Vicarious liability of the principal

Vicarious liability of the principal

Published September 28, 2026

Vicarious liability of the principal

On this page

The Employer’s Exposure: Status First, Scope Second

Vicarious liability asks whether a principal must answer for a tort committed by a worker while the worker was acting within the scope of employment. The governing doctrine is respondeat superior: an employer is liable for an employee’s tort when two requirements are met:

  1. The tortfeasor is an employee, rather than an independent contractor; and

  2. The employee committed the tort within the scope of employment.

The employer’s own negligence is not required. The employee remains personally liable, but the employer is additionally responsible because the employment relationship placed the worker’s conduct within the enterprise’s risk.

“Scope of employment” is a separate question from employee status. Conduct is generally within scope when it is the kind of work the employee was hired to perform, occurs substantially within authorized time and space limits, and is motivated at least partly by a purpose to serve the employer. An employee’s violation of instructions does not automatically defeat scope. A forbidden method of performing assigned work may still be in scope; a wholly personal mission ordinarily is not.

Intentional torts require closer attention. The employer may be liable when the employee was at least partly trying to serve the employer or when the use of force was connected with and reasonably expectable from the job. An employee’s purely personal assault, motivated solely by private anger or revenge, ordinarily falls outside respondeat superior. The fact that an employer prohibited the precise conduct is not by itself decisive.

For a commute, the ordinary going-and-coming rule usually places the employee outside scope. The analysis can change when the employee is on a special business mission, making a work-related trip, or using transportation supplied for the employer’s business. The question remains whether the employee was carrying out the employer’s work when the tort occurred.

A reliable order is:

  1. Identify the worker’s status using the control test.

  2. Identify the tort and the conduct producing it.

  3. Ask whether the conduct was within authorized time and space and connected to the employer’s business.

  4. Separate a prohibited way of doing the job from a personal departure from the job.

  5. If both status and scope are satisfied, impose vicarious liability without requiring proof that the employer itself acted negligently.

This is a closed-book topic: memorize the two respondeat-superior requirements and the complete scope-of-employment inquiry.

Loading diagram…

The sequence matters. Do not decide that an employer is liable merely because the tort happened during working hours, and do not decide that it is not liable merely because the employee disobeyed an instruction.

The Venture’s Shared Risk: One Project Can Create Partnership Liability

A joint venture is a business association formed for a limited commercial purpose. It is ordinarily shown by:

  1. An agreement, express or implied, to pursue a common business purpose;

  2. Contributions of money, property, skill, labor, or knowledge by the participants;

  3. Joint control or a mutual right to control the venture; and

  4. An agreement or arrangement to share profits and losses.

The participants need not contribute equally, share profits equally, or operate a long-term business. A single construction project, property development, or coordinated sale can be enough. Conversely, mere co-ownership, a loan, a referral arrangement, or an agreement to divide revenue does not establish a joint venture without shared control and shared business risk.

For tort liability, treat a joint venture like a partnership formed for the particular venture. A co-venturer is an agent of the venture when acting in the ordinary course of the venture’s business. Under RUPA § 305(a), the partnership is liable for loss or injury caused by a partner’s wrongful act or omission in the ordinary course of the partnership’s business or with authority of the partnership. The same principle applies to a joint venture’s ordinary business.

Thus, ask two separate questions:

  • Was there a joint venture?

  • Was the co-venturer acting in the ordinary course of that venture when the tort occurred?

If both answers are yes, the venture is vicariously liable. Under RUPA § 306(a), partners are generally jointly and severally liable for partnership obligations., so the co-venturers may also face personal liability for the venture’s obligation. The co-venturer who personally committed the negligent or wrongful act is independently liable as a tortfeasor as well.

The fact that one participant had more expertise or performed most of the physical work does not eliminate joint-venture status if the participants retained shared control and shared the economic risk. Likewise, a co-venturer’s unauthorized personal errand is not ordinary venture business merely because it occurred during the project.

