Cancer Screening and Control Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Practice Indian Medical PG questions for Cancer Screening and Control. These multiple choice questions (MCQs) cover important concepts and help you prepare for your exams.
Cancer Screening and Control Indian Medical PG Question 1: Which of the following is not a criterion suggesting causality in non communicable diseases?
- A. Specificity of association
- B. Dose response relationship
- C. Strength of association
- D. Lack of temporal association (Correct Answer)
Cancer Screening and Control Explanation: ***Lack of temporal association***
- For an exposure to cause a non-communicable disease, the exposure must precede the disease onset; therefore, a **lack of temporal association** explicitly argues *against* causality.
- This criterion is a fundamental principle of causality, as the **cause must occur before the effect**.
*Specificity of association*
- This criterion suggests that a single exposure should lead to a single disease. However, in non-communicable diseases, a single risk factor may contribute to multiple diseases (e.g., smoking and lung cancer, heart disease, stroke), and a single disease can have **multiple causes**.
- While it was important in the original Bradford Hill criteria, its relevance is diminished in modern epidemiology due to the **multifactorial nature of chronic diseases**.
*Dose response relationship*
- This criterion implies that as the **amount or duration of exposure increases**, the **risk or severity of the disease also increases**.
- This is a strong indicator of causality because it suggests a biological gradient.
*Strength of association*
- A strong association, often measured by a **high relative risk or odds ratio**, increases the likelihood of a causal relationship.
- A weak association, while not ruling out causality, makes it less likely to be directly causal and more likely to be influenced by other factors or confounding variables.
Cancer Screening and Control Indian Medical PG Question 2: Screening of prostate cancer is commonly done by
- A. DRE (digital rectal exam) & PSA (Correct Answer)
- B. MRI imaging
- C. Surgical intervention
- D. Ultrasound-guided procedure
Cancer Screening and Control Explanation: ***DRE (digital rectal exam) & PSA***
- **Digital Rectal Exam (DRE)** allows for palpation of the prostate gland to detect **nodules**, **hardness**, or **asymmetry** that may indicate cancer. [1]
- **Prostate-Specific Antigen (PSA)** is a blood test that measures a protein produced by the prostate gland; elevated levels can suggest prostate cancer.
*MRI imaging*
- While **MRI** is used for **staging** and sometimes for **targeted biopsies** of suspicious lesions, it is not a primary screening tool due to its cost and limited availability for broad population screening.
- It is typically used *after* abnormal DRE or PSA results, or for monitoring.
*Surgical intervention*
- **Surgical intervention** (e.g., radical prostatectomy) is a **treatment** for prostate cancer confirmed by biopsy, not a screening method.
- Screening aims to *detect* the disease, not to treat it.
*Ultrasound-guided procedure*
- **Transrectal ultrasound (TRUS)** is primarily used to **guide prostate biopsies** and determine prostate volume, not as a standalone screening test.
- It does not have sufficient sensitivity or specificity to be routinely used for initial cancer screening.
Cancer Screening and Control Indian Medical PG Question 3: All of the following are risk factors for carcinoma of the gallbladder, EXCEPT -
- A. Adenomatous gall bladder polyps
- B. Choledochal cysts
- C. Oral contraceptives (Correct Answer)
- D. Typhoid carriers
Cancer Screening and Control Explanation: ***Oral contraceptives***
- While **oral contraceptives** can increase the risk of **gallstones**, they are not directly recognized as a specific risk factor for **gallbladder carcinoma**.
- The impact of oral contraceptives on gallbladder cancer risk is generally considered to be minor or non-existent compared to established risk factors.
*Typhoid carriers*
- **Chronic asymptomatic carriers of Salmonella Typhi** have a significantly increased risk of developing **gallbladder carcinoma**, likely due to chronic inflammation and cellular damage.
- The bacteria can reside in the gallbladder for years, leading to a persistent inflammatory state and genetic mutations.
*Adenomatous gall bladder polyps*
- **Adenomatous polyps** in the gallbladder are considered **premalignant lesions**, especially if they are larger than 10 mm, and are associated with an increased risk of progression to adenocarcinoma.
- Their presence indicates a need for careful monitoring and often surgical removal due to their malignant potential.
