Pelvic Floor Disorders Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice Indian Medical PG questions for Pelvic Floor Disorders. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Pelvic Floor Disorders Indian Medical PG Question 1: Which muscle is a key component of the pelvic diaphragm?
- A. Piriformis
- B. Gluteus maximus
- C. Obturator internus
- D. Levator ani (Correct Answer)
Pelvic Floor Disorders Explanation: ***Levator ani***
- The **levator ani** is a broad, thin muscle forming the major part of the **pelvic diaphragm**, which supports the pelvic viscera [2].
- It consists of three main parts: **puborectalis**, **pubococcygeus**, and **iliococcygeus**, all contributing to the integrity and function of the pelvic floor [1].
*Piriformis*
- The **piriformis** muscle is located in the **gluteal region** and passes through the greater sciatic foramen, playing a role in external rotation and abduction of the hip.
- It is part of the deep gluteal muscles and not a direct component of the pelvic diaphragm.
*Gluteus maximus*
- The **gluteus maximus** is the largest and most superficial of the gluteal muscles, primarily responsible for hip extension and external rotation.
- It is a muscle of the **buttocks** and is located external to the pelvis, acting on the hip joint rather than forming part of the pelvic floor.
*Obturator internus*
- The **obturator internus** muscle lies along the lateral wall of the pelvis and exits through the lesser sciatic foramen, contributing to external rotation of the thigh.
- While it is located within the pelvic region, it is part of the **hip rotators** and does not form a structural component of the pelvic diaphragm.
Pelvic Floor Disorders Indian Medical PG Question 2: A patient with second-degree cervical prolapse complains of dribbling of urine when coughing. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Cystitis
- B. Stress incontinence (Correct Answer)
- C. Overflow incontinence
- D. Functional incontinence
Pelvic Floor Disorders Explanation: ***Stress incontinence***
- **Stress incontinence** is characterized by involuntary urine leakage due to increased intra-abdominal pressure (e.g., coughing, sneezing), which is common in association with **pelvic organ prolapse** like a second-degree cervical prolapse.
- The prolapse weakens the **pelvic floor muscles** and supporting structures around the urethra, diminishing its ability to maintain closure during sudden pressure changes.
*Cystitis*
- **Cystitis** is an inflammation of the bladder, typically presenting with symptoms like painful urination (dysuria), frequent urination, and urgency.
- While it can cause bladder irritation, it does not directly lead to urine dribbling with coughing in the absence of other typical infection symptoms.
*Overflow incontinence*
- **Overflow incontinence** occurs due to an **overfilled bladder** that can't empty completely, leading to constant dribbling or leakage.
- This typically results from a **bladder outlet obstruction** or an **underactive detrusor muscle**, not directly from increased abdominal pressure during coughing.
*Functional incontinence*
- **Functional incontinence** is when a person has control over their bladder but cannot reach the toilet in time due to **physical or cognitive impairments**.
- It does not involve a problem with the urinary tract itself but rather with the ability to respond to the urge to urinate.
Pelvic Floor Disorders Indian Medical PG Question 3: All of the following drugs are used for the treatment of urinary incontinence except:
- A. Ipratropium (Correct Answer)
- B. Oxybutynin
- C. Tolterodine
- D. Darifenacin
Pelvic Floor Disorders Explanation: ***Ipratropium***
- **Ipratropium** is a short-acting muscarinic antagonist primarily used as a **bronchodilator** in obstructive lung diseases.
- While it has anticholinergic properties, it is not typically used for **urinary incontinence** due to its limited systemic absorption and short duration of action, making it less effective for bladder control compared to other agents.
*Oxybutynin*
- **Oxybutynin** is a commonly prescribed **muscarinic antagonist** that acts by relaxing the bladder detrusor muscle, increasing bladder capacity and reducing involuntary contractions.
- It is effective in treating **overactive bladder** and urge incontinence.