Keep contract authority distinct from tort-based venture liability. For a contract, RUPA § 301(1) provides that a partner’s act apparently carrying on in the ordinary course binds the partnership unless the partner had no authority and the person dealing with the partner knew or had received a notification that the partner lacked authority. That rule concerns the partnership’s contractual obligation; the tort rule comes from the wrongful-act principle in RUPA § 305(a).

An LLC is not automatically a joint venture or partnership. Under ULLCA (2013) § 301(a), a member is not an agent of the LLC solely because of membership. The 2013 ULLCA contains no statutory ordinary-course apparent-authority rule for members or managers comparable to the former 1996 act. Therefore, “member,” “investor,” or “co-owner” is not a shortcut to vicarious liability.

The Contractor Boundary: Control, Exceptions, and Near Misses

An independent contractor is a person engaged to produce a result who ordinarily controls the manner and means of accomplishing the work. The label in a contract is evidence, not a conclusion. The central question is whether the putative employer retained the right to control the physical details of the work, not merely the desired result.

Courts weigh the totality of the relationship, including:

  • The extent of the principal’s control over details;

  • Whether the worker operates a distinct occupation or business;

  • Whether the work is usually done under the direction of an employer or by a specialist without supervision;

  • The skill required;

  • Who supplies the instrumentalities, tools, and place of work;

  • The length of the relationship;

  • Whether payment is by time or by the job;

  • Whether the work is part of the principal’s regular business;

  • The parties’ belief about their relationship; and

  • Whether the principal is itself engaged in the relevant business.

No single factor is conclusive. A worker paid by the job may still be an employee if the principal controls the details. A worker paid hourly may still be an independent contractor if the worker runs a separate business and controls the work’s methods. Tax treatment, a written “independent contractor” label, and the worker’s title do not control.

QuestionEmployeeIndependent contractor
Decisive relationship factPrincipal has the right to control work detailsWorker controls manner and means, while principal specifies the result
Typical business settingWork is integrated into the principal’s regular businessWorker operates a distinct occupation or business
Vicarious tort consequencePrincipal liable for tort within scope of employmentPrincipal generally not liable for the contractor’s tort
Important near missDisobeying instructions may still occur within scopeContract label does not establish contractor status
Separate liabilityRespondeat superior does not require employer negligencePrincipal’s negligent hiring or retained control is direct negligence, not vicarious liability

The general rule is that a principal is not vicariously liable for an independent contractor’s tort. Important exceptions to the no-vicarious-liability rule include:

  • The work involved an inherently or abnormally dangerous activity for which responsibility cannot be delegated; or

  • The principal owed a nondelegable duty imposed by law.

Retained control that contributes to the injury and the principal’s independent negligence in selecting, instructing, supervising, or retaining the contractor are separate direct-liability theories, not exceptions to the independent-contractor rule.

The last category is a frequent trap. Negligent hiring or supervision is direct liability based on the principal’s own breach and causation. It is not respondeat superior and does not convert the contractor into an employee.

A contractor may also be an agent for some purposes, but agency status alone does not make the principal vicariously liable for every tort. For the tort question, classify the worker under the control factors and then test for a recognized exception.

Recurring errors:

  • Calling a worker an independent contractor because the written agreement uses that label, even though the principal dictated the worker’s daily methods.

  • Treating every instruction violation as outside scope, even when the employee was still performing the assigned job.

  • Treating a shared profit arrangement as a joint venture without asking whether the participants shared control and losses.

  • Calling negligent hiring “vicarious liability” when the alleged breach is the principal’s own failure to use reasonable care.

One Screened Problem: A Delivery Route and a Forbidden Passenger

Apply the status question before the scope question; the most tempting wrong answers collapse those inquiries.

Ridge Floral hired Dana to deliver arrangements five days a week. Ridge set Dana’s hours and routes, supplied a marked van, paid Dana weekly, and required Dana to wear a Ridge uniform.

Ridge instructed Dana not to carry personal passengers, but Dana sometimes drove a friend a short distance while making deliveries. During a scheduled delivery on Ridge’s assigned route, Dana negligently struck a pedestrian while driving the van.