*Choledochal cysts*
- **Choledochal cysts**, congenital dilations of the bile ducts, are well-established risk factors for **cholangiocarcinoma** (bile duct cancer) and, less commonly, **gallbladder carcinoma**.
- The stasis and reflux of bile within these cysts lead to chronic irritation and inflammation, increasing the risk of malignant transformation.
Cancer Screening and Control Indian Medical PG Question 4: Most common cancer worldwide among the following -
- A. Lung (Correct Answer)
- B. Liver
- C. Kidney
- D. Prostate
Cancer Screening and Control Explanation: ***Lung***
- **Lung cancer** is the most common cancer worldwide, based on incidence and mortality rates [1].
- It is strongly associated with **smoking** and environmental factors [1], [2].
*Liver*
- **Liver cancer** is a significant global health problem, but it ranks below lung cancer in overall incidence [1].
- Risk factors include **hepatitis B and C infections** and **alcohol abuse** [1].
*Kidney*
- **Kidney cancer**, while relatively common, has a lower incidence rate compared to lung cancer [1].
- Its incidence is often higher in developed countries and is linked to **obesity and smoking** [1].
*Prostate*
- **Prostate cancer** is the most common cancer among men in many Western countries, but its worldwide incidence is lower than that of lung cancer.
- It is primarily seen in **older men** and is influenced by genetic and hormonal factors.
Cancer Screening and Control Indian Medical PG Question 5: Cancer control programme was launched in India in?
- A. 1970
- B. 1986
- C. 1976 (Correct Answer)
- D. 1992
Cancer Screening and Control Explanation: **1976**
- The **National Cancer Control Programme (NCCP)** was officially launched in India in **1976** to address the growing burden of cancer.
- Its initial focus was on **primary prevention**, early detection, treatment, and palliation of cancer cases across the country.
*1970*
- While there may have been some preliminary discussions or small-scale initiatives related to cancer in the early 1970s, a formal, comprehensive national cancer control programme was **not launched in 1970**.
- This year generally predates the systematized approach to cancer control taken by many countries.
*1986*
- By **1986**, the National Cancer Control Programme was already established and undergoing **revisions and expansions** based on early experiences and evolving needs.
- The year 1986 did not mark the initial launch, but rather a period of programme enhancement.
*1992*
- The year **1992** saw further significant **revisions and strengthening** of the NCCP, particularly in expanding district-level activities and improving infrastructure for cancer care.
- However, this was a subsequent development, not the original launch year of the program.
Cancer Screening and Control Indian Medical PG Question 6: National Cancer Control Programme (NCCP) in India was launched in
- A. 1992
- B. 1970
- C. 1976 (Correct Answer)
- D. 1986
Cancer Screening and Control Explanation: ***1976***
- The **National Cancer Control Programme (NCCP)** was officially launched in India in **1976**.
- Its primary objective was to provide comprehensive cancer care services, focusing on prevention, early detection, diagnosis, treatment, and palliation.
*1992*
- While significant revisions and expansions to the NCCP occurred in **1992**, this was not its initial launch year.
- The **1992 modifications** focused on decentralization and integrating cancer control activities into primary healthcare.
*1970*
- The year **1970** does not mark the official launch of a national cancer control program in India.
- Prior to 1976, some fragmented efforts existed, but not a unified national program.
*1986*
- **1986** saw further strengthening and refinement of the NCCP, but it was not the year of its inception.
- This period involved efforts to enhance infrastructure and human resources for cancer care.
Cancer Screening and Control Indian Medical PG Question 7: According to WHO Global Action Plan for prevention and control of Non-communicable Diseases 2013-2020, targeted reduction in prevalence of raised blood pressure is :
- A. 25% (Correct Answer)
- B. 33%
- C. 10%
- D. 50%
Cancer Screening and Control Explanation: ***25%***
- The **WHO Global Action Plan for the Prevention and Control of Non-communicable Diseases 2013-2020** set a target to reduce the prevalence of **raised blood pressure** (hypertension) by 25%.
- This target is one of the nine global NCD targets aimed at curbing the NCD epidemic by 2025.
*33%*
- A 33% reduction is not a specific target for raised blood pressure in the WHO Global Action Plan for NCDs.
- While significant reductions are sought across various NCD risk factors, this exact percentage isn't linked to hypertension prevalence.
