated by **gliclazide** accumulation due to reduced renal clearance.- While adjusting **gliclazide** is crucial to prevent further hypoglycaemic episodes, the immediate risk of **metformin-associated lactic acidosis** is a higher priority.*Aspirin should be stopped as cardiovascular protection is inadequate at this dose*- **Aspirin 75mg daily** is the standard and effective dose for **secondary prevention** of cardiovascular events, especially in patients with multiple risk factors like this gentleman.- There is no clinical indication to stop aspirin based on its efficacy at this dose, and doing so would remove a crucial component of his cardiovascular protection.

Screening & Prevention UK Medical PG Question 3: Understanding the concept of 'diagnostic uncertainty' in managing undifferentiated symptoms in primary care involves recognizing that certain presentations cannot be immediately diagnosed. Which of the following statements best describes the evidence-based approach to managing diagnostic uncertainty?

• A. Immediate referral to secondary care is always appropriate when a diagnosis cannot be made in primary care to ensure patient safety
• B. Safety-netting with clear instructions for re-consultation if symptoms persist, worsen, or new features develop is an essential component of managing uncertainty (Correct Answer)
• C. Extensive investigation should be undertaken immediately to exclude all possible serious diagnoses before adopting a watch-and-wait approach
• D. Patients should be reassured that the absence of abnormal findings on initial tests means serious pathology is excluded and no follow-up is needed
• E. Empirical treatment should be started for the most likely diagnosis to avoid delays in management

Screening & Prevention Explanation: ***Safety-netting with clear instructions for re-consultation if symptoms persist, worsen, or new features develop is an essential component of managing uncertainty***- **Safety-netting** is an evidence-based strategy that allows for the management of **undifferentiated symptoms** by providing patients with clear, specific **red-flag symptoms** and a planned follow-up.- This approach maintains **patient safety** and utilizes the clinical tool of **time as a diagnostic test**, permitting the natural history of a condition to reveal itself without unnecessary harm.*Immediate referral to secondary care is always appropriate when a diagnosis cannot be made in primary care to ensure patient safety*- Primary care clinicians frequently manage **low-prevalence conditions** where immediate referral would lead to **over-medicalization** and unnecessary patient anxiety.- Most undifferentiated symptoms in primary care are **self-limiting** or benign, making immediate specialist referral an inefficient and potentially harmful use of resources.*Extensive investigation should be undertaken immediately to exclude all possible serious diagnoses before adopting a watch-and-wait approach*- Over-investigation increases the risk of **false positives** and **incidentalomas**, which may lead to invasive procedures that cause more harm than the original symptom.- A **judicious use of investigations** is preferred to avoid the cascades of care that arise from testing without sufficient clinical suspicion.*Patients should be reassured that the absence of abnormal findings on initial tests means serious pathology is excluded and no follow-up is needed*- Many serious conditions can present with **normal initial tests** because some pathologies only become detectable as the disease progresses over time.- Providing false reassurance without a plan for **re-evaluation** violates the principles of safety-netting and may lead to **delayed diagnoses** if symptoms evolve.*Empirical treatment should be started for the most likely diagnosis to avoid delays in management*- Initiating treatment without a diagnosis can **mask symptoms**, making it significantly more difficult to reach a definitive diagnosis later.- This approach exposes patients to potential **adverse drug reactions** and side effects that are unnecessary if the underlying cause is a self-limiting viral illness.

Screening & Prevention UK Medical PG Question 4: A 67-year-old woman with multimorbidity attends for a comprehensive medication review. She has six chronic conditions: heart failure, atrial fibrillation, type 2 diabetes, hypothyroidism, osteoporosis, and depression. She takes 11 regular medications. According to NICE guidance on multimorbidity (NG56), which approach is MOST important when prioritising her care during this consultation?