Ridge had not negligently hired or supervised Dana.

Practice

Is Ridge vicariously liable for the pedestrian’s injury?

Three Liability Traps: Separate the Worker, the Venture, and the Act

Practice

A store employee whose job is to remove trespassers pushed a customer while escorting him out during her shift. Store policy prohibited physical contact, but she acted to enforce the store’s rights rather than from personal anger. Is the store vicariously liable?

Arun and Bea agreed to develop one parcel for sale, with Arun contributing money, Bea contributing construction skill, and both sharing control, profits, and losses. While performing venture work, Bea negligently left a trench unguarded, injuring a pedestrian. Which result is best?

A homeowner hired a roofing company to replace a roof and specified only the finished result; the company controlled its workers, tools, and methods. One worker negligently dropped a tile onto a passerby. The homeowner did not negligently select or supervise the company, retain control, or delegate a nondelegable duty. Is the homeowner vicariously liable?

High-Yield Points - ⚡ Biggest Takeaways

Vicarious liability requires an employee and an in-scope tort; control and scope answer separate questions. A joint venture needs shared control and shared profit-and-loss risk, not mere co-ownership or cooperation. An independent contractor usually breaks respondeat superior unless a recognized exception or direct negligence applies.

Unlock the full lesson and continue reading

Signup to continue reading this lesson and unlimited access questions, flashcards, AI notes, and more

Scan to download app

Scan to download
UNLOCK FREE ACCESS

Practice Questions: Vicarious liability of the principal

  1. 1. Three architects formed a general partnership without a written partnership agreement. One contributed 60% of the initial capital, and the other two each contributed 20%. The partners agreed to share profits equally but did not discuss voting rights. Six months later, the partner who contributed 60% proposed admitting an outside investor as a fourth partner. That partner voted in favor of admission, but the other two partners opposed it. No partner has withdrawn, and the partnership remains solvent. Under generally accepted default rules governing general partnerships, which of the following best states how management votes and admission of the investor should be handled?

    • A. Each partner has an equal vote, and admission of the investor requires unanimous partner consent.
    • B. Voting power follows capital contributions, and admission of the investor requires approval by partners holding a majority interest.
    • C. Each partner has an equal vote, and admission of the investor requires only a majority of the partners.
    • D. Voting power follows profit shares, and admission of the investor requires approval by partners holding two-thirds of those shares.
    Show answer

    Answer: A. Each partner has an equal vote, and admission of the investor requires unanimous partner consent.

    Each partner has an equal vote, and admission of the investor requires unanimous partner consent. - Without a contrary agreement, each general partner has equal management rights, despite the 60%–20%–20% capital contributions. - Admitting a new partner requires unanimous consent, so the two opposing partners prevent the investor’s admission. Voting power follows capital contributions, and admission of the investor requires approval by partners holding a majority interest. - The 60% contributor does not receive 60% of management votes; each partner has an equal vote. - A majority capital interest cannot admit the investor because admission requires every partner’s consent. Each partner has an equal vote, and admission of the investor requires only a majority of the partners. - Equal voting rights are correct because the partners made no voting agreement. - Admission is not an ordinary matter decided by majority vote; the two partners’ objections defeat the required unanimous consent. Voting power follows profit shares, and admission of the investor requires approval by partners holding two-thirds of those shares. - Although profits are shared equally, management rights arise from partner status, not the agreed profit shares. - The opposing partners together hold two-thirds of the profit shares, but no two-thirds threshold governs admission; all three must consent.

  2. 2. A heating company employed a technician to perform residential furnace inspections. The company instructed technicians not to repair unrelated appliances during inspection visits. While inspecting a customer’s furnace, the technician noticed a broken ceiling fan. Hoping to earn a personal tip, the technician offered to repair the fan after clocking out. The customer agreed. The technician used his own tools, accepted payment personally, and damaged the ceiling while attempting the repair. The customer knew that the written furnace appointment covered only inspection services, but believed that the technician remained a company employee. The customer sued the company under respondeat superior for the ceiling damage. Which of the following is the company’s strongest argument against vicarious liability?