*Tolterodine*
- **Tolterodine** is a **muscarinic receptor antagonist** that specifically targets M2 and M3 receptors in the bladder, reducing bladder hyperreactivity.
- It is used for the symptomatic treatment of **urge incontinence** and overactive bladder.
*Darifenacin*
- **Darifenacin** is a highly M3-selective muscarinic receptor antagonist, which means it primarily blocks the M3 receptors responsible for **detrusor muscle contraction**.
- Its selectivity helps minimize side effects common to less selective anticholinergics and is used for the treatment of **overactive bladder** with symptoms of urgency, frequency, and urge incontinence.
Pelvic Floor Disorders Indian Medical PG Question 4: Which of the following statements about the Levator Ani is false?
- A. Converges downwards & medially
- B. Attached to the pelvic brim. (Correct Answer)
- C. Made up of iliococcygeus, pubococcygeus, and puborectalis.
- D. Supports pelvic viscera.
Pelvic Floor Disorders Explanation: Attached to the pelvic brim
- This statement is **false** because the levator ani does not attach to the pelvic brim (the inlet of the true pelvis).
- The levator ani originates from: the **posterior surface of the body of pubis**, the **tendinous arch of obturator fascia** (thickening of obturator fascia on lateral pelvic wall), and the **ischial spine**.
- All these attachments are on the **lateral pelvic wall below the pelvic brim**, not at the pelvic brim itself.
- The muscles insert into the **perineal body**, **anococcygeal ligament**, and walls of pelvic viscera.
*Converges downwards & medially*
- This statement is **true** - the levator ani muscles arise from lateral attachments on the pelvic sidewalls and converge **medially and downward** toward the midline.
- This creates the characteristic **funnel-shaped pelvic diaphragm** that narrows inferiorly.
- The fibers run inferomedially to form a muscular sling supporting pelvic structures.
*Supports pelvic viscera*
- This is the **primary function** of the levator ani muscle group [1].
- It forms a muscular floor that supports the **bladder, uterus/prostate, and rectum**, preventing prolapse.
- The muscle maintains the position of pelvic organs against intra-abdominal pressure.
*Made up of iliococcygeus, pubococcygeus, and puborectalis*
- This statement is **correct** - the levator ani consists of three main components [1]:
- **Puborectalis** - forms a sling around the anorectal junction, important for fecal continence [1].
- **Pubococcygeus** - middle portion, supports pelvic viscera [1].
- **Iliococcygeus** - most posterior portion, extends from ischial spine to coccyx [1].
Pelvic Floor Disorders Indian Medical PG Question 5: A patient has dyspareunia, and dysmenorrhea with adnexal tenderness. What is the first step of investigation?
- A. Colposcopy
- B. Diagnostic laparoscopy
- C. Transvaginal USG (Correct Answer)
- D. Transabdominal pelvic ultrasound
Pelvic Floor Disorders Explanation: ***Transvaginal USG***
- This is the **first-line investigation** for evaluating pelvic pain, dyspareunia, dysmenorrhea, and adnexal tenderness due to its ability to provide **high-resolution images** of the uterus, ovaries, and surrounding structures to identify potential pathology like **endometriomas** or other adnexal masses.
- It allows for detailed assessment of **ovarian cysts**, fibroids, and other pelvic abnormalities, which can explain the patient's symptoms.
*Colposcopy*
- This procedure is primarily used to closely examine the **cervix, vagina, and vulva** for abnormal cells, often following an abnormal Pap test.
- It is not the initial step for investigating generalized pelvic pain, dyspareunia, or adnexal tenderness.
*Diagnostic laparoscopy*
- While a **diagnostic laparoscopy** can provide a definitive diagnosis for conditions like **endometriosis**, it is an **invasive surgical procedure** and typically reserved for cases where non-invasive imaging, such as transvaginal ultrasound, has not yielded a clear diagnosis or when conservative management has failed.
- It is not considered the first-step investigation due to its **invasive nature** and associated risks.