• A. Focus on achieving optimal disease-specific targets for each individual condition
• B. Establish the patient's priorities for treatment and quality of life outcomes (Correct Answer)
• C. Systematically review medications starting with those prescribed most recently
• D. Concentrate on reducing the total number of medications to fewer than 10
• E. Prioritise management of conditions with the highest mortality risk first

Screening & Prevention Explanation: ***Establish the patient's priorities for treatment and quality of life outcomes***- According to **NICE NG56**, the core of multimorbidity management is a **patient-centered approach** that identifies personal goals, values, and desired outcomes.- Shared decision-making ensures that care focuses on improving **quality of life** and reducing **treatment burden**, rather than just following clinical guidelines.*Focus on achieving optimal disease-specific targets for each individual condition*- Managing multiple conditions solely through **single-disease guidelines** often leads to **polypharmacy** and increased risk of adverse drug interactions.- Strict adherence to multiple guidelines may ignore the patient's overall wellbeing and can be practically unfeasible for those with many comorbidities.*Systematically review medications starting with those prescribed most recently*- Medication reviews should focus on assessing **clinical benefit**, **safety**, and **adherence** rather than being dictated by the chronological order of prescription.- The goal is to identify medications that are no longer effective or are causing harm, which may include long-standing prescriptions.*Concentrate on reducing the total number of medications to fewer than 10*- While **deprescribing** is a key goal, there is no evidence-based **arbitrary threshold** (like fewer than 10) for what constitutes an appropriate number of drugs.- Focus should be on the **appropriateness of polypharmacy** and ensuring each medication provides more benefit than harm for that specific patient.*Prioritise management of conditions with the highest mortality risk first*- Focusing only on **mortality risk** (like heart failure) can overlook conditions that significantly impact **functional status** and daily life, such as depression or osteoporosis.- A holistic approach balances survival with the patient's own concerns regarding **symptom control** and daily living activities.

Screening & Prevention UK Medical PG Question 5: A 43-year-old woman presents asking about strategies to reduce her breast cancer risk. Her mother was diagnosed with breast cancer at age 48 and her maternal aunt at age 52. She has no personal history of breast disease. Clinical examination is normal. She takes the combined oral contraceptive pill and drinks 10 units of alcohol weekly. Her BMI is 26 kg/m². After appropriate genetic assessment, she is found not to carry BRCA mutations. Which lifestyle modification would provide the greatest reduction in her breast cancer risk?

• A. Stopping the combined oral contraceptive pill
• B. Reducing alcohol intake to below 5 units per week (Correct Answer)
• C. Achieving and maintaining BMI <25 kg/m² through weight loss
• D. Undertaking regular vigorous physical activity 150 minutes weekly
• E. Adopting a plant-based Mediterranean diet low in processed foods

Screening & Prevention Explanation: ***Reducing alcohol intake to below 5 units per week*** - There is a well-established **dose-response relationship** between alcohol consumption and breast cancer risk, where each unit consumed per day increases risk by approximately **7-10%**. - Reducing consumption from 10 units to below 5 units per week represents a significant risk reduction that is more impactful than other lifestyle changes in a **pre-menopausal** woman with a modest BMI and moderate alcohol intake. *Stopping the combined oral contraceptive pill* - While the **combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP)** is associated with a small relative risk increase (RR ~1.2), this risk is transient and **returns to baseline** 10 years after cessation. - The absolute risk reduction from stopping the pill in a 43-year-old is generally lower than that achieved through significant **alcohol modification**. *Achieving and maintaining BMI <25 kg/m² through weight loss* - Elevated **BMI** is primarily a significant risk factor for **post-menopausal** breast cancer due to peripheral aromatization of androgens in adipose tissue. - In **pre-menopausal** women like this patient, the association between obesity and breast cancer is less pronounced, and her current BMI of 26 kg/m² is only **borderline overweight**. *Undertaking regular vigorous physical activity 150 minutes weekly* - **Physical activity** provides a modest reduction in risk (approx. 10-20%), largely mediated through secondary effects like **weight management** and hormonal regulation. - While beneficial for overall health, the magnitude of specific breast cancer risk reduction is typically less than that achieved by **halving alcohol intake**. *Adopting a plant-based Mediterranean diet low in processed foods* - Although a **Mediterranean diet** is associated with lower overall cancer mortality and improved cardiovascular health, its specific impact on breast cancer risk is less clinically proven than **alcohol restriction**. - Dietary changes are often recommended as part of a holistic approach but do not show the same **linear correlation** with risk reduction as limiting alcohol.

Screening & Prevention UK Medical PG Question 6: A 66-year-old man attends after receiving an NHS AAA screening result showing an infrarenal aortic diameter of 4.8 cm. He is asymptomatic. He smokes 15 cigarettes daily, has hypertension treated with ramipril, and his BP is 138/82 mmHg. What is the most appropriate surveillance and management plan?