    • A. The company is liable because the technician had actual authority to attend the customer’s property.
    • B. The company is liable because technicians commonly perform repairs of the type the technician attempted.
    • C. The company is not liable because the customer, rather than the company, requested the additional repair.
    • D. The company is not liable because the technician substantially departed from assigned work for a purely personal purpose.
    Show answer

    Answer: D. The company is not liable because the technician substantially departed from assigned work for a purely personal purpose.

    The company is not liable because the technician substantially departed from assigned work for a purely personal purpose. - Respondeat superior generally requires a tort committed within the scope of employment, but the technician damaged the ceiling while repairing an unrelated fan after clocking out. - He used his own tools and accepted payment personally, supporting the company’s argument that the repair was a personal undertaking, not company work. The company is liable because the technician had actual authority to attend the customer’s property. - Authority to enter for the scheduled furnace inspection did not extend the technician’s assigned work to an unrelated fan repair. - The customer knew the written appointment covered only inspection services, even though the technician remained a company employee. The company is liable because technicians commonly perform repairs of the type the technician attempted. - The facts do not establish that company technicians commonly repair ceiling fans; the company expressly instructed them not to repair unrelated appliances. - Even similarity to a technician’s usual skills would not make this after-hours, personally paid repair part of the assigned inspection. The company is not liable because the customer, rather than the company, requested the additional repair. - The technician offered to repair the fan, and the customer agreed; the customer did not initiate the request. - In any event, a customer’s request alone does not determine scope of employment; the separate task and personal purpose make the company’s stronger argument.

  3. 3. A corporation operates six bakeries. Its board adopted a bylaw requiring advance board approval for any equipment purchase exceeding $50,000, and the corporation's standard master supply agreements informed suppliers of this requirement. The president, without board approval, signed a purchase order for a $70,000 commercial oven from a supplier with which the corporation had no prior master agreement and no history of prior dealings. The supplier had no knowledge of the approval requirement and began manufacturing a custom oven. When the oven was delivered, the board learned that the president had not obtained approval, but the board inspected the oven, installed it in one of its bakeries, and used it for six weeks without objecting to the supplier or attempting to return it. The corporation then argued that it was not bound because the president lacked authority to place the order. Which of the following is the supplier's strongest argument that the corporation is bound?

    • A. The supplier can enforce the order because the president had apparent authority arising from the corporation's manifestations and the supplier's reasonable reliance.
    • B. The supplier cannot enforce the order because the president lacked actual authority under the board's bylaw.
    • C. The supplier can enforce the order because the board, with knowledge of the president's lack of approval, ratified the purchase by accepting delivery of the oven and using it for six weeks without objection.
    • D. The supplier cannot enforce the order because a corporate officer's position cannot support apparent authority for ordinary transactions.
    Show answer

    Answer: C. The supplier can enforce the order because the board, with knowledge of the president's lack of approval, ratified the purchase by accepting delivery of the oven and using it for six weeks without objection.

    The supplier can enforce the order because the board, with knowledge of the president's lack of approval, ratified the purchase by accepting delivery of the oven and using it for six weeks without objection. - The board learned that the $70,000 order lacked approval, then inspected and installed the oven and used it for six weeks. - Keeping and using the custom oven without objection after learning of the unauthorized purchase ratified the order, binding the corporation despite the president’s lack of approval. The supplier can enforce the order because the president had apparent authority arising from the corporation's manifestations and the supplier's reasonable reliance. - Apparent authority depends on the corporation’s manifestations to the supplier and the supplier’s reasonable reliance when the order was placed. - The supplier had no prior agreement or dealings with the corporation, so apparent authority is less certain than the board’s later ratification. The supplier cannot enforce the order because the president lacked actual authority under the board's bylaw. - The bylaw required advance board approval for purchases exceeding $50,000, which the president did not obtain for this $70,000 oven. - Lack of actual authority does not prevent the corporation from becoming bound when its board later ratifies the purchase. The supplier cannot enforce the order because a corporate officer's position cannot support apparent authority for ordinary transactions. - An officer’s position can contribute to apparent authority for transactions ordinarily entrusted to that officer; it is not categorically irrelevant. - Regardless of what the president’s position conveyed when he ordered the oven, the board’s informed acceptance and use provide the stronger basis for enforcement.