*10%*
- A 10% reduction is generally considered too low for the ambitious goals set by the WHO for major NCD risk factors like raised blood pressure.
- The plan aims for more substantial public health impact.
*50%*
- A 50% reduction in the prevalence of raised blood pressure is a very ambitious target, even beyond the scope of initial global NCD goals for this particular indicator.
- While desirable, it was not the specific target set for raised blood pressure in the 2013-2020 action plan.
Cancer Screening and Control Indian Medical PG Question 8: Screening for colorectal cancer is recommended when?
- A. The condition has a low case fatality rate.
- B. Diagnostic tools are not available.
- C. There is no effective treatment available.
- D. Early diagnosis can change the disease course due to effective treatment. (Correct Answer)
Cancer Screening and Control Explanation: ***Early diagnosis can change the disease course due to effective treatment.***
- Screening is primarily recommended when **early detection** allows for interventions that effectively alter the natural history of the disease, improving prognosis or preventing progression.
- For colorectal cancer, early diagnosis through screening allows for timely removal of **precancerous polyps** or early-stage cancers, significantly increasing survival rates.
*The condition has a low case fatality rate.*
- Conditions with low case fatality rates generally do not warrant extensive screening programs, as the **benefit-to-harm ratio** is often unfavorable.
- Colorectal cancer, if undiagnosed and untreated, has a significant **case fatality rate**, making screening beneficial.
*Diagnostic tools are not available.*
- Screening is only conducted when **reliable, accurate, and cost-effective diagnostic tools** are available to detect the disease or its precursors in asymptomatic individuals.
- If diagnostic tools are unavailable, screening would be impossible or ineffective, as there would be no way to identify those with the condition.
*There is no effective treatment available.*
- Screening is not typically recommended for diseases for which there is **no effective treatment**, as early detection would not improve patient outcomes.
- The primary purpose of screening is to identify individuals who can benefit from **early intervention** and treatment to prevent serious morbidity or mortality.
Cancer Screening and Control Indian Medical PG Question 9: WHO global target for prevention and control of non-communicable diseases by 2025 is to decrease hypertension by:
- A. 25% (Correct Answer)
- B. 55%
- C. 75%
- D. 35%
Cancer Screening and Control Explanation: ***25%***
- The World Health Organization (WHO) set a **global target** to reduce the prevalence of high blood pressure (hypertension) by **25%** among individuals aged 18+ years by 2025, from a 2010 baseline.
- This target is part of a broader WHO effort to combat **non-communicable diseases (NCDs)** and improve global health outcomes.
*55%*
- This percentage is not recognized as a specific WHO global target for the reduction of hypertension prevalence.
- The NCD targets generally focus on more achievable and evidence-based reductions to ensure global feasibility.
*75%*
- A 75% reduction in hypertension prevalence is an exceptionally ambitious target that has not been set by WHO for the 2025 timeframe.
- Such a drastic reduction is typically not seen in global public health goals due to the complex nature of NCDs and their determinants.
*35%*
- While significant, a 35% reduction is not the specified WHO global target for hypertension by 2025.
- The established target reflects a balance between ambition and realistic attainability across diverse global health systems.
Cancer Screening and Control Indian Medical PG Question 10: Minimum age for routine screening of osteoporosis in women according to USPSTF guidelines:
- A. 55 years
- B. 60 years
- C. 50 years
- D. 65 years (Correct Answer)
Cancer Screening and Control Explanation: ***65 years***
- The **U.S. Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF)** recommends routine osteoporosis screening with **bone mineral density (BMD) testing** for all women aged 65 years and older.
- This recommendation is based on evidence that screening in this age group can effectively reduce the risk of **osteoporotic fractures**.
*55 years*
- This age is **too early** for routine osteoporosis screening in women according to current USPSTF guidelines.
- Screening before age 65 is recommended only for younger women at **increased risk** of osteoporosis.
*60 years*
- This age is also **too early** for routine osteoporosis screening in women without additional risk factors.
- The benefits of universal screening typically outweigh the harms beginning at age 65.
*50 years*
- This age is generally considered **too young** for routine osteoporosis screening.
- Women in this age group are often still premenopausal or early postmenopausal and typically do not have a sufficiently high risk to warrant routine screening.
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