• A. Repeat ultrasound in 12 months and reinforce smoking cessation
• B. Repeat ultrasound in 3 months and refer to vascular surgery (Correct Answer)
• C. Immediate referral to vascular surgery for consideration of intervention
• D. Repeat ultrasound in 6 months and optimize cardiovascular risk factors
• E. CT angiography for surgical planning and urgent vascular referral

Screening & Prevention Explanation: ***Repeat ultrasound in 3 months and refer to vascular surgery***- Aneurysms between **4.5 cm and 5.4 cm** are classified as medium-sized and require **3-monthly ultrasound surveillance** according to NICE and NHS guidelines.- Patients with a medium AAA must be **referred to vascular surgery** for assessment, risk factor management, and to establish a pathway if the aneurysm reaches the surgical threshold.*Repeat ultrasound in 12 months and reinforce smoking cessation*- **Annual surveillance** is only indicated for small aneurysms measuring between **3.0 cm and 4.4 cm**.- While **smoking cessation** is vital for all AAA patients, 12-month monitoring is insufficient for a 4.8 cm aneurysm.*Immediate referral to vascular surgery for consideration of intervention*- Surgical intervention is generally only considered when the aneurysm is **asymptomatic and ">=5.5 cm"**, or if there is rapid growth ( ">1 cm per year" ).- This patient is **asymptomatic** and measures 4.8 cm, meaning the risks of elective surgery currently outweigh the risk of rupture.*Repeat ultrasound in 6 months and optimize cardiovascular risk factors*- **6-monthly surveillance** is not a standard interval in the UK AAA screening program; intervals are either 12 months (small) or 3 months (medium).- While **blood pressure control** (target "<140/90 mmHg" ) and statins are necessary, the monitoring timeline here is clinically inappropriate for the aneurysm size.*CT angiography for surgical planning and urgent vascular referral*- **CT angiography** is reserved for pre-operative planning once the decision to intervene (threshold ">=5.5 cm" ) has been made.- **Urgent referral** (within 2 weeks) is required for large aneurysms ( ">=5.5 cm" ), whereas a medium-sized aneurysm follows a standard referral pathway.

Screening & Prevention UK Medical PG Question 7: A 55-year-old woman with a BMI of 32 kg/m² attends for weight management support. She has tried multiple diets without sustained success. She has no other medical conditions. She asks about pharmacological options for weight loss. According to NICE guidance, what is the threshold for considering orlistat in this patient?

• A. BMI ≥25 kg/m² with commitment to dietary changes
• B. BMI ≥28 kg/m² with obesity-related comorbidities
• C. BMI ≥30 kg/m² with commitment to dietary and lifestyle changes (Correct Answer)
• D. BMI ≥32 kg/m² after failed conservative management
• E. BMI ≥35 kg/m² or BMI ≥30 kg/m² with comorbidities

Screening & Prevention Explanation: ***BMI ≥30 kg/m² with commitment to dietary and lifestyle changes*** - According to **NICE guidelines**, orlistat is indicated for adults with a **BMI of 30 kg/m² or more** as a primary threshold, even in the absence of comorbidities. - The prescription of orlistat must always be part of a comprehensive weight management program that includes **dietary modification**, increased physical activity, and **behavioral support**. *BMI ≥25 kg/m² with commitment to dietary changes* - A **BMI of 25 kg/m²** signifies **overweight**, for which pharmacological interventions like orlistat are not typically recommended by NICE. - Management at this stage primarily focuses on **lifestyle modifications**, including diet and exercise, without drug therapy. *BMI ≥28 kg/m² with obesity-related comorbidities* - Orlistat can be considered at a **BMI of 28 kg/m² or more** but specifically requires the presence of **obesity-related comorbidities**, such as type 2 diabetes or hypertension. - The patient in this scenario has **no other medical conditions**, meaning this specific threshold does not apply to her. *BMI ≥32 kg/m² after failed conservative management* - While the patient's BMI is 32 kg/m², this specific value is not the **minimum NICE threshold** for initiating orlistat, which is **BMI ≥30 kg/m²**. - Adhering to the established guidelines ensures appropriate and timely access to pharmacological support for eligible individuals. *BMI ≥35 kg/m² or BMI ≥30 kg/m² with comorbidities* - This threshold is generally more aligned with the criteria for referral to **bariatric surgery** rather than the initial prescription of orlistat. - Applying this higher criterion would unnecessarily delay pharmacological intervention for patients who meet the lower, more appropriate threshold for orlistat.