  4. 4. A hardware store corporation hired a purchasing manager and told her privately that she could order no more than $8,000 of tools per month. For two years, the corporation allowed the manager to place larger orders with a hardware supplier, paid every invoice, and listed her on its website as “Purchasing Manager.” When the corporation later decided that the manager should stop ordering from that supplier, it sent the supplier a signed letter stating that the manager no longer had authority to order on its behalf and removed her title from the website. Despite receiving this notice, the manager ordered $12,000 of tools in the corporation’s name. The supplier, having received the corporation’s letter, shipped the tools anyway, claiming it still believed she was authorized. The corporation refused delivery and denied that the manager could bind it. Which of the following is the corporation’s strongest argument that it is not bound?

    • A. The manager lacked actual authority to place the order, so the corporation cannot be bound under any theory of agency.
    • B. The corporation’s actual notice to the supplier of the limitation terminated the manager’s apparent authority, making the supplier’s continued reliance unreasonable.
    • C. The supplier’s decision to ship the tools despite the notice constituted an independent breach that excuses the corporation’s performance.
    • D. Because the manager exceeded her authority once, all of her subsequent apparent authority was automatically revoked as a matter of law.
    Show answer

    Answer: B. The corporation’s actual notice to the supplier of the limitation terminated the manager’s apparent authority, making the supplier’s continued reliance unreasonable.

    The corporation’s actual notice to the supplier of the limitation terminated the manager’s apparent authority, making the supplier’s continued reliance unreasonable. - The corporation’s payments for larger orders and its website listing previously gave the supplier reason to believe the manager could order on its behalf. - Once the supplier received the corporation’s signed letter stating that she no longer had authority to order, that earlier course of dealing could not justify shipping the $12,000 order. The manager lacked actual authority to place the order, so the corporation cannot be bound under any theory of agency. - The private $8,000 monthly limit meant the manager lacked actual authority for this $12,000 order. - Lack of actual authority alone does not defeat apparent authority, which the corporation’s earlier conduct had created before it notified the supplier. The supplier’s decision to ship the tools despite the notice constituted an independent breach that excuses the corporation’s performance. - Shipping after receiving the letter does not itself establish a breach by the supplier that excuses the corporation. - The decisive issue is whether the supplier could reasonably rely on the manager’s authority after receiving notice, not whether shipment was prudent. Because the manager exceeded her authority once, all of her subsequent apparent authority was automatically revoked as a matter of law. - The corporation had paid larger orders for two years, so exceeding the private limit did not automatically end the authority the supplier reasonably perceived. - The supplier’s belief became unreasonable because of the corporation’s direct notice, not because a prior order exceeded the manager’s authority.

  5. 5. A beverage company appointed an employee as its purchasing manager but privately limited the manager to purchases under $25,000. For two years, the company allowed the manager to negotiate ingredient purchases, use a company email address bearing the title “Purchasing Manager,” and sign contracts that the company performed. The company never disclosed the dollar limit to suppliers. The manager then signed a $40,000 ingredient contract with a supplier that had previously completed three smaller transactions through the manager. The supplier knew only the manager's title and the company's prior performance. When market prices fell, the company refused delivery and asserted that the manager lacked authority. The supplier seeks payment under the contract. Which of the following is the supplier's strongest argument that the company is bound?