*Transabdominal pelvic ultrasound*
- A **transabdominal pelvic ultrasound** provides a broader view of the pelvic organs but often has **lower resolution** and is less accurate for detailed assessment of the uterus, ovaries, and adnexa compared to transvaginal ultrasound, especially in obese patients.
- It is often used if a transvaginal ultrasound is not feasible or for assessing larger pelvic masses, but the **transvaginal approach** is superior for detailed evaluation of the female reproductive organs.
Pelvic Floor Disorders Indian Medical PG Question 6: Kegel's exercises should begin after?
- A. 24 hours after delivery
- B. 3 weeks after delivery
- C. 6 weeks after delivery
- D. Immediately after delivery (Correct Answer)
Pelvic Floor Disorders Explanation: ***Immediately after delivery***
- **Kegel's exercises** can be initiated as soon as possible after delivery, provided the woman feels comfortable and there are no contraindications.
- Early commencement helps **restore pelvic floor muscle tone**, reduce urinary incontinence, and promote healing.
*24 hours after delivery*
- While it is not strictly incorrect to start at 24 hours, waiting unnecessarily delays the potential benefits of **pelvic floor muscle training** for postpartum recovery.
- The goal is to start as early as comfort allows, which can often be within the first few hours.
*3 weeks after delivery*
- Waiting three weeks to begin **Kegel's exercises** would be a significant delay in postpartum recovery.
- Early engagement is crucial for **optimal rehabilitation** of the pelvic floor and prevention of long-term issues.
*6 weeks after delivery*
- Six weeks after delivery is typically the time for the **postpartum check-up**, but it is too late to *begin* Kegel's exercises for optimal benefit.
- By this point, opportunities for **early muscle re-education** and symptom prevention would have been missed.
Pelvic Floor Disorders Indian Medical PG Question 7: Definitive diagnosis of Hirschsprung's disease is done by?
- A. Rectal Manometry
- B. Rectal Biopsy (Correct Answer)
- C. Barium enema
- D. Enteroclysis
Pelvic Floor Disorders Explanation: ***Rectal Biopsy***
- A **rectal biopsy** is considered the gold standard for diagnosing Hirschsprung's disease by identifying the **absence of ganglion cells** in the affected bowel segment [1].
- The biopsy is typically taken from the **submucosal plexus** (Meissner's plexus) or the **myenteric plexus** (Auerbach's plexus) to confirm aganglionosis.
*Rectal Manometry*
- **Rectal manometry** measures the pressure changes in the rectum and can suggest Hirschsprung's by detecting the **absence of rectoanal inhibitory reflex (RAIR)**.
- While highly suggestive, especially in infants, it is not definitive as false positives and negatives can occur, particularly in premature infants or those with other rectal dysfunctions.
*Barium enema*
- A **barium enema** can reveal characteristic radiological findings such as a **transition zone** between a dilated, normally innervated colon and a distal, narrowed aganglionic segment.
- This imaging study is often used as a screening tool or to delineate the extent of the aganglionic segment, but it does not provide histological confirmation.
*Enteroclysis*
- **Enteroclysis** is a specialized barium study used to visualize the small bowel, typically for conditions like Crohn's disease or small bowel obstruction.
- It is **not indicated** for the diagnosis of Hirschsprung's disease, which primarily affects the large intestine.
**References:**
[1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Gastrointestinal Tract, p. 759.
Pelvic Floor Disorders Indian Medical PG Question 8: During surgery for meningioma, the left paracentral lobule was injured. It would lead to paresis of:
- A. Left face
- B. Right shoulder & trunk
- C. Right face
- D. Right Leg and perineum (Correct Answer)
Pelvic Floor Disorders Explanation: Right Leg and perineum
- The **paracentral lobule** is located in the medial aspect of the cerebral hemispheres and contains the cortical representations for the leg and perineum. [1]
- Injury to the **left paracentral lobule** would therefore affect motor control on the contralateral side, specifically the **right leg and perineum**.