Screening & Prevention UK Medical PG Question 8: A 71-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes for 18 years attends for review. Her diabetic eye screening report from 2 weeks ago shows 'proliferative diabetic retinopathy with new vessels at disc in left eye'. She reports no visual symptoms. Her HbA1c is 72 mmol/mol, BP 156/88 mmHg. She has not yet received any ophthalmology appointment. What is the most appropriate action?

• A. Contact ophthalmology to confirm urgent referral has been received and processed (Correct Answer)
• B. Reassure that ophthalmology will contact her within 2 weeks of screening report
• C. Arrange repeat diabetic eye screening in 3 months to monitor progression
• D. Refer urgently to ophthalmology via GP pathway in case screening referral was missed
• E. Optimize glycaemic and blood pressure control and wait for screening programme referral

Screening & Prevention Explanation: ***Contact ophthalmology to confirm urgent referral has been received and processed***- **Proliferative diabetic retinopathy (PDR)** with **new vessels at the disc (NVD)** is a sight-threatening condition that requires an **urgent referral** and treatment within **2 weeks**.- Since the patient has not received an appointment after 2 weeks, active verification is necessary to prevent **permanent vision loss** due to potential administrative or system failures.*Reassure that ophthalmology will contact her within 2 weeks of screening report*- Passive reassurance is unsafe because the **2-week target** for assessment has already been reached without the patient being contacted.- Relying solely on the screening program's automation may lead to delays in treating high-risk **neovascularization**.*Arrange repeat diabetic eye screening in 3 months to monitor progression*- Repeat screening is contraindicated once **referable retinopathy** is identified; the screening process has already served its purpose of detection.- Delayed treatment of PDR increases the risk of **vitreous hemorrhage** and **tractional retinal detachment**.*Refer urgently to ophthalmology via GP pathway in case screening referral was missed*- Sending a duplicate referral via the GP pathway can cause **administrative confusion** and may not be as direct as contacting the department regarding the existing screening referral.- The priority is to confirm the status of the **integrated screening-to-treatment pathway** specifically designed for these cases.*Optimize glycaemic and blood pressure control and wait for screening programme referral*- While **HbA1c** and **blood pressure optimization** are vital for long-term management, they do not replace the need for immediate **panretinal photocoagulation** or other specialist interventions.- Waiting indefinitely for a system-triggered referral when a critical deadline has passed places the patient at significant risk of **sudden blindness**.

Screening & Prevention UK Medical PG Question 9: A 29-year-old woman attends for preconception counselling. She is planning pregnancy with her partner. She had one previous pregnancy 3 years ago with uncomplicated vaginal delivery. She takes no regular medications and has no chronic conditions. Which of the following screening tests should be offered before conception?

• A. Rubella immunity only, as other infections are tested in pregnancy (Correct Answer)
• B. No infectious disease screening needed as she had testing in previous pregnancy
• C. Rubella immunity, HIV, hepatitis B, and syphilis serology
• D. Full sexually transmitted infection screen including chlamydia and gonorrhoea
• E. HIV and syphilis testing only if high-risk factors identified

Screening & Prevention Explanation: ***Rubella immunity only, as other infections are tested in pregnancy*** - Identifying **rubella immunity status** preconception is vital because the **MMR vaccine** is a live vaccine and cannot be administered during pregnancy due to potential teratogenic risks. - Routine screening for HIV, hepatitis B, and syphilis is standard practice at the **antenatal booking appointment** (usually in the first trimester), rather than preconception, as infection status can change. *No infectious disease screening needed as she had testing in previous pregnancy* - **Immunity** or **infection status** can change over time; for instance, rubella immunity can wane, and new exposures to other pathogens may have occurred since the last delivery. - National guidelines recommend reassessment of **vaccination history** and immunity for every planned pregnancy to ensure optimal fetal protection. *Rubella immunity, HIV, hepatitis B, and syphilis serology* - While all are important, testing for HIV, hepatitis B, and syphilis is specifically timed for the **first trimester** to align with established antenatal management pathways and optimize timing for interventions. - Universal preconception screening for all these infections is not typically recommended unless specific **clinical risk factors** are identified during the consultation, whereas rubella is universally recommended. *Full sexually transmitted infection screen including chlamydia and gonorrhoea* - Broad STI screening for **chlamydia and gonorrhoea** is not a universal preconception requirement for asymptomatic women in low-risk groups, as this patient appears to be. - These tests are generally reserved for patients presenting with **symptoms** or those with a high-risk sexual history, rather than being part of routine preconception screening. *HIV and syphilis testing only if high-risk factors identified* - This option incorrectly omits **rubella screening**, which is the primary infectious disease intervention universally recommended for all women seeking preconception care. - Regardless of identified high-risk factors, HIV and syphilis are still offered to all pregnant women as part of the **routine antenatal screening program** once pregnancy is confirmed.