    • A. The company is bound because its conduct caused the supplier reasonably to believe that the manager had authority to purchase inventory.
    • B. The company is bound because a managerial title conclusively gives an employee actual authority to enter any ordinary supply contract.
    • C. The company is not bound because the manager lacked actual authority, regardless of the company's communications to the supplier.
    • D. The company is not bound because an agent cannot create apparent authority unless the agent expressly describes the authority to the third party.
    Show answer

    Answer: A. The company is bound because its conduct caused the supplier reasonably to believe that the manager had authority to purchase inventory.

    The company is bound because its conduct caused the supplier reasonably to believe that the manager had authority to purchase inventory. - Apparent authority arises from the company’s conduct: it gave the employee a purchasing-manager role and company email address, then performed contracts the manager signed. - The supplier had completed three earlier transactions through the manager and did not know of the private $25,000 limit, supporting a reasonable belief that the manager could make the $40,000 purchase. The company is bound because a managerial title conclusively gives an employee actual authority to enter any ordinary supply contract. - A title does not conclusively establish actual authority; the company privately limited this manager’s purchases to less than $25,000. - The title matters instead as part of the company’s manifestations supporting apparent authority, alongside its performance of earlier contracts. The company is not bound because the manager lacked actual authority, regardless of the company's communications to the supplier. - The $40,000 contract exceeded the manager’s actual authority under the private $25,000 limit. - That limit does not defeat apparent authority if the company’s conduct reasonably led the supplier to believe the manager could bind it. The company is not bound because an agent cannot create apparent authority unless the agent expressly describes the authority to the third party. - An agent’s own description of authority is neither required nor, by itself, sufficient to create apparent authority. - Here, the relevant manifestations came from the company: its placement of the manager in the purchasing role and its performance of contracts the manager signed.

  6. 6. Before any corporation was formed, a promoter signed a two-year office lease that stated, "Tenant: BrightPath, Inc., a corporation to be formed, by Elena Ortiz, promoter," and further provided, "Landlord agrees that Elena Ortiz signs solely as promoter for the corporation and shall have no personal liability under this lease once the corporation is formed and adopts the lease." The landlord knew that BrightPath did not yet exist. After incorporation, BrightPath's board learned of the lease, moved the company into the office, and paid rent for six months. The corporation later stopped paying rent. The landlord sued both the corporation and the promoter for unpaid rent. Which of the following best states the parties' potential liability?

    • A. Only the promoter is potentially liable because a corporation cannot assume obligations arising before its formation.
    • B. Only the corporation is potentially liable because the lease expressly disclaimed the promoter's liability once the corporation adopted the lease.
    • C. Both the corporation and the promoter are potentially liable because adoption alone never releases a promoter absent a contrary agreement.
    • D. Neither is potentially liable because the landlord knowingly contracted with an entity that did not yet exist.
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Only the corporation is potentially liable because the lease expressly disclaimed the promoter's liability once the corporation adopted the lease.

    Only the corporation is potentially liable because the lease expressly disclaimed the promoter's liability once the corporation adopted the lease. - BrightPath adopted the lease by moving into the office and paying rent for six months, making it potentially liable for unpaid rent. - The lease expressly ended Elena’s personal liability once BrightPath was formed and adopted it, and both conditions occurred. Only the promoter is potentially liable because a corporation cannot assume obligations arising before its formation. - A corporation can become liable on a preformation contract by adopting it after incorporation, as BrightPath did through occupancy and rent payments. - Elena’s liability ended under the lease’s express provision when BrightPath formed and adopted the lease. Both the corporation and the promoter are potentially liable because adoption alone never releases a promoter absent a contrary agreement. - Ordinarily, a corporation’s adoption does not by itself release a promoter from a preformation contract. - This lease supplies the contrary agreement: Elena has no personal liability once BrightPath is formed and adopts it. Neither is potentially liable because the landlord knowingly contracted with an entity that did not yet exist. - The landlord’s knowledge that BrightPath had not yet formed does not prevent the corporation from later adopting the lease. - BrightPath’s occupancy and rent payments support its liability, while the lease’s express terms govern Elena’s release.