*Left face*
- Motor control for the face is primarily located in the **lateral aspects of the precentral gyrus**, not the paracentral lobule.
- A left-sided lesion affecting the face would typically cause **contralateral (right) facial weakness**, not ipsilateral (left).
*Right shoulder & trunk*
- The motor cortex for the shoulder and trunk is located more **superior and lateral** in the precentral gyrus, distal to the paracentral lobule.
- Injury to the paracentral lobule specifically spares these regions.
*Right face*
- As mentioned, the motor control for the face resides in the **lateral precentral gyrus**.
- While this is the contralateral side, the specific anatomical location of the paracentral lobule does not typically involve the face.
Pelvic Floor Disorders Indian Medical PG Question 9: A woman of child-bearing age develops a second-degree uterine prolapse with supravaginal elongation of the cervix. What will be the most appropriate management?
- A. Fothergill's operation (Correct Answer)
- B. Sling operation
- C. Vaginal hysterectomy and pelvic floor repair
- D. Amputation of the cervix
Pelvic Floor Disorders Explanation: ***Fothergill's operation***
- This procedure, also known as **mancuni operation**, is ideal for women of childbearing age with **second-degree uterine prolapse** and **supravaginal elongation of the cervix**.
- It involves **cervical amputation**, anterior colporrhaphy, and posterior colpoperineorrhaphy, effectively correcting the prolapse while preserving the uterus for future pregnancies.
*Sling operation*
- A sling operation (e.g., sacrocolpopexy) is primarily used for **vaginal vault prolapse** after hysterectomy, or for severe uterine prolapse when preservation of the uterus is not a priority.
- It involves suspending the uterus or vagina using synthetic mesh or biological material, which is not the first-line for this specific presentation in a woman desiring future fertility.
*Vaginal hysterectomy and pelvic floor repair*
- This approach is typically chosen for women who have **completed childbearing** or do not desire future pregnancies, as it involves removal of the uterus.
- While it effectively corrects prolapse, it is not the most appropriate management for a woman of childbearing age who may wish to conceive.
*Amputation of the cervix*
- While cervical amputation is a component of Fothergill's operation, performing only **cervical amputation in isolation** would not adequately address the entire prolapse or offer sufficient pelvic floor support.
- This option is incomplete as a definitive management strategy for uterine prolapse with supravaginal elongation.
Pelvic Floor Disorders Indian Medical PG Question 10: Surgical treatment of choice for a 20 year old nulliparous woman with uterine prolapse is:
- A. Sacrocolpopexy (Correct Answer)
- B. Le Forte’s repair
- C. Sling surgery
- D. Abdominal hysterectomy with pelvic floor repair
Pelvic Floor Disorders Explanation: ***Sacrocolpopexy (Sacrohysteropexy variant)***
- For a **young, nulliparous woman**, the procedure of choice is **sacrohysteropexy** (also called sacrocervicopexy), which involves attaching the **uterus/cervix** to the **sacrum** using synthetic mesh, providing durable support while preserving the uterus.
- This is ideal for young women as it **preserves fertility potential** and maintains vaginal length and sexual function.
- The term sacrocolpopexy in this context refers to the uterine-preserving variant, crucial for women desiring future pregnancy.
*Le Forte's repair*
- This is an **obliterative procedure** primarily used in elderly women who are **no longer sexually active**, involving partial closure of the vagina.
- It is absolutely contraindicated in a young, nulliparous woman who desires future sexual function and pregnancy.
*Sling surgery*
- **Sling surgery** is primarily indicated for **stress urinary incontinence**, not uterine prolapse.
- While incontinence can co-exist with prolapse, a sling alone does not address uterine or vaginal apex support.
*Abdominal hysterectomy with pelvic floor repair*
- **Hysterectomy** removes the uterus and would **eliminate fertility**, which is unacceptable for a young, nulliparous woman desiring children.
- Though effective for prolapse, it is an overly aggressive approach; uterine-preserving procedures like sacrohysteropexy are strongly preferred for fertility preservation.
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