Screening & Prevention UK Medical PG Question 10: A 46-year-old man attends for cardiovascular risk assessment. He drinks 6 pints of beer (4.5% ABV) on Friday and Saturday nights. He works in construction and is physically active. BMI is 27 kg/m², BP 134/84 mmHg. He asks about reducing his drinking. According to current UK Chief Medical Officers' guidelines, how many units of alcohol does he consume weekly?

• A. 14 units
• B. 24 units
• C. 30.6 units (Correct Answer)
• D. 36 units
• E. 42 units

Screening & Prevention Explanation: ***30.6 units***- Alcohol units are calculated using the formula: **Volume (ml) × ABV (%) / 1000**. One UK pint is **568 ml**, making one 4.5% ABV beer equal to **2.556 units**.- The patient consumes 12 pints per week (6 on Friday and 6 on Saturday), so total consumption is **12 × 2.556 = 30.672 units**, which is significantly above the **UK Chief Medical Officers' low-risk limit of 14 units** weekly.*14 units*- This represents the **maximum recommended weekly limit** for both men and women in the UK to keep health risks low.- While a target for reduction for this patient, it does not reflect his current actual intake of **12 pints** per week.*24 units*- This value would imply that each pint contains exactly **2 units**, which is not accurate for a 4.5% ABV beer.- A pint of 4.5% ABV beer is actually **2.556 units**, making 12 pints total **30.6 units**.*36 units*- This figure would suggest an incorrect calculation where each pint is assumed to be **3 units**, which is typically associated with stronger beers (around 5.3% ABV).- Using the precise **4.5% ABV** given, the correct calculation yields **30.6 units**.*42 units*- This value would result from assuming approximately **3.5 units per pint**, which is characteristic of much stronger lagers or ciders (around 6% ABV).- The accurate calculation based on the specified **4.5% ABV** confirms the patient's intake is **30.6 units**.

Screening & Prevention Flashcard 1 of 10

Question: Screen patient's blood pressure every _____ if high-risk (e.g. diabetes, family history, smokers, obesity)

Answer: 1 year

Screening & Prevention Flashcard 2 of 10

Question: If cervical cancer screening (smear test) is +ve for hrHPV & there is evidence of cytological abnormalities then _____

Answer: refer to colposcopy

Screening & Prevention Flashcard 3 of 10

Question: What is the formula used to calculate Positive Predictive Value: _____

Answer: TP / (TP + FP)

Screening & Prevention Flashcard 4 of 10

Question: In a Contigency Table what does FN mean? _____ Where the Disease is Present and the test is Negative

Answer: False Negative

Screening & Prevention Flashcard 5 of 10

Question: What is the formula used to calculate Specificity: _____

Answer: TN / (TN+FP)

Screening & Prevention Flashcard 6 of 10

Question: In a Contigency Table what does FP mean? _____ Where the Disease is Absent and the test is Positive

Answer: False Positive

Screening & Prevention Flashcard 7 of 10

Question: What is the formula used to calculate Sensitivity: _____

Answer: TP / (TP+FN)

Screening & Prevention Flashcard 8 of 10

Question: Sensitivty is described as the _____

Answer: proportion of patients with the condition who have a positive test result

Screening & Prevention Flashcard 9 of 10

Question: Negative Predictive Value is described as the _____

Answer: The chance that the patient does not have the condition if the diagnostic test is negative

Screening & Prevention Flashcard 10 of 10

Question: What is the formula used to calculate Negative Predictive Value: _____

Answer: TN / (TN + FN)