  7. 7. Two founders signed and filed articles of incorporation for Bright Labs Corporation, believing in good faith that the filing was complete and valid. Unknown to them, the filing was rejected by the secretary of state's office for a technical defect, though they were never notified. Believing the corporation existed, the founders operated the business as Bright Labs Corporation, signed a supply contract in the corporate name, and dealt with a supplier who believed it was contracting with a validly formed corporation. The supply contract went unpaid. The supplier now seeks to hold the founders personally liable, arguing that Bright Labs Corporation never legally came into existence. Which of the following best states the founders' liability under generally accepted corporate principles?

    • A. The founders are personally liable because a corporation that fails to file valid articles never exists for any purpose.
    • B. The founders are not personally liable because Bright Labs qualifies as a de facto corporation, shielding them from personal liability to the supplier.
    • C. The founders are personally liable because de facto corporation status requires actual notice to the third party of the incorporation defect.
    • D. The founders are not personally liable because the supplier's belief that a corporation existed automatically estops it from asserting personal liability.
    Show answer

    Answer: B. The founders are not personally liable because Bright Labs qualifies as a de facto corporation, shielding them from personal liability to the supplier.

    The founders are not personally liable because Bright Labs qualifies as a de facto corporation, shielding them from personal liability to the supplier. - The founders made a good-faith attempt to incorporate by signing and submitting articles, unaware that the filing had been rejected for a technical defect. - They then exercised corporate powers by operating and contracting as Bright Labs Corporation, so the de facto corporation doctrine shields them from personal liability on the supply contract. The founders are personally liable because a corporation that fails to file valid articles never exists for any purpose. - Rejection of the filing means Bright Labs was not a de jure corporation, but it does not rule out de facto corporate status. - Treating every defective filing as creating personal liability would disregard the founders’ good-faith attempt and their operation in the corporate name. The founders are personally liable because de facto corporation status requires actual notice to the third party of the incorporation defect. - De facto corporation status turns on the attempt to incorporate and the subsequent use of corporate powers, not the supplier’s notice of the defect. - The supplier believed it was dealing with a valid corporation; its lack of notice does not make the founders personally liable under this doctrine. The founders are not personally liable because the supplier's belief that a corporation existed automatically estops it from asserting personal liability. - The supplier’s dealings with Bright Labs may raise corporation by estoppel, a separate doctrine from de facto corporation. - The supplier’s belief alone does not automatically establish estoppel; the founders’ stronger basis for avoiding liability is their good-faith incorporation attempt and subsequent corporate operation.

  8. 8. A real estate agent, acting without any actual or apparent authority, signed a contract on behalf of a landowner to sell a parcel of land to a buyer for $200,000. The landowner did not learn of the contract until after it was signed. Upon learning of the contract, the landowner accepted a $20,000 deposit check from the buyer and instructed her attorney to begin preparing closing documents. Two weeks later, the landowner changed her mind, returned the deposit, and refused to close. The buyer sues to enforce the contract. Which of the following best states whether the landowner is bound?

    • A. The landowner is bound because her acceptance of the deposit and instructions to prepare closing documents ratified the unauthorized contract.
    • B. The landowner is bound because the agent's statement to the buyer independently established actual authority for the sale.
    • C. The landowner is not bound because the agent had no actual or apparent authority at the time the contract was signed.
    • D. The landowner is not bound because ratification requires a signed writing identical to the original contract.
    Show answer

    Answer: A. The landowner is bound because her acceptance of the deposit and instructions to prepare closing documents ratified the unauthorized contract.

    The landowner is bound because her acceptance of the deposit and instructions to prepare closing documents ratified the unauthorized contract. - After learning of the $200,000 contract, the landowner accepted the buyer’s $20,000 deposit and directed her attorney to prepare closing documents, conduct that ratified the agent’s act. - Ratification binds the landowner despite the agent’s initial lack of authority; returning the deposit two weeks later does not undo it. The landowner is bound because the agent's statement to the buyer independently established actual authority for the sale. - Actual authority must come from the landowner’s authorization, not from the agent’s statement to the buyer. - The landowner is bound by her later ratification, not by anything the agent said when signing the contract. The landowner is not bound because the agent had no actual or apparent authority at the time the contract was signed. - The agent had neither actual nor apparent authority when signing, so the contract did not bind the landowner at that time. - Her subsequent acceptance of the deposit and instructions to prepare closing documents ratified the contract. The landowner is not bound because ratification requires a signed writing identical to the original contract. - Ratification can be shown by affirming conduct, including knowingly accepting a transaction’s benefits. - The landowner’s acceptance of the $20,000 deposit and instructions to prepare closing documents support ratification without an identical signed writing.

Flashcards: Vicarious liability of the principal

  1. 1. How do an employee’s frolic and detour affect the employer’s vicarious liability?

    Show answer

    A minor deviation from employment, or detour, generally remains within the scope of employment, while a substantial abandonment for personal purposes, or frolic, generally falls outside it. The issue is determined by the nature, extent, and duration of the deviation.

  2. 2. What facts establish actual authority in an agent?

    Show answer

    Actual authority exists when the principal’s manifestations cause the agent reasonably to believe the agent is authorized to act for the principal. It may be express or implied, including authority to perform acts reasonably necessary to accomplish an expressly authorized task.

  3. 3. What is the principal’s liability for an agent’s intentional tort committed within the scope of employment?

    Show answer

    The principal is liable when the employee’s intentional tort is motivated, at least in part, by a purpose to serve the employer, including acts intended to further the employer’s interests or arising from employment-related friction. Purely personal acts generally fall outside the scope, though the employer may still be directly negligent.

  4. 4. When is an agent personally liable on a contract made for a principal?

    Show answer

    An agent is generally not liable on a disclosed principal’s authorized contract, but may be liable if the principal is undisclosed or partially disclosed, the agent lacked authority, or the agent agreed to be liable. A principal is bound when the agent acted with actual or apparent authority or the principal ratified the agreement.

  5. 5. When does an agent have apparent authority to bind the principal?

    Show answer

    Apparent authority exists when the principal’s manifestations to a third party reasonably cause the third party to believe the agent is authorized, and the third party reasonably relies on that belief. The agent’s own statements alone generally cannot create apparent authority.

  6. 6. When is a principal vicariously liable for an employee’s tort?

    Show answer

    Under respondeat superior, a principal is vicariously liable for an employee’s tort committed within the scope of employment. The employee’s conduct must generally be of the kind the employee was hired to perform, occur substantially within authorized time and space limits, and be motivated at least partly by a purpose to serve the employer.

  7. 7. What is the effect of an agent’s unauthorized act when the principal later ratifies it?

    Show answer

    Ratification occurs when the principal, with knowledge of material facts, affirms or accepts the benefits of an unauthorized act, thereby treating it as authorized from the outset. The principal must ratify the entire transaction and have capacity and authority to do so.

  8. 8. What is an agency relationship, and what elements are required to create one?

    Show answer

    Agency is a fiduciary relationship in which an agent acts on behalf of and subject to the principal’s control, and the agent manifests assent or otherwise consents. No particular words or formalities are required unless a statute demands them.

  9. 9. Is a principal vicariously liable for an independent contractor’s torts?

    Show answer

    Under the majority rule, a principal is generally not vicariously liable for an independent contractor’s torts because the principal lacks the requisite control over the manner of work. Exceptions include inherently dangerous or nondelegable activities, negligent selection, and liability imposed by statute.

  10. 10. What are an agent’s core fiduciary duties to the principal?

    Show answer

    Under the majority and Restatement rules, the agent owes duties of loyalty, care, competence, obedience, good conduct, confidentiality, and accounting, including a duty to avoid conflicts and improper profits. The agent must act within the scope of authority and in the principal’s best interests.

Everything you need for Bar Exam prep

Get full Oncourse access with lessons, practice questions, flashcards and AI study tools.

GET STARTED FOR FREE
75% OFFLimited time offer
GET 75% OFF